what is the smallest distance to points can be separated, and still
resolved, using light microscopy?
a. 16-20nm
b. 0.16-0.2 um
c. 1600 nm- 2um
d. 160-200 um

Answers

Answer 1

The smallest distance to points that can be resolved using light microscopy is 160-200 nm.

This limit is determined by the diffraction of light waves, which causes them to spread out and interfere with one another. This diffraction limit is also known as the Abbe limit and is given by the equation d=0.61λ/NA, where d is the smallest distance that can be resolved, λ is the wavelength of light used, and NA is the numerical aperture of the lens. For visible light, which has a wavelength of about 500 nm, the resolution limit is about 200 nm. However, with the use of advanced techniques such as super-resolution microscopy, it is now possible to resolve distances as small as 10-20 nm.

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Related Questions

What parts of the sequence were particularly hard to place? Why? How is an electrical signal converted to a chemical signal at 3 nerve terminal? Hew do transmitter-gated ion channels convert the chemical neurotransmitter back into an electrical signal carried by 3 signal?

Answers

The parts of the sequence were particularly hard to place is the conversion of the electrical signal to a chemical signal because they involve complex interactions.

An electrical signal converted to a chemical signal at 3 nerve terminal through the release of neurotransmitters

Transmitter-gated ion channels convert the chemical neurotransmitter back into an electrical signal carried by 3 signal by neurotransmitter binding to gate-emitting ion channels

The parts of the sequence that were particularly hard to place were the conversion of the electrical signal to a chemical signal at the nerve terminal and the conversion of the chemical neurotransmitter back into an electrical signal carried by the ion channels. These processes can be difficult to understand because they involve complex interactions between different molecules and ions.

At the nerve terminal, the electrical signal is converted to a chemical signal through the release of neurotransmitters. This occurs when voltage-gated calcium channels in the nerve terminal open in response to the electrical signal, allowing calcium ions to enter the cell. The influx of calcium triggers the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft.

The neurotransmitters then bind to transmitter-gated ion channels on the postsynaptic cell, causing the channels to open and allowing ions to flow into the cell. This influx of ions creates an electrical signal that is carried by the ion channels. The neurotransmitters are then removed from the synaptic cleft through reuptake or enzymatic breakdown, allowing the ion channels to close and ending the electrical signal.

Overall, the conversion of electrical signals to chemical signals and back again is a complex process that involves the interaction of multiple molecules and ions. Understanding these processes is important for understanding how the nervous system functions and how information is transmitted between cells.

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1.Discuss four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates. How does: (a) negative-feedback regulation; (b) neuroendocrine reflexes; and (C) diurnal rhythms, modulate these factors.
2. Compare and contrast all relevant factors contributing to: (a) activation; (b) synthesis; (c) secretion; and (d) regulation of the adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis.

Answers

The four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates Rate of hormone synthesis and secretion, rate of hormone metabolism and excretion, binding the of the hormone to plasma proteins, and receptor sensitivity.Adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis are two parts of the pituitary gland that have different functions and are regulated by different factors activation, synthesis, secretion, and regulation.


The four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates are:

(a) Rate of hormone synthesis and secretion: The rate at which a hormone is synthesized and secreted affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(b) Rate of hormone metabolism and excretion: The rate at which a hormone is metabolized and excreted affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(c) Binding of the hormone to plasma proteins: The binding of a hormone to plasma proteins affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(d) Receptor sensitivity: The sensitivity of receptors to a hormone affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.

Negative-feedback regulation, neuroendocrine reflexes, and diurnal rhythms all modulate these factors. Negative-feedback regulation works to maintain homeostasis by decreasing hormone synthesis and secretion when hormone levels are too high, and increasing hormone synthesis and secretion when hormone levels are too low. Neuroendocrine reflexes involve the release of hormones in response to neural stimuli, such as stress or changes in the environment. Diurnal rhythms involve the release of hormones in response to changes in the time of day or season.
Adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis are two parts of the pituitary gland that have different functions and are regulated by different factors.

(a) Activation: The adenohypophysis is activated by releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, while the neurohypophysis is activated by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus.(b) Synthesis: The adenohypophysis synthesizes hormones, while the neurohypophysis does not synthesize hormones, but stores and releases hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus.(c) Secretion: The adenohypophysis secretes hormones into the bloodstream, while the neurohypophysis releases hormones into the bloodstream.(d) Regulation: The adenohypophysis is regulated by releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, while the neurohypophysis is regulated by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus.

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How do scientist separate the different substances in air?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The method that is used to separate the components of air is called as fractional distillation. This process involves distribution of liquid air through fractional distillation column. This process involves separation of atmospheric air into its primary components like nitrogen and oxygen.

As a consequence of the tilt and rotation of the Earth some areas may have large temperature fluctuations throughout the year whereas other areas may have only minor temperature fluctuations throughou

Answers

As a consequence of the tilt and rotation of the Earth, some areas may experience large temperature fluctuations throughout the year, while other areas may only experience minor temperature fluctuations. This is due to the fact that the Earth's axis is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to the plane of its orbit around the sun.

This tilt causes different parts of the Earth to receive different amounts of solar radiation at different times of the year, leading to seasonal temperature changes.

In areas near the equator, where the sun's rays are always direct, there is little variation in temperature throughout the year. However, in areas closer to the poles, where the sun's rays are more indirect, there can be significant temperature fluctuations as the seasons change. For example, during the summer months, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun, leading to warmer temperatures. However, during the winter months, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, leading to colder temperatures.

In addition to the tilt of the Earth, the rotation of the Earth on its axis also plays a role in temperature fluctuations. The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, with one side of the Earth facing the sun and receiving direct solar radiation, while the other side faces away from the sun and receives less solar radiation. This leads to daily temperature fluctuations, with temperatures generally being warmer during the day and cooler at night.

Overall, the tilt and rotation of the Earth are responsible for the seasonal and daily temperature fluctuations that we experience on our planet.

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Autotrophic organisms such as plants, algae, blue green alga, and chemosynthetic bacteria are rarely mentioned in pathology because they do not cause disease in other types of living things. What is it about the metabolic machinery of autotrophs that makes them unlikely to cause disease in people?

Answers

Autotrophic organisms such as plants, algae, blue green alga, and chemosynthetic bacteria are rarely mentioned in pathology because they do not cause disease in other types of living things. The metabolic machinery of autotrophs that makes them unlikely to cause disease in people is because of their metabolic machinery, they can prouce their own food.

Autotrophs are organisms that are able to produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. They do not need to consume other living organisms in order to survive, which means they do not have the same mechanisms for causing disease as heterotrophic organisms, which must consume other organisms for energy.

Additionally, autotrophs do not produce toxins or other harmful substances that could cause disease in people. They also do not have the same types of cell structures as pathogens, which are organisms that cause disease. Pathogens typically have specialized structures that allow them to attach to host cells and invade them, causing infection and disease. Autotrophs do not have these structures, which makes them unlikely to cause disease in people. Overall, the metabolic machinery of autotrophs, which allows them to produce their own food and does not require them to consume other organisms, is what makes them unlikely to cause disease in people.

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Physiology of plants Briefly describe the mechanism behind the initiation of starch hydrolysis by gibberellins during seed germination (3 marks) Thumbs up in advance???????? Try not to plagiarize from anywhere

Answers

Starch hydrolysis is the breakdown of starch molecules into simpler forms, such as sugars. Gibberellins are plant hormones that act as catalysts for this process during seed germination. Gibberellins bind to starch-hydrolyzing enzymes, which break down starch molecules into simpler forms. This leads to a decrease in the osmotic pressure of the cell wall, allowing it to expand and the seed to germinate. The process of starch hydrolysis is thus a key part of the germination of a seed.


The initiation of starch hydrolysis by gibberellins during seed germination occurs through a series of steps.

First, the gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of a-amylase, an enzyme that breaks down starch into sugar. This occurs in the aleurone layer of the seed, which is a thin layer of cells that surrounds the endosperm. The a-amylase then moves into the endosperm, where it begins to break down the starch into sugar. The sugar is then transported to the embryo, where it is used as an energy source for growth and development. This process is crucial for seed germination, as it provides the energy needed for the seedling to emerge from the seed and begin growing into a mature plant.

In summary, the mechanism behind the initiation of starch hydrolysis by gibberellins during seed germination involves the stimulation of a-amylase synthesis in the aleurone layer, the movement of a-amylase into the endosperm, and the breakdown of starch into sugar for use as an energy source by the embryo.

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Characteristics of transformed cells can include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) ability to differentiate into different cell types.
B) tight junctions.
C) aneuploidy.
D) presence of integrated viral

Answers

The characteristics of transformed cells can include all of the following EXCEPT the ability to differentiate into different cell types.

The correct answer is option A.

Cells that have changed irreversibly, resulting in unrestricted cell proliferation, invasion, and metastasis, as well as other modifications such as increased rates of DNA synthesis, reduced cell-to-cell communication, and modified cell surface properties, are known as transformed cells. They're generally tumorigenic and capable of forming tumors when injected into animals or cultured in vitro. Transformed cells' features can include a wide range of characteristics, such as aneuploidy, the presence of integrated viral DNA, and the ability to grow without attachment to a substrate, among others.

The correct option from the given choices is option A because the ability to differentiate into different cell types is not a characteristic of transformed cells. In the process of differentiation, stem cells become distinct cell types with specialized functions, such as muscle cells, bone cells, and nerve cells, among others. Transformed cells, on the other hand, can no longer differentiate into different cell types due to the alterations that have occurred in their genomes.

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Please identify all of the tissues on the following list that fall under the category of nervous tissue. a. nervous tissue b. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle d. cardiac muscle e. simple squamous epit

Answers

The tissues that fall under the category of nervous tissue are 'a. nervous tissue.

A tissue can be described as a group of cells with similar structures and functions. For example, nervous tissue consists of nerve cells and associated cells known as glial cells. Epithelial tissues include surface tissues such as the skin, as well as secretory and absorptive tissues such as those that line the digestive system. Connective tissues provide support, fill spaces, and protect organs, whereas muscle tissues have the capability to contract and allow for movement.

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during exercise, an individual's stroke volume increases to 140ml
and their heart rate increases to 160 beats min. calculate their
cardiac output to one decimal place in litres.

Answers

During exercise, an individual's stroke volume increases to 140ml and their heart rate increases to 160 beats min. The individual's cardiac output during exercise is 22.4 L/min to one decimal place.

Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. It is calculated by multiplying stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one beat) by heart rate (the number of beats per minute).
In this case, the stroke volume is 140 mL and the heart rate is 160 beats per minute. To calculate cardiac output, we simply multiply these two values:
Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate
Cardiac output = 140 mL x 160 beats/min
Cardiac output = 22,400 mL/min
To convert this value to litres, we divide by 1000:
Cardiac output = 22,400 mL/min ÷ 1000
Cardiac output = 22.4 L/min

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Classical antibiotics that damage the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls such as penicillin usually work best with what type (gram positive or negative)?

Answers

The type of bacteria that is most affected by classical antibiotics such as penicillin is Gram-positive bacteria.


Classical antibiotics that damage the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls, such as penicillin, usually work best with gram-positive bacteria.

This is because gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that is essential for their structure and function. Antibiotics like penicillin can target and damage this layer, causing the bacteria to lose their structural integrity and die.

In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer that is protected by an outer membrane. This makes them less susceptible to the effects of antibiotics that target the peptidoglycan layer.

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Acell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing: The cell becomes larger and larger: This situation should present no problem to the cell because the surface area of the cell will increase as the volume of the cell increases: will eventually be problematic as the cells surface area to volume ratio will increase as the cell gets larger. should be beneficial since the cell will be able to divert the ATP cell division to other normally used for processes; will eventually be problematic since the cell's surface area will increase at a rate that is slower than the increase in volume:

Answers

The cell becoming larger and larger due to a substance that prevents it from dividing should not initially be problematic because the surface area of the cell will increase at the same rate as the volume of the cell increases.

This means that the cell's surface area to volume ratio will remain relatively the same. This could be beneficial since the cell will be able to divert the ATP usually used for cell division to other processes. However, if the cell continues to grow, it will eventually become problematic since the cell's surface area will increase at a rate that is slower than the increase in volume.

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In the acute phase of HIV-1 infection, virus-specific cytotoxic
lymphocytes (CTLs) are able respond quickly to produce a marked
decrease in the viral load.
Group of answer choices
True
False

Answers

True. In the acute phase of HIV-1 infection, virus-specific cytotoxic lymphocytes (CTLs) can respond quickly to produce a marked decrease in the viral load.

This is because CTLs are a type of white blood cell that can recognize and kill infected cells. During the acute phase of HIV-1 infection, there is a high level of viral replication and a large number of infected cells. CTLs can recognize these infected cells and quickly mount an immune response, leading to a decrease in the viral load.

Viral load is the term used to refer to the amount of virus in a person's blood. So, HIV viral load is the amount of HIV in the body of someone who has been infected with HIV.

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Why does respiration involves going from highly reduced to
highly oxidized carbon compounds. And Why do C-H bonds have more
potential energy than C-O bonds?

Answers

Respiration involves the oxidation of organic compounds, meaning that the molecules are broken down from a highly reduced state (with many hydrogen atoms present) to a highly oxidized state (with few or no hydrogen atoms present). This oxidation process releases energy that can be used by cells to carry out other functions.

The potential energy of a C-H bond is higher than a C-O bond because the carbon-hydrogen bond is more covalent (sharing electrons more equally) and therefore more stable than the carbon-oxygen bond. This means that when breaking the carbon-hydrogen bond, more energy is released than when breaking the carbon-oxygen bond.

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Number the steps in the order in which they occur, showing the responses of the endocrine and
nervous systems to dehydration.
10. ADH travels in the blood to the kidneys.
11. ADH bonds to receptors on kidney cells.
12. The water in urine decreases; the water in the blood increases.
13. The kidneys reabsorb more water.
14. The hypothalamus releases ADH.
15. The water level in the body is low.

Answers

The correct order of the steps in the response of the endocrine and nervous systems to dehydration is:

1. The water level in the body is low. (15)
2. The hypothalamus releases ADH. (14)
3. ADH travels in the blood to the kidneys. (10)
4. ADH bonds to receptors on kidney cells. (11)
5. The kidneys reabsorb more water. (13)
6. The water in urine decreases; the water in the blood increases. (12)

Therefore, the correct order of the steps is: 15, 14, 10, 11, 13, 12.

It is important to note that the endocrine and nervous systems work together to maintain homeostasis in the body. In the case of dehydration, the endocrine system releases the hormone ADH, which signals the kidneys to reabsorb more water and increase the water level in the blood. The nervous system also plays a role in this process, as the hypothalamus is responsible for releasing ADH in response to low water levels.

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Researchers are studying DNA region of interest in an effort to learn more about the gene and its structure. Using multiple restriction enzymes they cut the region of interest into smaller fragments (A-D) that are each ligated into a vector: The vector contains an upstream promoter and downstream detectable marker: The researchers transform each vector into cells and examine the expression: DNA fragment A | B Expression no no high high Determine which DNA region contains the transcription start site (TSS) If it is located across multiple regions, indicate each region. Not all regions will be marked. DNA 8' 5' 5' 5' 5' 8'

Answers

The DNA region that contains the transcription start site (TSS) is DNA fragment B. This is because the expression of the detectable marker is high when DNA fragment B is present in the vector.

This indicates that the TSS is located within DNA fragment B, as the presence of the TSS allows for the expression of the detectable marker. It is important to note that DNA fragment A does not contain the TSS, as there is no expression of the detectable marker when DNA fragment A is present in the vector. This suggests that the TSS is not located within DNA  fragment. A.
Overall, the use of restriction enzymes to cut the DNA region of interest into smaller fragments allows for the identification of the TSS within a specific DNA fragment. In this case, the TSS is located within DNA fragment B.

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What is a transgene in genetics?

Answers

In genetics, a transgene is a piece of DNA that has been transferred from one organism to another artificially. This technique is used in genetics to study specific genes, create new traits in an organism, or produce therapeutic proteins.

The process of moving a transgene into an organism is called transgenesis, which can be achieved by injecting the DNA into the nucleus of a fertilized egg, introducing the DNA into cultured cells that generate an embryo, or using a viral vector to deliver the DNA into cells or tissues.

Once the transgene is present in an organism, it is regulated by additional sequences to ensure that it is expressed in a controlled manner in the appropriate tissues and cells at the right time.

However, the use of transgenes also raises ethical and safety concerns, particularly when it comes to genetically modified organisms that may have unintended effects on the environment or human health.

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Task :
A classic human polymorphic monogenic trait is the ability to taste the chemical Phenylthiocarbamide (PTC). For some individuals PTC is extremely bitter, while other persons do not notice any taste. In some populations, the ability to taste PTC is determined by a single autosomal gene with two alleles. All ‘non-tasters’ are homozygous for the ‘non-taster’ allele. In a specific population the genotypes are in H-W proportions and the frequency of ‘non-tasters’ are 0.28.
a) What is the frequency of the non-taster allele? Show your calculations.
b) Which proportions of all marriages are taster x non-taster?
c) A study looked at the distribution of tasters and non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages in this population. What impact would inbreeding have on the distribution of tasters/non-tasters in this group?
d) Calculate the proportion of non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages in this population.

Answers

(a) The frequency of the non-taster allele is 0.529. See the calculation part in the explanation section.

(b) The proportion of all marriages that are taster x non-taster is 0.498.

(c)  Inbreeding can have an impact on the distribution of tasters/non-tasters in this group by increasing the proportion of homozygous individuals.

(d)  The proportion of non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages is 0.280.

The Explanation to Each Answer

a) The frequency of the non-taster allele can be calculated using the Hardy-Weinberg equation: [tex]p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1[/tex], where p is the frequency of the taster allele and q is the frequency of the non-taster allele. Since all non-tasters are homozygous for the non-taster allele, [tex]q^2 = 0.28[/tex]. Therefore, q = √0.28 = 0.529.

b) The proportion of all marriages that are taster x non-taster can be calculated using the Hardy-Weinberg equation:

2pq = 2(0.471)(0.529)
2pq = 0.498.

Therefore, the proportion of all marriages that are taster x non-taster is 0.498.
c) Inbreeding can have an impact on the distribution of tasters/non-tasters in this group by increasing the proportion of homozygous individuals. This can lead to an increase in the proportion of non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages.
d) The proportion of non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages can be calculated using the Hardy-Weinberg equation:

[tex]q^2 = (0.529)^2 q^2 = 0.280[/tex]

Therefore, the proportion of non-tasters among children from first cousin marriages is 0.280.

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If
I require 19.5 IU / g of an enzyme, does this mean I require 19.5
umol of enzyme to catalyse 1 g of substrate?

Answers

No, 19.5 IU/g of an enzyme does not mean that you require 19.5 umol of enzyme to catalyse 1 g of substrate.

IU stands for International Units, and it is a unit of measurement used to express the activity or potency of a substance, such as an enzyme. One IU is defined as the amount of a substance that produces a specific biological effect under specified conditions.

On the other hand, umol is a unit of measurement used to express the amount of a substance, in this case, an enzyme. Therefore, 19.5 IU/g of an enzyme refers to the activity or potency of the enzyme required to catalyse 1 g of substrate, not the amount of enzyme required.

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What enzyme (or chemical method) was used on Protein Example #1 to make the B fragments?
a. trypsin
b. chymotrypsin
c. V8 protease
d. asp-N-protease
e. pepsin
f. cyanogen bromide
"B" Fragments – Protein #1
B-1) D
B-2) A L E
B-3) Y G A E
B-4) V L S P A D
B-5) L H A H K L R V D
B-6) A L T N A V A H V D
B-7) F T P A V H A S L D
B-8) M P N A L S A L S D
B-9) K F L A S V S T V L T S K Y R
B-10) K T N V K A A W G K V G A H A G E
B-11) L S H G S A Q V K G H G K K V A D
B-12) R M F L S F P T T K T Y F P H F D
B-13) P V N F K L L S H C L L V T L A A H L P A E

Answers

The enzyme Trypsin was used to make the "B" fragments of Protein Example #1.

Trypsin is a protease enzyme that specifically cleaves peptide bonds between the carboxyl side of the amino acids lysine and arginine. It works by hydrolyzing the peptide bonds and splitting the protein into smaller peptides, which are then known as the "B" fragments.

The Trypsin enzyme breaks down the peptide bonds at these amino acids, which then releases the "B" fragments from Protein #1, which are listed as DB-2 through DB-13 in the question.

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Your Aunt Mildred, the worldclass distance runner, completed the Leadville Trail 100 mile ultramarathon, finishing first in the 85+ age group.
3. Aunt Mildred would routinely listen to the Bieber during her long training runs on her iPod. Explain how sound waves are transmitted from Aunt Mildred’s ears to her brain, ultimately resulting in perception of "Baby, Baby, Baby, oh".

Answers

Sound waves are transmitted from Aunt Mildred's ears to her brain through a series of steps.

First, the sound waves enter the ear through the ear canal and hit the eardrum, causing it to vibrate. These vibrations are then transferred to the ossicles, which are three small bones in the middle ear called the malleus, incus, and stapes.

The ossicles amplify the sound and transfer it to the cochlea, a fluid-filled structure in the inner ear.

Within the cochlea are tiny hair cells that move in response to the vibrations, triggering electrical signals that are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve.

The brain then interprets these signals as sound, allowing Aunt Mildred to perceive the music she is listening to.

In summary, sound waves are transmitted from Aunt Mildred's ears to her brain through the following steps:
1. Sound waves enter the ear canal and hit the eardrum, causing it to vibrate.
2. The vibrations are transferred to the ossicles, which amplify the sound.
3. The amplified sound is transferred to the cochlea, where it triggers electrical signals.
4. The electrical signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, resulting in the perception of sound.

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list 15 genetically modified crops that are approved and cultivated
in the USA, and please explain what traits are modified for each
crop.

Answers

15 genetically modified crops that are approved and cultivated in the USA,

1. Corn: Modified for herbicide tolerance, insect resistance, and increased yield.
2. Soybeans: Modified for herbicide tolerance, increased yield, and improved oil profile.
3. Cotton: Modified for herbicide tolerance, insect resistance, and increased yield.
4. Canola: Modified for herbicide tolerance and improved oil profile.
5. Sugar beets: Modified for herbicide tolerance and increased sugar content.
6. Alfalfa: Modified for herbicide tolerance and increased yield.
7. Papaya: Modified for virus resistance.
8. Squash: Modified for virus resistance and improved shelf life.
9. Potatoes: Modified for insect resistance, virus resistance, and improved shelf life.
10. Apples: Modified for improved shelf life and reduced browning.
11. Eggplant: Modified for insect resistance.
12. Rice: Modified for increased yield, drought tolerance, and improved nutrient content.
13. Tomatoes: Modified for improved shelf life, disease resistance, and improved nutrient content.
14. Sweet peppers: Modified for insect resistance and improved nutrient content.
15. Plums: Modified for virus resistance.

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Darwin described evolution as "descents with modification." Based on the diagrams shown, how dose the fossil record support this theory?

Answers

The fossil record provides strong evidence that supports Darwin's theory of "descent with modification" by showing how organisms have evolved and changed over time.

How does the fossil evidence back up the evolution theory?

The fossil record offers proof of the evolution of organisms over time. The remains or remnants of extinct creatures that have been preserved in sedimentary rocks are known as fossils. Scientists can learn how various animals have changed over millions of years by looking at the fossil record.

The fossil record supports the theory of "descent with modification" because it shows that organisms have changed over time, and that new species have evolved from older ones. Fossils of ancient organisms often show characteristics that are intermediate between those of their ancestors and their descendants. For example, the fossils of early mammals show characteristics that are intermediate between reptiles and modern mammals.

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1: Long day plants flower
a.in long days
b. when day length exceeds a critical minimum.
c. when day length exceeds a critical maximum.
d. when daylength is greater than 12 hours in a 24 hour period.
e. in the summer
2: Which of the following is NOT true about plant photoreceptors?
a. All plant photoreceptors localize to the nucleus when photoactivated.
b. Some plant photoreceptors move between the cytoplasm and the nucleus depending on their conformational state.
c. Some plant photoreceptors have protein kinase activity.
d. Some plant photoreceptors can respond to a wide range of wavelengths of light.
e. Some plant photoreceptors are membrane-bound photoreceptors.

Answers

1: Long day plants flower B: when day length exceeds a critical minimum.

2: The statement that is not true about plant photoreceptors is A: All plant photoreceptors localize to the nucleus when photoactivated.

1. The correct answer is B: when the day length exceeds a critical minimum. Long-day plants flower when the day length exceeds a certain minimum number of hours, typically around 12 to 14 hours. This means that they are more likely to flower in the summer when the days are longer.

2. The correct answer is A: All plant photoreceptors localize to the nucleus when photoactivated. Not all plant photoreceptors localize to the nucleus when they are photoactivated. Some plant photoreceptors, such as phytochromes, do move to the nucleus when they are photoactivated, but others, such as cryptochromes, do not. Therefore, it is not true that all plant photoreceptors localize to the nucleus when photoactivated.

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What challenges would one face when funding and implementing a
public health program such as for climate change and funding to
fight fast food? How would we deal with those challenges?

Answers

When funding and implementing a public health program such as for climate change and funding to fight fast food, the main challenges are the amount of resources available and finding a way to implement the program that will be effective.

To deal with these challenges, it is important to have a well-thought out plan that is cost-effective and will maximize the impact of the program.

It is also important to have stakeholders that are involved in the program and can provide feedback to ensure that the program is successful.

Additionally, it is important to consider potential obstacles that could arise and how to address them.

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What are some barriers to using hydrogenase enzymes for H2
generation in commercial schemes?

Answers

Some barriers to using hydrogenase enzymes for H2 generation in commercial schemes include:

Limited stabilitySlow reaction rateCostScaling upCatalyst efficiency

What are hydrogenase enzymes?

Hydrogenase enzymes are a promising option for hydrogen (H2) generation due to their ability to catalyze the reversible reaction of H2 production from protons and electrons.

However, there are several barriers to using hydrogenase enzymes in commercial schemes, including:

Limited stability: Hydrogenase enzymes are sensitive to oxygen and can be easily deactivated, which limits their stability and lifespan.Slow reaction rate: Hydrogenase enzymes have a relatively slow reaction rate compared to other H2 generation methods, which makes them less efficient for commercial-scale production.Cost: The cost of producing and purifying hydrogenase enzymes is high, which can make them economically unfeasible for large-scale production.Scaling up: Scaling up the production of hydrogenase enzymes can be challenging due to their sensitivity to oxygen and the need for strict anaerobic conditions.Catalyst efficiency: While some hydrogenase enzymes have high catalytic activity, others are less efficient, which can limit their effectiveness in H2 generation.

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Consider the material or object to be sterilized and the three possible physical treatments. Select the method or methods that would be suitable for the material or object.
Bacteriological media:
Table top in a laboratory:
Toxoid preparation for immunization

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Methods that would be suitable for the material or object:

Bacteriological media: Moist heatTable top in a laboratory: dry heatToxoid preparation for immunization: radiation

About physical treatment

There are three possible physical treatments that can be used to sterilize materials or objects: dry heat, moist heat, and radiation.

For bacteriological media, moist heat would be the most suitable method as it can effectively kill all microorganisms and spores without damaging the media. This can be achieved through autoclaving, which uses steam under pressure to sterilize materials.

For a table top in a laboratory, dry heat would be the most suitable method as it can effectively sterilize surfaces without causing any damage. This can be achieved through the use of a hot air oven or flaming with a Bunsen burner.

For a toxoid preparation for immunization, radiation would be the most suitable method as it can effectively sterilize the preparation without causing any damage or altering its effectiveness. This can be achieved through the use of gamma or electron beam radiation.

In conclusion, the most suitable method for sterilizing a material or object depends on the nature of the material or object itself. Moist heat is suitable for bacteriological media, dry heat is suitable for table tops in a laboratory, and radiation is suitable for toxoid preparations for immunization.

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When a solute is filtered but is neither reabsorbed nor secreted, its concentration in urine can be correlated with the renal processing of a volume of plasma referred to as?

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When a solute is filtered but is neither reabsorbed nor secreted, its concentration in urine can be correlated with the renal processing of a volume of plasma referred to as the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

The filtration fraction is the portion of plasma that is filtered through the glomerulus and into the nephron to become urine. It is calculated by dividing the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by the renal plasma flow (RPF).

Filtration fraction = GFR / RPF
The filtration fraction is an important measure of kidney function, as it indicates how much plasma is being filtered and how efficiently the kidneys are working. A higher filtration fraction indicates that a larger portion of plasma is being filtered, while a lower filtration fraction indicates that a smaller portion of plasma is being filtered.

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Ten thousand bacteria multiply into 1,000,000 bacteria in 6.67hours. What is the generation time? A. 1 doubling per hour. B.0.5 doublings per hour. C. 60 minutes. D. 30 minutes. E. 2 hours

Answers

Option b) is the correct answer. The generation time for 10,000 bacteria to multiply into 1,000,000 bacteria in 6.67 hours is 0.5 doublings per hour.

To calculate the generation time, we need to divide the total time, 6.67 hours, by the total number of doublings, which is 10 (1,000,000/10,000 = 10 doublings). This gives us a generation time of 0.667 hours, which can be converted to 0.5 hours or 30 minutes.

So, the answer is B: 0.5 doublings per hour, or 30 minutes. To break down the process in more detail, 10,000 bacteria are the starting point, and they double 10 times in 6.67 hours to reach 1,000,000 bacteria. This means that each doubling takes 0.667 hours, or 40 minutes.

If we divide this by 2, we get 0.5 doublings per hour, or 30 minutes for each doubling. So, in 6.67 hours, the 10,000 bacteria will double 10 times, giving us a generation time of 0.5 doublings per hour, or 30 minutes.

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2. What forms the various features of the ocean's floor, such as trenches?

Answers

Answer: The ocean floor, the tectonic plates of the world alter it.

Explanation: hope it helped.

Carbon dioxide containing carbon- 14 is intorduced into a balanced aquarium ecosystem after several weeks carbon,- 14 will most likely be present in

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Answer:

In an aquarium ecosystem, carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthetic organisms such as plants and algae, which use it to build organic molecules. These organisms are then consumed by other organisms in the food chain, leading to a transfer of carbon through the ecosystem.

If carbon dioxide containing carbon-14 is introduced into the ecosystem, it will be taken up by the photosynthetic organisms just like any other carbon dioxide. As these organisms build organic molecules, they will incorporate carbon-14 into their tissues. When these organisms are consumed by other organisms, the carbon-14 will be transferred up the food chain.

After several weeks, it is likely that carbon-14 will be present in all levels of the aquarium ecosystem, from the photosynthetic organisms at the base of the food chain, to the highest level predators. However, the exact amount and distribution of carbon-14 within the ecosystem will depend on factors such as the rates of photosynthesis and respiration, the turnover rates of the different organisms, and the overall structure of the food web.

Explanation:

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