Someone help find centripetal acceleration plus centripetal force!

Answer:

31

Explanation:

Answer:

f = 40Hz

Explanation:

v=f x wavelength

f =v / wavelength

f = 2/5 x 10-²= 40 Hz

f = 40Hz

f = 40Hz

In physics, the term frequency refers to the number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time.

It also describes the number of cycles or vibrations undergone during one unit of time by a body in periodic motion.

Wavelength (λ) - The wavelength of light is defined as the distance between the crests or troughs of a wave motion.

The wave equation: v = fλ

As per question,

Wavelength = 5.00 cm

v = 2.00 m/s.

v=fλ

f =v / λ

f = 2/5 x 10⁻² = 40 Hz

f = 40Hz

Therefore,

The frequency is 40Hz.

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Answer:

It can coast uphill 6.2m

Explanation:

See attached file pls

Answer:

Explanation:

let the coil of length l and breathe b entering the magnetic field B with speed v.

So, the magnetic flux through the coil is

Ф = B(l×b)

length × breathe = area

Ф = BA

dФ = BdA

therefore induced emf is given as

ε = [tex]Bl(\frac{db}{dt})[/tex]

note: [tex]\frac{db}{dt} = v[/tex]

ε[tex]= Blv[/tex]

attached is the diagram for the solution

Answer:

151.58 V

Explanation:

From the question,

The work done in a circuit in moving a charge is given as,

W = 1/2QV..................... Equation 1

Where W = Work done in moving the charge, Q = The magnitude of charge, V = potential difference between the plates.

make V the subject of the equation

V = 2W/Q.................. Equation 2

Given: W = 144 J. Q = 1.9 C

Substitute into equation 2

V = 2(144)/1.9

V = 151.58 V

Answer:

50 m

Explanation:

F = ma

10 N = (10 kg) a

a = 1 m/s²

Given:

v₀ = 0 m/s

a = 1 m/s²

t = 10 s

Find: Δx

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

Δx = (0 m/s) (10 s) + ½ (1 m/s²) (10 s)²

Δx = 50 m

Answer:

The  magnetic field is  [tex]B = 0.0764 \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

    The mass of the metal is  [tex]m = 0.210 \ kg[/tex]

     The current is  [tex]I = 11.0 \ A[/tex]

      The distance between the rail(length of the rod ) is  [tex]d = 0.490 \ m[/tex]

      The coefficient of kinetic friction is  [tex]\mu_k = 0.200[/tex]

Generally the magnetic force is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_b = B * I * d[/tex]

Given that the rod is moving at a constant velocity, it

=>    [tex]F_b = F_k[/tex]

Where [tex]F_k[/tex] is the kinetic frictional force which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]F_k = \mu_k * m * g[/tex]

So

    [tex]B * I * d = \mu_k * m * g[/tex]

=>   [tex]B = \frac{\mu_k * m * g}{I * d }[/tex]

substituting values

=>   [tex]B = \frac{0.200 * 0.210 * 9.8 }{ 11 * 0.490 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]B = 0.0764 \ T[/tex]

Answer:

When they are connected in series

     The  50 W bulb glow more than the 100 W bulb

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The power rating  of the first bulb is [tex]P_1 = 100 \ W[/tex]

      The power rating of the second bulb is  [tex]P_2 = 50 \ W[/tex]

Generally the power rating of the first bulb is mathematically represented as

      [tex]P_1 = V^2 R[/tex]

Where  [tex]V[/tex] is the normal household voltage which is constant for both bulbs

  So  

        [tex]R_1 = \frac{V^2}{P_1 }[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]R_1 = \frac{V^2}{100}[/tex]

Thus the resistance of the second bulb would be evaluated as

       [tex]R_2 = \frac{V^2}{50}[/tex]

From the above calculation we see that

        [tex]R_2 > R_1[/tex]

This power rating of the first bulb can also be represented mathematically as  

        [tex]P_ 1 = I^2_1 R_1[/tex]

This power rating of the first bulb can also be represented mathematically as    

       [tex]P_ 2 = I^2_2 R_2[/tex]

Now given that they are connected in series which implies that the same current flow through them so

       [tex]I_1^2 = I_2^2[/tex]

This means  that

       [tex]P \ \alpha \ R[/tex]

So  when they are connected in series

     [tex]P_2 > P_1[/tex]

This means that the 50 W bulb glows more than the 100 \ W bulb

Answer:

case 1 of physics is the answer

Answer:

27°

Explanation:

The force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field. (See the ref.)

So theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

Since The magnetic force per meter on a wire is measured to be only 45 %

So here we know that The force should be proportional to the sine of the angle between the wire and the magnetic field

Therefore,

theta = arcsin(0.45)

=27°

Hence, The angle between the wire and the magnetic field is 27°.

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Answer:

The work done by gravity during the roll is 490.6 J

Explanation:

The work (W) is:

[tex] W = F*d [/tex]

Where:

F: is the force

d: is the displacement = 20 m

The force is equal to the weight (W) in the x component:

[tex]F = W_{x} = mgsin(\theta)[/tex]

Where:

m: is the mass of the bowling ball = 5 kg

g: is the gravity = 9.81 m/s²    

θ: is the degree angle to the horizontal = 30°        

[tex]F = mgsin(\theta) = 5 kg*9.81 m/s^{2}*sin(30) = 24.53 N[/tex]    

Now, we can find the work:

[tex]W = F*d = 24.53 N*20 m = 490.6 J[/tex]      

Therefore, the work done by gravity during the roll is 490.6 J.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Increase

Explanation:

Because For a given focal length, a lens with a larger front element will generally be faster. That is, it'll have a larger maximum aperture, allowing a shorter exposure time, But a larger aperture requires larger elements to maintain the same angle of view

Answer:

1.32 is the turns ratio

Explanation:

Note that The transformer steps up the voltage from 12000 V to 390000V

12000 V is the primary and in the secondary it is 390000 V in old transformer

If n₁ be no of turns in primary coil and n₂ be no of turns in secondary coils

the formula is

n₂ / n₁ = voltage in secondry / voltage in primary

n₂ / n₁ = 390000 / 12000

ratio of turns in old transformer is 32.5

ratio of turns in new transformer

n₃ / n₁ = 515 / 12 ( n₃ is no of turns in the secondary of new transformer )

= 42.9

T he ratio of turns in the new secondary compared with the old secondary

n₃ / n₂ = 42.9 / 32.5

= 1.32

Answer:

You got it right, didn't you?

c) vector C

Explanation:

opposite to vector V

Answer:

A, vector B

Explanation:

A negative vector is a vector which points in the opposite direction, even though it’s in a different quadranot it’s still the opposite direction.

Answer:

T = 2689.6N

Explanation:

Considering the situation, one can say that torque due to tension in the spine is counter balanced by the torque due to weight of upper part of the body and the weight of the object. Hence, the tension force is acting at an angle of 12 degree

while both weight are acting perpendicular to the length. Hence we have :

Torque ( clockwise) = Torque ( anticlockwise)

m1g (L/2)+ m2g(L) = Tsin 12(2L/3)........1

Where m1 = 36kg

m2 = 20kg

g = 9.81m/s^2

Theta = 12

Substituting into equation 1

36(9.81) * (L/2)+20(9.81)(L) = Tsin12(2L/3)

353.16L/2+196.2L = T ×0.2079(2L/3)

176.58L+196.2L = T × 0.1386L

372.78L = 0.1386LT

T = 372.78L/0.1386L

T = 2689.6N

Answer:

I think my friend got it all wrong, as coolness can not be transferred but heat was actually transferred between my hand and the glass windows

Explanation:

In thermodynamics, coolness can not be transferred, only heat can be transferred

Here is how the mechanism of why i felt cold works, my body gave out heat, hence there was heat transfer from a region of high to a low heat region, equilibrium was reached and I started feeling the coolness in my hands.

Answer:

t = 27.5

Explanation:

[tex]3 + 5 -220t = 0[/tex]

Well to solve for t we need to combine like terms and seperate t.

So 3+5= 8

8 - 220t = 0

We do +220 to both sides

8 = 220t

And now we divide 220 by 8 which is 27.5

Hence, t = 27.5

Answer:

The number of turns of the wire needed is 243 turns

Explanation:

Given;

self inductance of the solenoid, L = 1.8 mH

cross sectional area of the inductor, A = 1.6 x 10⁻³ m²

length of the inductor, l = 0.066 m

The self inductance of long solenoid is given by;

L = μ₀n²Al

where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ H/m

n is number of turns per length

A is the area of the solenoid

l is length of the solenoid

[tex]n = \sqrt{\frac{L}{\mu_o Al} } \\\\n = \sqrt{\frac{1.8*10^{-3}}{(4\pi*10^{-7}) (1.6*10^{-3})(0.066)} } \\\\n = \sqrt{13562583.184} \\\\n = 3682.74 \ turns/m[/tex]

The number of turns is given by;

N = nL

N = (3682.74)(0.066)

N = 243 turns

Therefore, the number of turns of the wire needed is 243 turns

Answer:

East direction

Explanation:

Given that

Charge on the particle is positive.

Moving towards the center of earth .

We know that N(north ) pole in magnetic fields work as source of magnetic lines and S(South ) pole works and sink for magnetic lines.

Therefore due to the earth magnetic fields , the positive ions will deflect  towards  East direction.

Thus the answer will be East direction.

Answer:

The distance is [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

       The order of maximum diffraction is  m =  2

         The wavelength is   [tex]\lambda = 775 nm = 775 * 10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

         The angle is  [tex]\theta = 62.5^o[/tex]

Generally the   condition for  constructive  interference for diffraction grating  is mathematically represented as

          [tex]dsin \theta = m * \lambda[/tex]

where  d is  the distance between the lines on a  diffraction grating

     So  

            [tex]d = \frac{m * \lambda }{sin (\theta )}[/tex]

substituting values  

           [tex]d = \frac{2 * 775 *1^{-9} }{sin ( 62.5 )}[/tex]

          [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

Wavelength is 4.8x10^-7m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

D. There are drilling platforms all along the coast that are used to drill for natural gas that can be used to generate electricity

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because the sun will not run out. The power plant uses water, so it is also a renewable resource. Windmills use wind, and wind will not run out so it is a renewable resource. However, natural gas and oil are not renewable resources because they will run out one day.

Answer:

2.52 rpm

Explanation:

given that

diameter of the wheel, d = 25 m

Mass of the person, m = 75 kg

Weight experienced, N = 810 N

Since diameter is 25, radius then is 25/2 = 12.5 m

We all know that,

v = rw

Also, the passengers weight is equal to the centripetal acceleration, and thus

mg = mv²/r

Substitute for v, we have

mg = m/r * (rw)²

mg = mr²w²/r

g = rw²

If we make w the subject of formula, we have

w² = g/r

w = √(g/r)

mg = 810

75 * g = 810

g = 810 / 75

g = 1.08 m/s²

w = √(g/r)

w = √(1.08 / 12.5)

w = √0.0864

w = 0.294 rad/s

Since the question asked us in rpm, we convert to rpm

0.294 * (60 / 2π)

2.52 revolution per minute.

Answer:

Explanation:

The set up is a compound microscope. The converging lens is the objective lens while the diverging lens is the eyepiece lens.

In compound microscopes, the distance between the two lenses is expressed as L = v0+ue

v0 is the image distance of the objective lens and ue is the object distance of the eye piece lens.

Befre we can get the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens (ve), we need to get ue first.

Given L = 18.0cm

Using the lens formula to get v0 where u0 = 12.0cm and f0 = 7.40cm

1/f0 = 1/u0+1/v0

f0 and u0 are the focal length and object distance of the converging lens (objective lens)respectively.

1/v0 = 1/7.4-1/12

1/v0 = 0.1351-0.0833

1/v0 = 0.0518

v0 = 1/0.2184

v0 = 19.31cm

Note that v0 = ue = 19.31cm

To get ve, we will use the lens formula 1/fe = 1/ue+1/ve

1/ve = 1/fe-1/ue

Given ue = 19.31cm and fe = -7.00cm

1/ve = -1/7.0-1/19.31

1/ve = -0.1429-0.0518

1/ve = -0.1947

ve = 1/-0.1947

ve = -5.14cm

Hence, the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens is 5.14cm to the lens

b) Magnification of the final image M = ve/ue

M = 5.14/19.31

M = 0.27

Magnification of the final image is 0.27

Answer:

The speed of the electron is 6.79 x 10⁵ m/s

The radius of the circular path is 1.357 x 10⁻⁵ m

Explanation:

Given;

magnetic field, B = 0.285 T

energy of electron, E = 2.10 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The kinetic energy of the electron is calculated as;

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2[/tex]

Where;

[tex]m_e[/tex] is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

V is the speed of the electron

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2\\\\V^2 = \frac{2.K.E}{m_e} \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m_e} } \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2*(2.1*10^{-19})}{9.11*10^{-31}} }\\\\V = 6.79 *10^{5} \ m/s[/tex]

The radius of the circular path is given by;

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB}[/tex]

where;

q is the charge of the electron = 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB} \\\\R = \frac{9.11 *10^{-31}*6.79 *10^{5}}{1.6*10^{-19}*0.285} \\\\R = 1.357 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

As the mass increases, the moment of inertia(I) increases, therefore, the angular momentum(L) increases too.

Explanation:

friction can be defined as resistance in motion of bodies in relative to one another

momentum is the product of mass and velocity

torque is the time rate of change in momentum

τ = [tex]\frac{dL}{dt}[/tex]

where L = Iω = mvr

I = moment of inertia

ω=  angular frequency

if there is no external force(torque) acting on the system, then

[tex]\frac{dL}{dt}[/tex] = 0

dL = 0 = constant

moment of inertia I depends on the distribution of mass on the axis of rotation.

as the mass increases, the angular momentum(L) increases

angular frequency, ω, remains constant

Answer:

Convection and Radiation mechanisms carry most of the heat

Explanation:

This is because Convection proceeds strongy as heated air rises from the hot element while Radiation is also strong, although the material of the cooking pots will how effective it is.

Answer:

0.9m/s²

Explanation:

See attached files

Answer:

(a) The current needed is 56.92 A

(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is 0.134 T

(c) The energy density inside the solenoid is 7.144 kJ/m³

Explanation:

Given;

energy stored in the magnetic field of solenoid, E = 8.1 J

number of turns of the solenoid, N = 620 turns

diameter of the solenoid, D = 6.6 cm = 0.066 m

radius of the solenoid, r = D/2 = 0.033 m

length of the solenoid, L = 33 cm = 0.33 m

Inductance of the solenoid is given as;

[tex]L= \frac{\mu_o N^2 A}{l}[/tex]

where;

A is the area of the solenoid = πr² = π (0.033)² = 0.00342 m²

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ H/m

[tex]L= \frac{4\pi*10^{-7} *620^2 *0.00342}{0.33} \\\\L = 0.005 \ H[/tex]

(A). How much current needed

Energy stored in magnetic field of solenoid is given as;

[tex]E = \frac{1}{2} LI^2\\\\[/tex]

Where;

I is the current in the solenoid

[tex]E = \frac{1}{2} LI^2\\\\I^2 = \frac{2E}{L}\\\\I = \sqrt{\frac{2*8.1}{0.005}}\\\\ I = 56.92 \ A[/tex]

(B) The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid

B = μ₀nI

where;

n is number of turns per unit length

B = μ₀(N/L)I

B = (4π x 10⁻⁷)(620/0.33)(56.92)

B = 0.134 T

(C) The energy density (energy/volume) inside the solenoid

[tex]U_B = \frac{B^2}{2\mu_0} \\\\U_B = \frac{(0.134)^2}{2*4\pi*10^{-7}} \\\\U_B = 7143.54 \ J/m^3\\\\U_B = 7.144 \ kJ/m^3[/tex]

Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]