Which graph represents the following relationship between X and y. Y=3x

Answer:

the length of side DF is 19

Step-by-step explanation:

you first need to find what x=

sides  AB=DF    AC=DE    BC=FE

so we can say that 3x+1=19

3x+1=19

-1        -1

3x=18

÷ by 3

x=6

then DF os 2x+7

so 2(6)+7

12+7=19

Step-by-step explanation:

5 inches on the map correspond to 210 miles (or even a bit more) in reality.

we do know, the real length of the state is 213 miles.

and 8 inches to 410 (or a bit more) miles.

but, in fact, in reality, Kansas is indeed 410 miles long.

so, let's see first about the consistency of the scale factors (our ratios) in every direction.

5 inches / 210 miles = 1/42

8 inches / 410 miles = 4/205 = 1/51.25

so, in order to be a true map, both directions must have the same scale factor.

to fit the whole map on one page we must go with the smaller scale ratio : 1/51.25

so,

A with the ratio 1/1 is wrong.

B wrong.

1 cm = 1/2.54 inches

1 km = 1/1.6 miles

so, the scale ratio here is

1 cm / 1km = 1/2.54 / 1/1.6 = 1.6 / 2.54

still far off of the 1/51.25 ratio.

C with the ratio 1/10 is wrong.

D wrong

1 ft = 12 inches

the ratio is therefore

12/100 = 3/25 = 1/8.3333

still far off of the 1/51.25 ratio.

E would fit

1 cm = 1/2.54 inches

1 km = 1/1.6 miles

200 km = 200/1.6

so, the scale ratio here is

1 cm / 200km = 1/2.54 / 200/1.6 = 1.6 / (2.54×200) =

= 1.6 / 508

still far off of the 1/51.25 ratio, but in the form of being much smaller. so it fits on the page.

F would fit.

the ratio is 1/100.

this is again far off of the 1/51.25 ratio, but also in the form of being much smaller, so it fits on the page.

G would fit.

1 cm = 1/2.54 inches

1 km = 1/1.6 miles

1000 km = 1000/1.6

so, the scale ratio here is

1 cm / 1000km = 1/2.54 / 1000/1.6 = 1.6 / (2.54×1000) =

= 1.6 / 2540

again far off of the 1/51.25 ratio, but also in the form of being much smaller. so it fits on the page.

Answer:

32/4

= 8

So 8 pounds for one acre

1/8 = 0.125 acres can be filled with one pound

Answer:

5x-2=2x-1

5x-2x=-1+2

3x=1

3/3x=1/3

x=1/3 or 1.3333...

Answer:

its the yoyo

Step-by-step explanation:

it was right on the khawn acdemy thing.

Answer:

y-intercept = (0, -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The y-intercept is the y-coordinate of the point (0, b) where the graph of the linear equation crosses the y-axis. The y-intercept is also the value of y when x = 0. Looking at your graph, it shows that the line crosses at point (0, -2).

Therefore, the correct answer is (0, -2).

Answer:

from a to t

Step-by-step explanation:

a=64°

b=116°

c=116°

d=64°

e=108°

f=72°

g=108°

h=72°

i=108°

j=108°

k=72°

m=105°

n=79°

q=116°

s=75°

t=119°s

See the picture above for the solution.

Explanation:

The rule used is [tex]\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^{-c} = \left(\frac{b}{a}\right)^{c}[/tex]

That rule says to go from a negative exponent to a positive exponent, we apply the reciprocal of the fraction.

So,

[tex]\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{-5} = \left(\frac{3}{1}\right)^{5} = 3^5[/tex]

Answer:

I'm 100% sure it's 50.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Find the slope of the original line and use the point-slope formula: y−y1=m(x−x1 )

to find the line parallel to -> y = 6/7 x −2.

A: y = 6/ 7x−7

The expected value of a dataset is the mean of the dataset.

The complete text is: Pamela can expect to see 1 red car and 1 green car on her way to office.

Expected value is calculated as:

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) =\sum x \times P(x)}[/tex]

For the red cars, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 0 \times 0.43 + 1 \times 0.31 + 2 \times 0.14 + 3 \times 0.10 + 4 \times 0.02}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 0.97}[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 1}[/tex]

For the green cars, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 0 \times 0.45 + 1 \times 0.17 + 2 \times 0.22 + 3 \times 0.07 + 4 \times 0.09}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 1.18}[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 1}[/tex]

Hence, the expected values of red and green is 1.

Read more about expected values at:

https://brainly.com/question/22097128

Answer:

275?

Step-by-step explanation:

I just divided it.. 825÷3

Answer:

The correct answer is 275 seats

Step-by-step explanation:

Since its 3 FULL theaters then we are gonna divide the number of tickets by the number of theaters which is 825÷3.

Do the math (or use a calculator) and your left with 275.

Hope this helps!

Answer: 450

Step-by-step explanation:

say you remove the 0 out of 50, so you have 5 x 9. 5 x 9 = 45. Take the 0 you took out earlier, than add it to the end of 45, there's your answer. 450

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply:

50×9

⇛25 + 25 × 5 + 4

⇛50 + 9

⇛450 Ans.

Answer:

wait.

Step-by-step explanation:

what do u really mean by zombies

Answer:

-7 = -7

a. infinite solution

Answer:

[tex] \sqrt{10} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

use

a^2 +b^2=c^2

c² = a² + b²

c² = 3² + 1²

c² = 9 + 1

c² = 10

c = √10

Answer:

9 and 5 I guess enjoy.

.

Step-by-step explanation:

and yeah no explanation

Answer:

multiply

Step-by-step explanation:

just multiply all of them and then u will get your answer I hope this helped ❤

Step-by-step explanation:

It's B.You want a explaination ???

All numbers greater or equal to 1

Answer:

2

9/5

Step-by-step explanation:

2/1 = 2

18/10 (divide by 2 up and down) = 9/5

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

a = 37 degrees ( vertical angle to 37 )

c = 180 - 37 = 143 degrees (adjacent angles add up to 180).

b = 180 - 37 - 109 = 34 degrees   (angles in a triangle sum to 180 degrees).

a = 37 degrees

c = 180 - 37 = 143 degrees.

b = 180 - 37 - 109 = 34 degrees

Answer: 41

Step-by-step explanation: r= 3c+ 5

3 (12) +5     36+5= 41

Answer:

B 35

Step-by-step explanation:

the value goes up by six in each box

Answer:

D 40,000nm

Step-by-step explanation: 1nm/10^-9m * 10^-6/1um = 10^3 nm/um

Therefore in 40 microns there are:

40um * 10^3 nm/um = 40 * 10^3 nm = 40,000 nm

The human hair is 40,000 nanometers wide.

Option D is the correct answer.

Given,

A human hair is approximately 40 microns (um) wide.

1 um is equal to [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] meters (m)

1 nanometer (nm) is equal to [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m.

We need to find how many nanometers wide is human hair.

We can add the exponents if we have the same base.

Example:

a² x a³ = [tex]a^{(2+3)}[/tex] = [tex]a^{5}[/tex]

[tex]a^{-2}[/tex] x [tex]a^{-3}[/tex] = [tex]a^{(-2 +( -3))}[/tex] = [tex]a^{-5}[/tex]

We have,

Human hair = 40 microns (um) wide.

And,

1 um = [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] m

1 nm = [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m

[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m = 1 nm

Multiplying by 10³ on both sides.

[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] x 10³ = 10³ nm

[tex]10^{(-9+3)}[/tex] = 10³ nm

[tex]10^{-6}[/tex] m = 10³ nm

1 um = [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]m

1 um = 10³ nm

Human hair = 40 um

1 um = 10³ nm

Multiplying 40 on both sides.

40 x 1 um = 40 x 10³ nm

40 um = 40 x 1000 nm

40 um = 40,000 nm

Thus human hair is 40,000 nanometers wide.

Learn more about the conversion of microns to nanometers here:

https://brainly.com/question/14663277

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Answer: X=3 Y=2

Step-by-step explanation: just looked it up

Refer to the attachment