Please answer this correctly without making mistakes

Answer:

16.97 Units

Step-by-step explanation:

From the graph

Point W is located at (-6,4)

Point X is located at (6,-8)

To determine the distance between points W and X, we use the distance formula.

[tex]\text{Distance Formula}=\sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2}[/tex]

[tex](x_1,y_1)=(-6,4)\\(x_2,y_2)=(6,-8)[/tex]

So,

[tex]WX=\sqrt{(6-(-6))^2+(-8-4)^2} \\=\sqrt{(6+6)^2+(-12)^2}\\=\sqrt{(12)^2+(-12)^2}\\=\sqrt{288}\\=16.97$ units (correct to the nearest hundredth)[/tex]

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

First, let's multiply this thickness by one million to see how many inches this  pile is.

0.0043*×1,000,000=4,300 inches

We know that there are 12 inches in a foot and 3 feet in a yard, so there must be 36 inches in a yard.

So, we divide our 4,300 inches by 36 to find how many yards high this pile is.

4300÷36=119 4/9

Therefore, a pile of a million $1 bills is 119 4/9 yards high.

Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer:

0.11

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello,

[tex]P(A|B)=\dfrac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)} \ \ \text{ so ...}\\\\P(A\cap B)=P(A|B)\cdot {P(B)= 0.55 * 0.2 = 0.11\\[/tex]

Hope this helps.

Do not hesitate if you need further explanation.

Thank you

Answer:

  51 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The centroid G divides each median into the ratio 2:1, so GF is 1/3 of CF. That is, ...

  CF = 3(GF) = 3(17 in)

  CF = 51 in

Answer:

-$2.63

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculation for the expected profit for one spin of the roulette wheel with this bet

Based on the information given you bet $50 on 00 while the standard roulette has 38 possible outcomes which means that the probability or likelihood of getting 00 will be 1/38.

Therefore when we get an 00, we would get the amount of $1,750 with a probability of 1/38 and in a situation where were we get something other than 00 this means we would lose $50 with a probability of 37/38.

Now let find the Expected profit using this formula

Expected profit = sum(probability*value) -sum(probability*value)

Let plug in the formula

Expected profit =($1,750 * 1/38) - ($50 * 37/38)

Expected profit=($1,750*0.026315)-($50×0.973684)

Expected profit= 46.05 - 48.68

Expected profit = - $2.63

Therefore the expected profit for one spin of the roulette wheel with this bet will be -$2.63

Answer:

A= 35°

b= 55°

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take the small angles of the right angle triangle to be and b

a+b +90= 180....(sum of angles in a right angle triangle)

The measure of one of the small angles of a right triangle is 15 less than twice the measure of the other small angle

2a-15= b

a+2a -15 +90= 180

3a = 180-75

3a= 105

a= 105/3

a= 35°

a+b +90= 180.

35+b+90= 180

b = 180-90-35

b = 55°

Answer:

x = 35°;  y = 55°

Step-by-step explanation:

  Let x = one of the angles

 and y = the other angle. Then

       2x = twice the measure of x and

2x - 15 = 15 less than twice the measure of x

You have two conditions

(1) y = 2x - 15

(2) x+ y = 90

Calculations:

[tex]\begin{array}{lrcll}(1) & y & = & 2x - 15\\(2)& x + y & =&90\\(3)& x + 2x - 15 & =&90&\text{Substituted (1) into (2)}\\& 3x- 15 & = & 90&\text{Simplified}\\&3x & = & 105&\text{Added 15 to each side}\\ (4)& x & = & \mathbf{35}&\text{Divided each side by 3}\\& y & = & 2(35) - 15&\text{Substituted (4) into (1)}\\& & = & 70 - 15&\text{Simplified}\\&&=&\mathbf{55}&\end{array}\\[/tex]

x = 35°; y = 55°

Check:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}55 = 2(35) - 15 & \qquad & 35 + 55 = 90\\55 = 70 - 15 & \qquad & 90 = 90\\55 = 55 && \\\end{array}[/tex]

It checks.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : In a circle O,

AB is a diameter and CD⊥AB,

To Prove :

ΔADC ~ ΔACB

Solution :

In ΔADC and ΔACB,

m∠ADC = 90° [Given]

m∠ACB = 90° [Angle subtended by the diameter = 90°]

m∠ADC ≅ m∠ACB ≅ 90°

∠A ≅ ∠A [Reflexive property]

Therefore, ΔADC ~ ΔACB [By AA postulate of similarity]

Answer:

 P [ Z >  24,1 ] =  72,24 %

Step-by-step explanation:

P [ Z > 24,1 ]  =  1  - P [ Z < 24,1 ]

P [ Z < 24,1 ] = ( Z - μ₀ ) / σ

P [ Z < 24,1 ] = ( 24,1 - 25,4) / 2,1

P [ Z < 24,1 ] = - 1,3/ 2,1

P [ Z <  24,1 ] = - 0,6190  ≈ - 0,62

We look in z-table and find for  z(score) -0,6190

P [ Z <  24,1 ] = 0,27763

Then

P [ Z >  24,1 ] = 1 - 0,27763

P [ Z >  24,1 ] = 0,72237    ⇒    or       P [ Z >  24,1 ] =  72,24 %

Answer:

1.5+1.7/2=1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

On a coordinate plane, a curve is level at y = -1 in quadrant 3 and then decreases rapidly into quadrant 4. It crosses the y-axis at (0, -2).

Step-by-step explanation:

y = -2 ^x -1

On a coordinate plane, a curve is level at y = – 1 in quadrant 3 and then decreases rapidly into quadrant 4. It crosses the y-axis at (0, -2). Option C is correct.

The Cartesian coordinate plane is a two-dimensional plane with infinite dimensions. On an endless 2d plane, any two-dimensional figure can be drawn. A location is assigned to each point on a Cartesian plane.

On a coordinate plane, a curve is level at y = – 1 in quadrant 3 and then decreases rapidly into quadrant 4. It crosses the y-axis at (0, -2).

Hence, option C is correct.

To learn more about the Cartesian plane, refer;

https://brainly.com/question/27538987

#SPJ2

Answer:

a. Total amount after 65 years = $1179415.39

b. The total contribution to the account  = $288000

Step-by-step explanation:

Given annuity amount = $1800

Total number of years for contribution = 65 – 25 = 40 years

Interest rate  = 6%

a. Total amount after 65 years = Annuity[((1+r)^n -1) / r]

Total amount after 65 years = 1800×((1+.06/4)^(4 × 40) - 1)/(.06/4)

Total amount after 65 years = $1179415.39

b. The total contribution to the account =1800 × 4 Quarter × 40 Years

        The total contribution to the account  = $288000

Answer:

140

Step-by-step explanation:

2{ 2[24 + 4(9)-25]}

2{ 2[24 + 36-25]}

2{ 2[35]}

2(70)

140

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\mathrm{x = 43.8 \ degrees}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the angle be x

Tan x = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

Where opposite = 48, Adjacent = 50

Tan x = [tex]\frac{48}{50}[/tex]

Tan x = 0.96

x = [tex]Tan ^{-1}0.96[/tex]

x = 43.8 degrees

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{43.8 \°}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Use tangent since hypotenuse length is not given.

[tex]tan \theta = \frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

[tex]tan(x)=\frac{48}{50}[/tex]

[tex]x=tan^{-1}(\frac{48}{50} )[/tex]

[tex]x=43.8[/tex]

Answer:

C = 31.4 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

C = pi * d where d is the diameter

C = 3.14 * 10

C = 31.4 cm

Circumference = pi x diameter

                         = 3.14 x 10

                         = 31.4 cm

The answer is D. 31.4 cm.

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 4 = 12

x=12-4

x=8

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

x+4=12, so 12-4=x (if you use an the inverse operation of addition, subtraction.)

12-4=x, so all you have to do is subtract and, there you have it, 8. It makes sense, 8+4=12. :)

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the subtraction identity for sine

sin(a + b) = sinacosb - cosasinb

Given

sin(360 - Θ)°

= sin360°cosΘ° - cos360°sinΘ°

= (0 × cosΘ ) - (1 × sinΘ)

= 0 - sinΘ

= - sinΘ  ← as required

Answer:

147

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: sample required n = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the value under under null hypothesis is 40 while the value under the alternative is less than 40, specifically 35.9

∴ H₀ : u = 40

  H₁  : u = 35.9

therefore β = ( 35.9 - 40 ) = -4.1

The level of significance ∝ = 0.05

Probability of committing type 11 error P = 0.1

standard deviation α = 5.8

Therefore our z-vales (z table)

Z₀.₅ = 1.645

Z₀.₁ = 1.282

NOW let n be sample size

n = {( Z₀.₅ + Z₀.₁ )² × α²} / β²

n = {( 1.645 + 1.282 )² × 5.8²} / (- 4.1)²

n = 17.14485

Since we are talking about sample size; it has to be a whole number

therefore

sample required n = 18

Answer:

A) v = f(x) = 96 -32x

B)the velocity when x = 0

V = 96 ft/s

The velocity when x =4

V = -32 ft/s

C). Time when v= 0

3 seconds = x

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 96x -16x^2

The above equation represents the position of the object at x time along the x axis.

The velocity will be determined by differentiating the equation with respect with x

f(x) = 96x -16x^2,

D f(x)/Dx= 96 -2(16x)

D f(x)/Dx= 96 -32x

v = f(x) = 96 -32x

The velocity when x = 0

v = f(x) = 96 -32x

V = f(0) = 96-32(0)

V = 96 ft/s

The velocity when x = 4

v = f(x) = 96 -32x

V = f(4) = 96-32(4)

V = 96 - 128

V = -32 ft/s

Time when v= 0

v = f(x) = 96 -32x

0= 96 -32x

-96= -32x

-96/-32=x

3 seconds = x

Answer:

H0:p=0.46, Ha:p<0.46

H0:p=0.39, Ha:p<0.39

Step-by-step explanation:

A one tailed test occurs in such a way that the value/results gotten is one sided and can either be lesser or greater than the particular given value but cannot be both.

Thus, in this case a one sided test includes

H0:p=0.46, Ha:p<0.46

H0:p=0.39, Ha:p<0.39

Answer:

2 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

If x is the length of the sides of the squares, then the height of the box is also x.  The length and width of the base are 10−2x and 20−2x.  The area of the base is the length times the width.

96 = (10 − 2x) (20 − 2x)

96 = 200 − 20x − 40x + 4x²

0 = 4x² − 60x + 104

0 = x² − 15x + 26

0 = (x − 2) (x − 13)

x = 2 or 13

Since x < 5, x = 2.

So the length of the sides of the squares is 2 cm.

Answer:

If we have a function f(x) = y.

the set of possible values of x is called the domain

the set of possible values of y is called the range.

In this case, we have:

Blood alcohol content vs Reflex time,

The possible values of alcohol in blood content depend on the particular person, but we can have a minimum of 0.0 (no alcohol in blood) and a maximum of .51 (for a 90 lb person) because at this range the person enters the risk of death.

So the domain is: D = [0.0, 0.51]

But, we actually can have higher values of alcohol in blood, so we actually can use a domain:

D = [0.0, 1.0]

For the range, we need to see at the possible values of the reflex time.

And we know that the human reflex time is in between 100ms and 500ms

So our range can be:

R = [100ms, 500ms]

Answer:

672

Step-by-step explanation:

If we call the number of non-fiction books as x, the number of fiction books would be 3x. Therefore: we can write the following equation:

3x - 120 = 2(x - 24)  ← the 3x - 120 and x - 24 represents the new number of books

3x - 120 = 2x - 48

x - 120 = 48

x = 168 which means 3x = 3 * 168 = 504, therefore the total number of books is 168 + 504 = 672.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\mathrm{view \: explanation}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A) 3x²c² + 5xc² - 2c²

Factor c² from all terms in the expression.

c²(3x² + 5x - 2)

Factor 3x² + 5x - 2

c²(3x-1)(x+2)

B) x² + 6x + 9

x² + 3x + 3x + 9

Factor common terms.

x(x+3)+3(x+3)

Take x+3 common.

(x+3)(x+3)

C) x² - 9

x² -3²

Apply formula : a² - b² = (a+b)(a-b)

(x+3)(x-3)

Answer:

A) [tex]c^2(3x-1)(x+2)[/tex]

B) [tex](x+3)(x+3)[/tex]

C) [tex](x+3)(x-3)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A:

[tex]3x^2c^2+5xc^2-2c^2[/tex]

Taking [tex]c^2[/tex] common

[tex]c^2(3x^2+5x-2)[/tex]

Using mid term break formula

[tex]c^2 (3x^2+6x-x-2)[/tex]

[tex]c^2[3x(x+2)-1(x+2)][/tex]

[tex]c^2(3x-1)(x+2)[/tex]

Part B:

[tex]x^2 + 6x + 9.[/tex]

[tex](x)^2+2(x)(3)+(3)^2[/tex]

[tex](x+3)^2[/tex]

[tex](x+3)(x+3)[/tex]

Part C:

[tex]x^2-9[/tex]

[tex](x)^2-(3)^2[/tex]

[tex](x+3)(x-3)[/tex]

Answer:

These payments will be worth $11,332.94.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can calculate this as an annuity but with monthly periods and monthly interest rates.

Then, we have:

C = cash flow per period = $210

n = number of payments = 48

i = interest rate = 0.49% = 0.0049

Then, we can calculate the future value of this stream of deposits as:

[tex]FV=C\left[\dfrac{(1+i)^n-1}{i}\right]\\\\\\FV=210\left[\dfrac{(1.0049)^{48}-1}{0.0049}\right]=210\left[\dfrac{1.2644-1}{0.0049}\right]=210\left[\dfrac{0.2644}{0.0049}\right]\\\\\\FV=210\cdot 53.966\\\\\\FV=11332.94[/tex]

Answer: 3/50

Step-by-step explanation:

0.06 = 6/100 , 100 would be the denominator because we have two figures after the decimal point. Each figures can also be represented by 10,

Again,

0.06 = 6 × 10-²

Now 0.06 = 6/100

= 3/50.

Therefore, the fractional form = 3/50 in its lowest term.

Answer:

The answer is the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

The rays are: XW, ZY

The lines are: XZ

Rays are with one endpoint and one side that goes forever (aka and arrow).

A line has no endpoint going on forever in both directions.

Answer:

The first one

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a line is an infinite object, with no starting or ending point we symbolize it by an arrow over two points that belong to this line:

[tex]\line{XY}[/tex]

A ray, on the other hand has a starting point and no ending point.

So, in the picture we have a pair of rays, with common points to the line XY

Namely:

XW e ZY

Step-by-step explanation:

Statement: ∠O ≅ ∠O

Reason: Reflexive property

Statement: m∠OKW = 90° − m∠O

Reason: Complementary angles

Statement: m∠OJP = 90° − m∠O

Reason: Complementary angles

Statement: m∠OKW = m∠OJP

Reason: Substitution

Statement: ∠OKW ≅ ∠OJP

Reason: Definition of congruent angles

Statement: ΔOKW ~ ΔOJP

Reason: AA similarity

Answer:

C. [tex]\Rightarrow \bold{8x = 16}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the two equations:

[tex]y=2x ........ (1)\\ 2x+3y=16.......(2)[/tex]

To find:

The correct option when value of y is substituted to 2nd equation using the 1st equation.

Solution:

First of all, let us learn about the substitution method.

Substitution method is the method to provide solutions to two variables when we have two equations and two variables.

In substitution method, we find the value of one variable in terms of the other variable and put this value in the other equation.

Now, the other equation becomes only single variable and then we solve for the variable's value.

Here, we have two equations and value of one varible is:

[tex]y=2x[/tex]

Let us put value of y in 2nd equation:

[tex]2x+3y=16\\\Rightarrow 2x + 3(2x) = 16\\\Rightarrow 2x + 6x = 16\\\Rightarrow \bold{8x=16}[/tex]

So, the correct answer is option C. [tex]\Rightarrow \bold{8x = 16}[/tex]

Answer: 8x=16

Step-by-step explanation:a pex