It is important to confirm the transfer of your patient in the unit manager before you release the orders in the transfer navigator because it ensure that their is enough resources for patient care in the unit . It also helps in coordination, and collaboration among healthcare providers as it minimizes any error.
In general , when the transfer is confirmed with the unit manager, the healthcare provider will be satisfied that the receiving unit has enough staffed and prepared to receive the patient. Communication with unit manager, the healthcare provider makes the receiving unit is sure about necessary information about the patient for providing appropriate care.
These system works closely with the unit manager and the healthcare provider as it confirms that the transfer is well-organized the unit is having all resources for the patient.
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High-quality CPR for a child includes performing:
a. Compression-only CPR.
b. Less than 100 compressions per minute.
C.
Compressions to a depth of at least 1 inch or
2.5 centimeters.
d. Compressions to a depth of at least 2 inches or
5 centimeters.
High-quality CPR for a child includes performing compressions to a depth of at least 2 inches or 5 centimeters. Option D.
CPR for childrenCPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is an emergency procedure used to manually keep a person's heart and lungs functioning until medical help arrives. It involves chest compressions and rescue breaths, and can help save a person's life in critical situations.
High-quality CPR for a child involves performing chest compressions at a rate of at least 100-120 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches or 5 centimeters.
This depth allows for adequate blood flow and oxygenation to the brain and vital organs during CPR. Compression-only CPR is not recommended for children as they may require both compressions and rescue breaths.
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a high school graduate is interested in pursuing public health nursing after shadowing the local public health nurse in the community. which principles will this student be introduced to in preparing for this career path? (select all that apply.)
A high school graduate who is interested in pursuing public health nursing after shadowing the local public health nurse in the community will be introduced to the following principles in preparing for this career path:
Principles of public health and community health nursingCultural competenceEvidence-based practiceInterprofessional collaborationData collection and analysisAll of these principles are significant in the field of public health nursing.
1. Principles of public health and community health nursing. These principles are fundamental to public health nursing practice, and they include factors such as health promotion, disease prevention, population-focused care, and the role of the public health nurse.
2. Cultural competence. Cultural competence refers to the ability to understand and work with individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds effectively.
3. Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) involves using research findings, clinical judgment, and patient preferences to inform clinical decision-making.
4. Interprofessional collaboration. Interprofessional collaboration refers to the practice of working with other healthcare professionals to achieve a common goal.
5. Data collection and analysis. Public health nursing requires the use of data to identify community health problems, monitor health status, and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions.
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which information would the nurse provide about respite care services? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse provides respite care Services can be provided at home, in a daycare, or in a medical facility that feeds overnight care. This flavor is not coated by Medicare, and Medicaid has strict eligibility and service requirements. All responses may be correct.
Daycare is an example of respite care because it allows the family to take a break from the responsibilities of caring for a family member. "It is a service that provides short-term relief or 'time-off' for people, providing home care to an ill, disabled, or frail older adult." In a nursing home or assisted living facility, a patient receives care round-the-clock.
After the diagnosis, active issues, medications, services required, warning signs, and emergency contact information have been completed, a written transition plan or discharge summary is completed. The patient's language is used to write the plan.
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Q- Which information would the nurse provide about respite care services? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Which information would the nurse provide about respite care services?
1. "Services are offered at home, in a daycare setting, or in a health care institution that provides overnight care"
2. "Medicare health care plans do not cover this service, and Medicaid has strict requirements for services and eligibility"
3. "It is a service that provides short-term relief or 'time-off' for people, providing home care to an ill, disabled, or frail older adult".
a child is scheduled for a urea breath test. the nurse understands that this test is being performed for which reason?
Answer:
The urea breath test is used to detect Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), a type of bacteria that may infect the stomach and is a main cause of ulcers in both the stomach and duodenum (the first part of the small intestine).
The urea breath test is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori, a type of bacteria that can cause gastric problems in children.
Urea breath test (UBT) is a diagnostic tool used for detecting Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection. The test measures the levels of carbon dioxide in the patient's breath. It is the most dependable diagnostic test for detecting H. pylori infection, which can cause gastric ulcers and stomach cancer.
The breath test depends on the capacity of H. pylori to produce the urease enzyme. This enzyme reacts with urea, converting it into carbon dioxide, which is detectable in the patient's breath. The test takes less than 30 minutes to complete, is non-invasive, and does not require the patient to abstain from food or medication, making it a convenient and reliable diagnostic method.
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a 43 year old man is experiencing an acute adrenal crisis and presents with prominent nausea, vomiting, and low blood pressure. he appears cyanotic and confused. the most appropriate treatment is an im injection of:
The most appropriate treatment for a 43 year old man experiencing an acute adrenal crisis with prominent nausea, vomiting, and low blood pressure, and appearing cyanotic and confused, is an IM injection of hydrocortisone.
Hydrocortisone is a type of glucocorticoid, a class of steroid hormones that has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant properties. These properties are important for treating the adrenal crisis, as the symptoms result from the body’s lack of sufficient levels of cortisol, a hormone the adrenal glands produce to regulate the body’s response to stress.
The IM injection of hydrocortisone helps to restore the body’s cortisol levels to normal, providing relief from the symptoms. Other treatments may include intravenous fluids, electrolytes, and stress-reduction measures, such as relaxation techniques or massage therapy.
It is important to seek medical help as soon as possible when experiencing symptoms of an acute adrenal crisis, as the condition can be fatal if not treated in a timely manner. If you are at risk for this condition or know someone who is, it is important to know the signs and symptoms and to discuss them with a doctor.
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while planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:
The most important factor in renal calculus formation is urine pH. Thus, A is correct.
Renal calculi formation is primarily influenced by urine pH because it affects the solubility of certain minerals, such as calcium and uric acid, that are commonly found in kidney stones. When urine is too acidic or too alkaline, it can lead to the precipitation and formation of crystals, which can eventually grow into stones.
Other factors that may contribute to kidney stone formation include dehydration, dietary factors, genetics, and certain medical conditions. However, urine pH remains the most critical factor in the formation of kidney stones. Therefore, monitoring and regulating urine pH can be an effective strategy in preventing or managing renal calculi.
This question should be provided with answer choices:
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a monitor technician on the telemetry unit asks a charge nurse why every client whose monitor shows atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin. which response by the charge nurse is best?
The best response by the charge nurse would be to explain that Warfarin is a blood thinner and an anticoagulant. It is often prescribed to those in atrial fibrillation as it helps to reduce the risk of stroke.
Warfarin works by blocking the action of Vitamin K in the body, which helps to prevent the blood from clotting. Warfarin also decreases the chance of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). By taking Warfarin, it is hoped that any clots that do form in the blood will be less likely to travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. In addition to this, Warfarin can also help reduce the risk of a heart attack and can even help to prevent the recurrence of atrial fibrillation. Thus, Warfarin is a valuable medication for those in atrial fibrillation and can help to reduce their risk of experiencing a stroke, heart attack, or other cardiovascular events.
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which prescribed action has the highest priority when a client comes to the emergency department with moderate substernal chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitro
The highest priority action when a client comes to the emergency department with moderate substernal chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitro is to administer aspirin and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Chest pain can be a sign of a heart attack, and the administration of aspirin can help prevent further blood clot formation, while an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most important initial diagnostic tool to evaluate for ischemic changes or arrhythmias that may be causing the chest pain.
Other actions that may be taken include providing supplemental oxygen, initiating cardiac monitoring, and administering pain medication, but aspirin and ECG are the highest priority interventions in this situation.
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the nurse is caring for a child with congestive heart failure and is administering the drug digoxin. at the beginning of this drug therapy, the process of digitalization is done for which reason?
The process of digitalization is done at the beginning of digoxin therapy to achieve therapeutic levels of the drug as quickly as possible.
Digitalization refers to the process of reaching a therapeutic drug concentration (TDC) as soon as possible. The primary goal of digitalization is to rapidly obtain therapeutic serum drug concentrations while minimizing potential toxicity. The nurse is caring for a child with congestive heart failure and is administering the drug digoxin.
At the beginning of this drug therapy, the process of digitalization is done to achieve therapeutic levels of the drug as quickly as possible. The primary objective of digitalization is to reach therapeutic serum drug concentrations while also minimizing potential toxicity.
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the patient has a history of hit. which is the preferred solution to flush the cvc after blood sampling?
In patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the preferred solution to flush the central venous catheter (CVC) after blood sampling is saline solution.
HIT is a potentially life-threatening immune-mediated disorder that can occur in patients who have been exposed to heparin. In these patients, heparin can activate platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia and an increased risk of blood clots.
Therefore, it is important to avoid using heparin to flush the CVC in patients with HIT. Saline solution is a safe alternative that can be used to flush the CVC without increasing the risk of thrombosis. It is important to follow proper flushing protocols and guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients with a history of HIT.
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why is consuming on a sugar-free diet, without reducing overall caloric intake, not necessarily effective?
smokers with levels of nicotine tolerance are likely to suffer the most severe withdrawal symptoms when they discontinue smoking. low moderate high high or low
Smokers with levels of nicotine tolerance are likely to suffer the most severe withdrawal symptoms when they discontinue smoking is high. The correct option is C.
Smoking is known to be highly addictive because of the presence of nicotine in tobacco products. Nicotine is a highly addictive substance that is known to change the brain's structure and function, which leads to dependence. Smoking cessation is therefore known to be a difficult task.
The withdrawal symptoms that smokers experience upon discontinuation of smoking are highly unpleasant and often lead them to relapse. Smokers with high levels of nicotine tolerance are likely to suffer the most severe withdrawal symptoms when they discontinue smoking.
The reason for this is that they have become highly dependent on nicotine and the body has adapted to the presence of the substance. When the body is deprived of nicotine, it experiences a range of withdrawal symptoms that can last for weeks. Some of the withdrawal symptoms that smokers experience include anxiety, irritability, depression, restlessness, insomnia, and headaches.
Smokers with moderate and low levels of nicotine tolerance are likely to experience less severe withdrawal symptoms compared to those with high levels of nicotine tolerance. This is because they are less dependent on nicotine, and their body is less adapted to the presence of the substance.
Smoking cessation is important for smokers because it is known to have numerous health benefits, including reducing the risk of developing lung cancer, heart disease, and other smoking-related diseases.
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during assessment, the nurse notes the client has a decreased pain sensation in his low extremities. the nurse should ask the client about a history of what disease?
During assessment, the nurse notes the client has a decreased pain sensation in his low extremities. The nurse should ask the client about a history of peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a type of damage to the peripheral nervous system, which is the network of nerves that transmits information from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. Symptoms of peripheral neuropathy can include decreased sensation, pain, numbness, and tingling in the extremities. Common causes of peripheral neuropathy can include diabetes, trauma, vitamin deficiencies, autoimmune diseases, infections, toxins, and inherited conditions.
In order to further assess the client’s condition, the nurse should ask the client about his medical history, any past conditions he may have had, family history of neurological disorders, recent changes in sensation, any medications he is taking, and any other symptoms he may be experiencing. The nurse should also conduct a physical exam of the patient to assess for areas of diminished sensation, strength, reflexes, or muscle coordination. Depending on the findings of the assessment, the nurse may order diagnostic tests, such as a nerve conduction study, electromyography, or MRI to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment for peripheral neuropathy may involve lifestyle modifications, medications, physical therapy, and/or surgery.
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which nursing diagnosis is most relevant in the first 12 hours of life for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele?
The most relevant nursing diagnosis in the first 12 hours of life for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele is Impaired Physical Mobility related to a neurologic defect.
A myelomeningocele is a birth defect where there is an incomplete closure of the spinal cord, resulting in a herniation of the meninges, nerve roots, and/or spinal cord through an opening in the vertebral column. This can lead to physical and motor impairment, as well as other medical complications.
In terms of nursing care, the primary focus should be on ensuring the neonate's physical mobility is not impaired due to the neurologic defect. This includes monitoring the neonate's position, movement, and range of motion, as well as providing physical therapy, occupational therapy, and other interventions to prevent or mitigate impairments in physical mobility. In addition, the nurse should assess the neonate for signs of pain, as well as any other medical complications related to the myelomeningocele.
Finally, it is important for the nurse to provide education to the family about the myelomeningocele, as well as about self-care for the neonate and how to monitor for any signs of complications. This education should include the potential long-term implications of the defect, so the family can plan accordingly.
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the nurse is caring for a client in respiratory distress. the health care provider prescribes oxygen therapy with a venturi mask to be set at 35% oxygen. which mask would the nurse use to implement the prescription?
The nurse would use a venturi mask to implement the prescription for oxygen therapy at 35% oxygen, as it provides a precise and controlled amount of oxygen delivery to the patient.
The nurse would use a venturi mask to implement the prescription for oxygen therapy at 35% oxygen. A venturi mask is a type of oxygen delivery device that provides a precise and controlled amount of oxygen to the patient. It works by using a specific venturi nozzle that mixes oxygen with room air at a precise flow rate to achieve a targeted oxygen concentration. The mask is commonly used for patients with respiratory distress who require a precise oxygen concentration to maintain adequate oxygenation.
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which behavior by the client would best indicate to the nurse a trusting relationship is beginning to develop with a client who has major depressive disorder?
The best behavior that would indicate a trusting relationship is beginning to develop with a client who has a major depressive disorder is open communication and an increased willingness to discuss their issues. The client may also display signs of trust by responding positively to a nurse's interventions and being willing to follow advice.
When dealing with patients with major depressive disorder, the nurse has a vital role in establishing a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is the key to the success of the treatment plan. One of the most reliable indicators that a trusting relationship is beginning to develop between the nurse and the client is that the client initiates the discussion of his or her own issues and expresses a willingness to discuss his or her concerns openly.
A nurse should aim to develop a positive rapport with the patient by having a relaxed, friendly, and professional demeanor while providing assistance in the form of support and care. To help a client with major depressive disorder and form a trusting relationship, a nurse should encourage clients to share their thoughts and feelings in a comfortable environment where they feel safe to do so. Listening, reflecting, empathizing, and providing feedback can help clients feel more secure, understood, and cared for, which can aid in the establishment of a trusting relationship.
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a nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. to address the most modifiable risk factors, what risk factors would the nurse include? (mark all that apply.)
Risk factors to include in the teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease are: smoking cessation, weight management, exercise, dietary modification, and diabetes management.
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition where the arteries in the extremities are narrowed due to fatty plaque buildup in the walls of the arteries. Smoking cessation, weight management, exercise, dietary modification, and diabetes management are the most modifiable risk factors associated with PAD and should be included in the teaching plan to help manage the condition.
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a nurse who is taking care of a patient with a spinal cord injury documents the frequency of reflex incontinence. the nurse understands that this is most likely due to:
A nurse who is taking care of a patient with a spinal cord injury documents the frequency of reflex incontinence. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to damage to the sacral reflex arc.
When the spinal cord is damaged, messages from the bladder and rectum to the brain may not be properly received or transmitted.
As a result, the sacral reflex arc can become hyperactive and cause reflex incontinence. This type of incontinence is involuntary and occurs when the bladder is not full, often without warning. It is most common in people with spinal cord injuries at or above the T12 level.
To manage reflex incontinence, a nurse may recommend timed voiding or the use of medications to relax the bladder.
A nurse taking care of a patient with a spinal cord injury documents the frequency of reflex incontinence. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to a disruption in the communication between the brain and the bladder.
This can occur because of the spinal cord injury, which can damage the nerves that control the bladder function, leading to involuntary bladder contractions and reflex incontinence.
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a client is diagnosed with a large thoracic aneurysm. which findings will the nurse expect when assessing this client? select all that apply.
A client diagnosed with a large thoracic aneurysm, the nurse would expect the following findings are a. chest pain, b. sudden and severe back pain, and d. pulsating mass in the thoraxe. bradycardia and hypotensionf. dyspnea and coughing while lying flat
An aneurysm is a bulge in a blood vessel, resulting from a weakening in the vessel wall. Thoracic aneurysms develop in the part of the aorta, the largest blood vessel in the body, that runs through the chest (thoracic cavity). Symptoms of thoracic aortic aneurysms vary depending on the size of the aneurysm and its location. In many cases, thoracic aortic aneurysms do not cause any symptoms.
However, if an aneurysm is large enough to put pressure on surrounding organs or tissues, a person may experience: chest pain, back pain, difficulty breathing, severe pain in the abdomen or backIf the thoracic aortic aneurysm is near the heart, it may also cause symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. So therefore, a client diagnosed with a large thoracic aneurysm, the nurse would expect the following findings are a. chest pain, b. sudden and severe back pain, and d. pulsating mass in the thoraxe. bradycardia and hypotensionf. dyspnea and coughing while lying flat.
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Share 2 to 3 credible resources you can provide to patients who experience nervous system issues to help them learn more about what they might be experiencing.
They should visit 1. National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Mayo Clinic.
What are nervous system issues?The nervous system is a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to coordinate the body’s responses to internal and external stimuli. Nervous system issues refer to any medical condition that affects the functioning of the nervous system, including diseases, disorders, and injuries.
Common nervous system issues include stroke, epilepsy, Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, and traumatic brain injury.
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true or false: medicare has a single payment methodology that is applied to all providers, such as hospitals, physicians, and ambulatory (outpatient) surgery centers.
True. Medicare's single payment system applies to all providers, including hospitals, physicians, and ambulatory (outpatient) surgery centers.
Medicare is a federal health insurance program for people aged 65 or older, certain younger individuals with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD). In order to receive medical treatment, Medicare beneficiaries are entitled to hospital insurance (Part A) and medical insurance (Part B).
Medicare functions in two different ways. It provides benefits through the original Medicare program, which includes both Part A and Part B, and through Medicare Advantage plans, which are offered by private insurers and provides an alternate way to receive Medicare benefits. Part A covers hospital insurance, while Part B covers medical insurance.
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An athlete is running a race. The athlete's body needs energy. Which type of organelle in the athlete's cells supplies the energy for cellular function?
answer choices
golgi apparatus
mitochondria
ribosome
nucleus
Answer:
Mitochondria
Explanation:
It's because mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration, one of your body's most vital functions. The energy that mitochondria make from ingesting glucose and oxygen is captured and stored as ATP molecules, which are high in energy.
what objective data should the nurse collect before beginning cardiac monitoring? select all that apply.
The objective data that a nurse should collect before beginning cardiac monitoring include:
Vital signs: The nurse should measure the patient's blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature to establish baseline values.
Electrolyte levels: The nurse should review the patient's electrolyte levels, such as sodium, potassium, and calcium, which can affect cardiac function.
Oxygen saturation: The nurse should measure the patient's oxygen saturation levels to assess for adequate oxygenation.
Medication list: The nurse should review the patient's medication list to assess for any medications that can affect cardiac function or interact with cardiac medications.
Past medical history: The nurse should review the patient's past medical history, including any cardiac-related conditions or surgeries, to establish a baseline cardiac function.
Allergies: The nurse should identify any allergies the patient may have to medications or materials used during the cardiac monitoring.
Collecting this objective data will assist the nurse in identifying any potential cardiac abnormalities and providing appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety.
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a patient asks whether long-term use of acid-reducing medications has any adverse effects. which information should the nurse include in the response?
The nurse should include information on the potential side effects of long-term use of acid-reducing medications, such as the increased risk of gastrointestinal infections, stomach ulcers, and intestinal bleeding.
Acid-reducing medications, such as proton pump inhibitors and H2 blockers, reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. This is helpful for treating acid reflux, GERD, and other conditions that involve too much stomach acid.
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by blocking an enzyme responsible for producing acid in the stomach. Common PPIs include omeprazole, pantoprazole, lansoprazole, and rabeprazole.
H2 blockers, also known as H2 receptor antagonists, block the action of histamine receptors in the stomach, which reduces acid production. Common H2 blockers include cimetidine, ranitidine, and famotidine.
Side effects of PPIs and H2 blockers can include headaches, diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain. If these side effects occur, it is important to speak to your healthcare provider. It is also important to note that acid-reducing medications should not be used for longer than 8-12 weeks without consulting a doctor.
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a 47-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. which assessment findings will the nurse observe?
The nurse will observe the following assessment findings in a 47-year-old male diagnosed with pulmonary edema: difficulty breathing, tachypnea, dyspnea, wheezing, crackles, decreased breath sounds, and possibly a non-productive cough.
To assess the patient's condition, the nurse should first check the patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation levels. Then they should observe the patient's breathing pattern and auscultate their lungs for any crackles or wheezes. Finally, they should check the patient's level of alertness, confusion, and anxiety.
In conclusion, a nurse will observe difficulty breathing, tachypnea, dyspnea, wheezing, crackles, decreased breath sounds, and possibly a non-productive cough in a 47-year-old male diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Additionally, the patient may have decreased oxygen saturation levels, increased respiratory rate, increased anxiety, confusion, or fatigue, as well as signs of decreased cardiac output.
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the nurse assesses brisk reflexes in a client during a neurological assessment. how would the nurse document this finding?
If the nurse observes brisk reflexes in a client during a neurological assessment, the nurse should document this finding accurately in the client's medical record. Brisk reflexes are an indication of hyperactive deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), which may be an abnormal finding.
The nurse can document brisk reflexes using a grading system, which assigns a numerical value to degree of reflex response. A common grading system is the 0 to 4+ scale, which is as follows: 0: No response, 1+: Diminished response, 2+: Normal response, 3+: Brisk response, 4+: Very brisk or hyperactive response. Therefore, the nurse would document brisk reflexes as "3+" or "hyperactive" in the client's medical record. The nurse may also describe the location of brisk reflexes.
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anemia associated with pregnancy is usually related to iron deficiency; it also may occur in conjunction with a deficiency of:
Anemia associated with pregnancy is usually related to iron deficiency; it also may occur in conjunction with a deficiency of Folate.
Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia during pregnancy. Folate deficiency anemia. Folate is a vitamin found naturally in certain foods, such as green leafy vegetables. A B vitamin, the body needs folic acid to produce new cells, including healthy red blood cells. During pregnancy, women need extra folic acid.
Iron deficiency anemia adversely affects maternal and fetal health throughout pregnancy and is associated with increased morbidity and fetal death.
Affected mothers often experience breathing problems, fainting, fatigue, heart palpitations, and sleep problems.
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a fixed, painless thyroid mass accompanied by hoarseness and dysphagia should raise the suspicion of:
A fixed, painless thyroid mass accompanied by hoarseness and dysphagia should raise suspicion of thyroid malignancy.
Thyroid malignancy is a type of cancer that originates in the cells of the thyroid gland, a butterfly-shaped organ at the base of the neck. It can occur in both adults and children. Thyroid malignancy is most common in women, especially those between the ages of 25 and 65. Symptoms can include a lump or swelling in the neck, hoarseness, difficulty swallowing or breathing, persistent cough, and pain in the neck or throat. Diagnosis typically involves a biopsy, an ultrasound, and/or a radioactive iodine scan.
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the nurse is preparing to administer orlistat to a client with obesity. which safety warning(s) should the nurse consider when administering this medication to the client? select all that apply.
The nurse should consider the following safety warnings when administering orlistat to a client with obesity:
Orlistat may decrease absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including A, D, E, and K.Orlistat may cause mild to moderate gastrointestinal side effects such as abdominal cramps, loose stools, oily spotting, flatulence, and increased bowel movements.Orlistat may interact with certain medications, so the nurse should review the client’s medication list before administering.Orlistat is a drug used for weight loss in people who are overweight or obese. This drug can also reduce the risk of gaining the weight back. Orlistat works by inhibiting fat-breaking enzymes, so fat cannot be digested and absorbed by the body.
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which intervention would the nurse implement for a client with alzheimer disease who has become agitated and aggressive and is incontinent of urine and feces?
For a client with Alzheimer's Disease who has become agitated and aggressive, and is incontinent of urine and feces, the nurse should implement a multi-faceted intervention.
First, they should assess the client's environment to identify any physical or psychological triggers that may be contributing to the aggression and agitation. The nurse should provide physical comfort and support to the client by offering a calm and familiar environment. Additionally, the nurse should offer emotional support to the client by providing verbal reassurance and providing the client with an opportunity to express feelings.
Additionally, the nurse should provide education and reassurance to family members about the client's condition and behaviors. Finally, the nurse should ensure that the client's incontinence is managed properly and provide any necessary skin care. By implementing this multi-faceted intervention, the nurse can help the client to manage their agitation and aggression and reduce their incontinence.
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