Which statement correctly describes how a bar magnet should be placed on a globe to correctly align with Earth's magnetic field?

Answer:

It can coast uphill 6.2m

Explanation:

See attached file pls

Answer:

2.8

Explanation:

Using p = m/v; (old density)

p' = m/v (new density)

=m/0.350 V

p'/p = (m/0.350V)/(m/v) = 1/0.350 = 2.86

Answer:

50 m

Explanation:

F = ma

10 N = (10 kg) a

a = 1 m/s²

Given:

v₀ = 0 m/s

a = 1 m/s²

t = 10 s

Find: Δx

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

Δx = (0 m/s) (10 s) + ½ (1 m/s²) (10 s)²

Δx = 50 m

Answer:

The  internal resistance is  [tex]r = 0.5 \ \Omega[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that the resistance of

   The  resistance of the resistor is  [tex]R = 20.0\ \Omega[/tex]

    The  voltage is [tex]V = 12.0 \ V[/tex]

     The magnitude of the voltage fall is  [tex]e = 0.300\ V[/tex]

Generally the current flowing through the terminal due to the voltage of the battery  is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]I = \frac{V}{R}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]I = \frac{12.0 }{20 }[/tex]

       [tex]I = 0.6 \ A[/tex]

The internal resistance of the battery is mathematically represented as

      [tex]r = \frac{e}{I}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{0.300}{ 0.6 }[/tex]

    [tex]r = 0.5 \ \Omega[/tex]

The internal resistance of the battery is 0.5 ohms.

To calculate the internal resistance of the battery, we use the formula below

Formula:

Where:

Make r the subject of the equation

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, The internal resistance of the battery is 0.5 ohms.

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Answer:

27°

Explanation:

The force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field. (See the ref.)

So theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

Since The magnetic force per meter on a wire is measured to be only 45 %

So here we know that The force should be proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field

Therefore,

theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

Hence, The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

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Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

The speed of the electron is 6.79 x 10⁵ m/s

The radius of the circular path is 1.357 x 10⁻⁵ m

Explanation:

Given;

magnetic field, B = 0.285 T

energy of electron, E = 2.10 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The kinetic energy of the electron is calculated as;

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2[/tex]

Where;

[tex]m_e[/tex] is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

V is the speed of the electron

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2\\\\V^2 = \frac{2.K.E}{m_e} \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m_e} } \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2*(2.1*10^{-19})}{9.11*10^{-31}} }\\\\V = 6.79 *10^{5} \ m/s[/tex]

The radius of the circular path is given by;

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB}[/tex]

where;

q is the charge of the electron = 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB} \\\\R = \frac{9.11 *10^{-31}*6.79 *10^{5}}{1.6*10^{-19}*0.285} \\\\R = 1.357 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

case 1 of physics is the answer

Answer:

When they are connected in series

     The  50 W bulb glow more than the 100 W bulb

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The power rating  of the first bulb is [tex]P_1 = 100 \ W[/tex]

      The power rating of the second bulb is  [tex]P_2 = 50 \ W[/tex]

Generally the power rating of the first bulb is mathematically represented as

      [tex]P_1 = V^2 R[/tex]

Where  [tex]V[/tex] is the normal household voltage which is constant for both bulbs

  So  

        [tex]R_1 = \frac{V^2}{P_1 }[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]R_1 = \frac{V^2}{100}[/tex]

Thus the resistance of the second bulb would be evaluated as

       [tex]R_2 = \frac{V^2}{50}[/tex]

From the above calculation we see that

        [tex]R_2 > R_1[/tex]

This power rating of the first bulb can also be represented mathematically as  

        [tex]P_ 1 = I^2_1 R_1[/tex]

This power rating of the first bulb can also be represented mathematically as    

       [tex]P_ 2 = I^2_2 R_2[/tex]

Now given that they are connected in series which implies that the same current flow through them so

       [tex]I_1^2 = I_2^2[/tex]

This means  that

       [tex]P \ \alpha \ R[/tex]

So  when they are connected in series

     [tex]P_2 > P_1[/tex]

This means that the 50 W bulb glows more than the 100 \ W bulb

Answer:

Explanation:

Refraction is defined as the bending of light rays as an incident ray pass from one medium to another. If the incident ray is passing from the media with low refractive index to a greater refractive index, the refracted ray tends to bend away from the normal.

Refractive index is the ratio of the sin of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction.

n = sin i/sin r

For us to have a greater index of refraction, the denominator must be lesser than the numerator. This means that the angle of refraction must be smaller and if the angle of refraction must get smaller, this means that the refracted ray must bend towards the normal

Answer:

151.58 V

Explanation:

From the question,

The work done in a circuit in moving a charge is given as,

W = 1/2QV..................... Equation 1

Where W = Work done in moving the charge, Q = The magnitude of charge, V = potential difference between the plates.

make V the subject of the equation

V = 2W/Q.................. Equation 2

Given: W = 144 J. Q = 1.9 C

Substitute into equation 2

V = 2(144)/1.9

V = 151.58 V

Answer:

I think my friend got it all wrong, as coolness can not be transferred but heat was actually transferred between my hand and the glass windows

Explanation:

In thermodynamics, coolness can not be transferred, only heat can be transferred

Here is how the mechanism of why i felt cold works, my body gave out heat, hence there was heat transfer from a region of high to a low heat region, equilibrium was reached and I started feeling the coolness in my hands.

Answer:

Convection and Radiation mechanisms carry most of the heat

Explanation:

This is because Convection proceeds strongy as heated air rises from the hot element while Radiation is also strong, although the material of the cooking pots will how effective it is.

Answer:

The power required by the pump is nearly 230.588 kW

Explanation:

Flow rate of the pump Q = 1 m^3/s

the head flow H = 20 m

specific weight of water γ = 9800 N/m^3

efficiency of the pump η = 85%

First note that specific gravity of water is the product of the density of water and acceleration due to gravity.

γ = ρg

where ρ is density. For water its value is 1000 kg/m^3

g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2

The power to lift this water at this rate will be gotten from the equation

P = ρgQH

but ρg = γ

therefore,

P = γQH

imputing values, we'll have

P = 9800 x 1 x 20 = 196000 W

But the centrifugal pump that will be used will only be able to lift this amount of water after the efficiency factor has been considered. The power of pump needed must be greater than this power.

we can say that

196000 W is 85% of the power of the pump power needed, therefore

196000 = 85% of [tex]P_{p}[/tex]

where [tex]P_{p}[/tex] is the power of the pump needed

85% = 0.85

196000 = 0.85[tex]P_{p}[/tex]

[tex]P_{p}[/tex] = 196000/0.85 = 230588.24 W

Pump power = 230.588 kW

Answer:

31

Explanation:

Answer:

As it goes down, weight does work on the toboggan and it ends up converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy.

1. weight

2. gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy.

Explanation:

As it goes down, weight does work on the toboggan and it ends up converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy.

work done by toboggan = weight × distance

W = mg and the distance is down the icy slope

By using law of conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but can be conserve from one form to another in a closed system.

Toboggan converts gravitational potential energy (mgh) to kinetic energy(¹/₂mv²)

Answer:

(a) The current needed is 56.92 A

(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is 0.134 T

(c) The energy density inside the solenoid is 7.144 kJ/m³

Explanation:

Given;

energy stored in the magnetic field of solenoid, E = 8.1 J

number of turns of the solenoid, N = 620 turns

diameter of the solenoid, D = 6.6 cm = 0.066 m

radius of the solenoid, r = D/2 = 0.033 m

length of the solenoid, L = 33 cm = 0.33 m

Inductance of the solenoid is given as;

[tex]L= \frac{\mu_o N^2 A}{l}[/tex]

where;

A is the area of the solenoid = πr² = π (0.033)² = 0.00342 m²

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ H/m

[tex]L= \frac{4\pi*10^{-7} *620^2 *0.00342}{0.33} \\\\L = 0.005 \ H[/tex]

(A). How much current needed

Energy stored in magnetic field of solenoid is given as;

[tex]E = \frac{1}{2} LI^2\\\\[/tex]

Where;

I is the current in the solenoid

[tex]E = \frac{1}{2} LI^2\\\\I^2 = \frac{2E}{L}\\\\I = \sqrt{\frac{2*8.1}{0.005}}\\\\ I = 56.92 \ A[/tex]

(B) The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid

B = μ₀nI

where;

n is number of turns per unit length

B = μ₀(N/L)I

B = (4π x 10⁻⁷)(620/0.33)(56.92)

B = 0.134 T

(C) The energy density (energy/volume) inside the solenoid

[tex]U_B = \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0} \\\\U_B = \frac{(0.134)^2}{2*4\pi*10^{-7}} \\\\U_B = 7143.54 \ J/m^3\\\\U_B = 7.144 \ kJ/m^3[/tex]

Answer:

The distance is [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

       The order of maximum diffraction is  m =  2

         The wavelength is   [tex]\lambda = 775 nm = 775 * 10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

         The angle is  [tex]\theta = 62.5^o[/tex]

Generally the   condition for  constructive  interference for diffraction grating  is mathematically represented as

          [tex]dsin \theta = m * \lambda[/tex]

where  d is  the distance between the lines on a  diffraction grating

     So  

            [tex]d = \frac{m * \lambda }{sin (\theta )}[/tex]

substituting values  

           [tex]d = \frac{2 * 775 *1^{-9} }{sin ( 62.5 )}[/tex]

          [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

The set up is a compound microscope. The converging lens is the objective lens while the diverging lens is the eyepiece lens.

In compound microscopes, the distance between the two lenses is expressed as L = v0+ue

v0 is the image distance of the objective lens and ue is the object distance of the eye piece lens.

Befre we can get the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens (ve), we need to get ue first.

Given L = 18.0cm

Using the lens formula to get v0 where u0 = 12.0cm and f0 = 7.40cm

1/f0 = 1/u0+1/v0

f0 and u0 are the focal length and object distance of the converging lens (objective lens)respectively.

1/v0 = 1/7.4-1/12

1/v0 = 0.1351-0.0833

1/v0 = 0.0518

v0 = 1/0.2184

v0 = 19.31cm

Note that v0 = ue = 19.31cm

To get ve, we will use the lens formula 1/fe = 1/ue+1/ve

1/ve = 1/fe-1/ue

Given ue = 19.31cm and fe = -7.00cm

1/ve = -1/7.0-1/19.31

1/ve = -0.1429-0.0518

1/ve = -0.1947

ve = 1/-0.1947

ve = -5.14cm

Hence, the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens is 5.14cm to the lens

b) Magnification of the final image M = ve/ue

M = 5.14/19.31

M = 0.27

Magnification of the final image is 0.27

The figure is missing, so i have attached it

Answer:

Magnitude of B = 0.252 T

Explanation:

From the image, considering the point at which it enters the field-filled region, the velocity vector is pointing downwards. The field points out of the page so that; (v→) × (B→) points leftward, points leftward which indeed seems to be the direction it is pushed. Therefore q > 0 and thus it's a proton.

The equation for the period since it goes through half circle is;

T = 2t = 2πm/(e|B|)

Where;

m is mass of proton = 1.67 × 10^(-27) kg

e is electron charge = 1.60 x 10^(-19) Coulombs.

|B| is magnitude of magnetic field

t = 130 ns = 130 × 10^(-9) s

Making |B| the subject, we have;

|B| = πm/et

Thus, plugging in all relevant values, we have;

|B| = π(1.67 × 10^(-27))/(1.60 x 10^(-19) × 130 × 10^(-9)) = 0.252 T

Answer:

As the mass increases, the moment of inertia(I) increases, therefore, the angular momentum(L) increases too.

Explanation:

friction can be defined as resistance in motion of bodies in relative to one another

momentum is the product of mass and velocity

torque is the time rate of change in momentum

τ = [tex]\frac{dL}{dt}[/tex]

where L = Iω = mvr

I = moment of inertia

ω=  angular frequency

if there is no external force(torque) acting on the system, then

[tex]\frac{dL}{dt}[/tex] = 0

dL = 0 = constant

moment of inertia I depends on the distribution of mass on the axis of rotation.

as the mass increases, the angular momentum(L) increases

angular frequency, ω, remains constant

Explanation:

A Buchner funnel uses perforatet glass plate when separating a(n) solide from liquid by filtration.

[tex]hope \: this \: helps[/tex]

Answer:

f = 40Hz

Explanation:

v=f x wavelength

f =v / wavelength

f = 2/5 x 10-²= 40 Hz

f = 40Hz

f = 40Hz

In physics, the term frequency refers to the number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time.

It also describes the number of cycles or vibrations undergone during one unit of time by a body in periodic motion.

Wavelength (λ) - The wavelength of light is defined as the distance between the crests or troughs of a wave motion.

The wave equation: v = fλ

As per question,

Wavelength = 5.00 cm

v = 2.00 m/s.

v=fλ

f =v / λ

f = 2/5 x 10⁻² = 40 Hz

f = 40Hz

Therefore,

The frequency is 40Hz.

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Answer:

The number of turns of the wire needed is 243 turns

Explanation:

Given;

self inductance of the solenoid, L = 1.8 mH

cross sectional area of the inductor, A = 1.6 x 10⁻³ m²

length of the inductor, l = 0.066 m

The self inductance of long solenoid is given by;

L = μ₀n²Al

where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ H/m

n is number of turns per length

A is the area of the solenoid

l is length of the solenoid

[tex]n = \sqrt{\frac{L}{\mu_o Al} } \\\\n = \sqrt{\frac{1.8*10^{-3}}{(4\pi*10^{-7}) (1.6*10^{-3})(0.066)} } \\\\n = \sqrt{13562583.184} \\\\n = 3682.74 \ turns/m[/tex]

The number of turns is given by;

N = nL

N = (3682.74)(0.066)

N = 243 turns

Therefore, the number of turns of the wire needed is 243 turns

Answer:

0.9m/s²

Explanation:

See attached files

Answer:

D. There are drilling platforms all along the coast that are used to drill for natural gas that can be used to generate electricity

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because the sun will not run out. The power plant uses water, so it is also a renewable resource. Windmills use wind, and wind will not run out so it is a renewable resource. However, natural gas and oil are not renewable resources because they will run out one day.

Answer:

2.52 rpm

Explanation:

given that

diameter of the wheel, d = 25 m

Mass of the person, m = 75 kg

Weight experienced, N = 810 N

Since diameter is 25, radius then is 25/2 = 12.5 m

We all know that,

v = rw

Also, the passengers weight is equal to the centripetal acceleration, and thus

mg = mv²/r

Substitute for v, we have

mg = m/r * (rw)²

mg = mr²w²/r

g = rw²

If we make w the subject of formula, we have

w² = g/r

w = √(g/r)

mg = 810

75 * g = 810

g = 810 / 75

g = 1.08 m/s²

w = √(g/r)

w = √(1.08 / 12.5)

w = √0.0864

w = 0.294 rad/s

Since the question asked us in rpm, we convert to rpm

0.294 * (60 / 2π)

2.52 revolution per minute.

Answer:

Explanation:

For spring

[tex]n=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

where n is frequency of oscillation and k is force constant and m is mass

Putting the values

[tex]1.2=\sqrt{\frac{k}{.28} }[/tex]

k = .4032 N/m

F= k x

where F is force , k is force constant and x is extension

Putting the given values

1 = .4032 x

x = 2.48 m

Answer:

Increase

Explanation:

Because For a given focal length, a lens with a larger front element will generally be faster. That is, it'll have a larger maximum aperture, allowing a shorter exposure time, But a larger aperture requires larger elements to maintain the same angle of view

Answer:

East direction

Explanation:

Given that

Charge on the particle is positive.

Moving towards the center of earth .

We know that N(north ) pole in magnetic fields work as source of magnetic lines and S(South ) pole works and sink for magnetic lines.

Therefore due to the earth magnetic fields , the positive ions will deflect  towards  East direction.

Thus the answer will be East direction.