g a conductor consists of an infinite number of adjacent wires, each infinitely long. If there are n wires per unit length, what is the magnitude of B~

Answer:

Poynting vector oscillate at a frequency of 2omega

Explanation:

This is because The poynting vector is proportional to the cross product of electric and magnetic field vectors. So Because both fields oscillate sinusoidally with frequency w, trigonometric identities show that their product is a sinusoidal function of frequency of 2w.

Answer:

A. 2.97x 10^-6C

B. 1.48x10^ -6 C

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Answer:

1) +9.4 x 10^-7 C

2) +4.72 x 10^-7 C  and  +1.9 x 10^-6 C

Explanation:

The two positive charges will repel each other

Repulsive force on charges = 0.200 N

distance apart = 20.0 cm = 0.2 m

charge on each sphere = ?

Electrical force on charged spheres at a distance is given as

F = [tex]\frac{kQq}{r^{2} }[/tex]

where F is the force on the spheres

k is the Coulomb's constant = 8.98 x 10^9 kg⋅m³⋅s⁻²⋅C⁻²

Q is the charge on of the spheres

q is the charge on the other sphere

r is their distance apart

since the charges are equal, i.e Q = q, the equation becomes

F = [tex]\frac{kQ^{2} }{r^{2} }[/tex]

making Q the subject of the formula

==> Q = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{Fr^{2} }{k} }[/tex]

imputing values into the equation, we have

Q = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{0.2*0.2^{2} }{8.98*10^{9} } }[/tex] = +9.4 x 10^-7 C

If one charge has four times the charge on the other, then

charge on one sphere = q

charge on the other sphere = 4q

product of both charges = [tex]4q^{2}[/tex]

we then have

F = [tex]\frac{4kq^{2} }{r^{2} }[/tex]

making q the subject of the formula

==> q =  [tex]\sqrt{\frac{Fr^{2} }{4k} }[/tex]

imputing values into the equation, we have

q = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{0.2*0.2^{2} }{4*8.98*10^{9} } }[/tex] = +4.72 x 10^-7 C

charge on other sphere = 4q = 4 x 4.72 x 10^-7 = +1.9 x 10^-6 C

Answer:

[tex]I=1.19\times 10^{-2}\ W/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Maximum value of magnetic field strength, [tex]B=10^{-8}\ T[/tex]

We need to find the intensity of the light at that place.

The formula of the intensity of magnetic field is given by :

[tex]I=\dfrac{c}{2\mu _o}B^2[/tex]

c is speed of light

So,

[tex]I=\dfrac{3\times 10^8}{2\times 4\pi \times 10^{-7}}\times (10^{-8})^2\\\\I=1.19\times 10^{-2}\ W/m^2[/tex]

So, the intensity of the light is [tex]1.19\times 10^{-2}\ W/m^2[/tex].

Answer: W.D = 1/2mv^2

Explanation:

If an external force or a single force is acting on a body. Just like the first law of thermodynamics, the force acting on the body will cause work done on the system.

Work done = force × distance

And the work done on the body will cause the molecules of the body to experience motion and thereby producing kinetic energy.

The work done will be converted to kinetic energy.

W.D = 1/2mv^2

Answer:

1248m

The time that wave moves from the wave source to the ocean floor is half the total travel time: t = 2.5/2 = 1.25s

The speed of sound in seawater is 1560 m/s

Therefore, s = vt = (1560 m/s)(1.25s) =1248 m = 1.2km

Answer:

the frequency of revolution of the second particle is f

Explanation:

centripetal force is balanced by the magnetic force for object under magnetic field is given as

Mv²/r= qvB

But v= omega x r

Omega= 2pi x f

f= qB/2pi x M

So since frequency does not depend on the velocity.therefore the frequency of revolution of the second particle remains the same and its equal to f

Answer:

x = A sin w t           displacement in SHM

v = A w cos w t      velocity in SHM

PE = 1/2 k x^2 = 1/2 k A^2 sin^2 w t

KE = 1/2 m v^2 = 1/2 m w^2 A^2 cos^2 w t

If KE = PE then

k sin^2 w t = m w^2 cos^2 w t

sin^2 wt / cos^2 w t = tan^2 w t = m w^2 / k

but k / m = w^2

So tan^2 w t = 1  and tan w t = 1   or w t = pi / 4 or theta = 45 deg

Then  x = r sin w t  = r sin 45 = .707 r

Answer:

20.07ohms

Explanation:

Impedance is defined as the opposition to the flow of current through the elements of the circuit.

Impedance for R-L AC circuit is expressed as Z = √R²+XL²

R is the resistance

XL is the inductive reactance.

Given resistance of the air condition = 20 ohms

Inductive reactance XL = 1.68 ohms

Z = √20²+1.68²

Z = √400+2.8224

Z = √402.8224

Z = 20.07 ohms

Hence the impedance of the air conditioner is 20.07ohms

Answer:

The electric field strength between the plates can be increased by decreasing the length of each side of the plates.

Explanation:

The electric field strength is given by;

[tex]E = \frac{V}{d}[/tex]

where;

V is the electric potential of the two opposite charges

d is the distance between the two parallel plates

[tex]E =\frac{V}{d} = \frac{\sigma}{\epsilon _o} \\\\(\sigma = \frac{Q}{A} )\\\\E = \frac{Q}{A\epsilon_o} \\\\E = \frac{Q}{L^2\epsilon_o}[/tex]

Where;

ε₀ is permittivity of free space

L is the length of each side of the plates

From the equation above, the electric field strength can be increased by decreasing the length of each side of the plates.

Therefore, decreasing the length of each side of the plates, could be made to increase the strength of the electric field between the plates

A, B, E , C, D

A nebula is an enormous cloud of dust and gas occupying the space between stars and acting as a nursery for new stars.

Nebulae are made up of dust, basic elements such as hydrogen and other ionized gases.

Nebula Formation:

In essence, a nebula is formed when portions of the interstellar medium undergo gravitational collapse.

Mutual gravitational attraction causes matter to clump together, forming regions of greater and greater density.

The formation events that occur within a cloud from earliest to latest are:

A. The cloud is large, cool, and slowly rotating

B. The cloud collapses into a disk.

E. The cloud starts to contract under the influence of gravity

C. Competing rotational and gravitational forces begin to flatten the cloud.

D. The cloud becomes denser, heats up, and rotates faster

Therefore , The rank from earliest to latest is A, B, E , C, D

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Answer:

-0.105 m/s

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of the astronaut, m(a) = 68.5 kg

Mass of the tool, m(t) = 2.25 kg

Speed of the tool after it is thrown, v(t) = 3.20 m/s

We know that momentum of a particle,

p = mv

See the attachment for calculations

Therefore, the speed is 0.105 m/s and it moves in the opposite direction.

Answer:

35.3°

18.4°

Explanation:

a.

The first polariser polarises the unpolarised light reducing its intensity from I0 to I0/2. We have to reduce the intensity from I0/2 to I0/3.

Using to Law of Malus, I=I0cos²θ

cos²θ=I/I0=(I0/3)/I0/2 ,

cosθ=√2/3−−√=0.6667−−−−−√=0.8165

θ=cos−1(0.8165)=35.3∘

B.

Cos²θ=I/Io =Io/10/Io9

Cosθ= √9/10= 0.9487

= cos−10.9487

=18.4°

(a) The angle of polaroid such that intensity reduces by 1/3 is 35.26°

(b) The angle of polaroid such that intensity reduces by 1/10 is 63.43°

According to the Malus Law: The intensity of light when passing through a polarizer is given by:

I = I₀cos²θ

where θ is the angle of the polarizer axis with the direction of polarization of the light

I₀ is the initial intensity

When an unpolarised light passes through a polarizer, θ varies from 0 to 2π, so the intensity after passing the first polarizer is :

I = I₀<cos²θ>   { average of cos²θ, for 0<θ<2π}

I = I₀/2

Now, this emerging light passes through a second polarizer such that:

(a) the intensity is I' = I₀/3

From Malus Law:

I' = Icos²θ

I₀/3 =  (I₀/2)cos²θ

cos²θ = 2/3

θ = 35.26°

(b) the intensity is I' = I₀/10

From Malus Law:

I' = Icos²θ

I₀/10 =  (I₀/2)cos²θ

cos²θ = 1/5

θ = 63.43°

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Answer:

There are 10 cubes in the box

Explanation:

Let the total number of cubes be x and the total number of pyramids be y

Since there are 17 total objects;

Then;

x + y = 17 •••••••••(i)

Also, the total number of sides of cubes is 6 * x = 6x ( a single cube has 6 sides)

For the pyramid we have 5 * y = 5y

adding both gives the total number of sides

6x + 5y = 95 •••••• (ii)

From i, we cabs say y = 17-x

plug this in ii

6x + 5(17-x) = 95

6x + 85 -5x = 95

6x-5x = 95-85

x = 10

Answer:

Fish C would float to the top & Fish A would sink to the bottom

Explanation:

A would sink to the bottom.Since B just remains where it is shown, its mass must balance the buoyant force and its weight must be equal to the weight of the water displaced. Since A is heavier, its weight will be greater than its buoyant force, it will sink. Since C is lighter, its buoyant force will be greater thanits weight and it will float to the top.

Answer:

9.6×10⁹ A

Explanation:

From the question above,

P = VI.................... Equation 1

Where P = Electric power, V = Voltage, I = current.

make I the subject of the equation

I = P/V............. Equation 2

Given: P = 200 kW = 200×10³ W, V = 48000 V.

Substitute these vales into equation 2

I = 200×10³×48000

I = 9.6×10⁹ A.

Hence the current in the line is 9.6×10⁹ A.

Answer:

   s_400 = 16.5 m , s_700 = 29.4 m

Explanation:

The limit of the human eye's solution is determined by the diffraction limit that is given by the expression

                   θ = 1.22 λ / D

where you lick the wavelength and D the mediator of the circular aperture.

In our case, the dilated pupil has a diameter of approximately 8 mm = 8 10-3 m and the eye responds to a wavelength between 400 nm and 700 nm.

by introducing these values ​​into the formula

λ = 400 nm      θ = 1.22 400 10⁻⁹ / 8 10⁻³ = 6 10⁻⁵ rad

λ = 700 nm     θ = 1.22 700 10⁻⁹ / 8 10⁻³-3 = 1.07 10⁻⁴ rad

Now we can use the definition radians

          θ= s / R

where s is the supported arc and R is the radius. Let's find the sarcos for each case

λ = 400 nm       s_400 = θ R

                         S_400 = 6 10⁻⁵ 275 10³

                         s_400 = 16.5 m

λ = 700 nm s_ 700 = 1.07 10⁻⁴ 275 10³

                          s_700 = 29.4 m

Answer:

Explanation:

When water droplet condenses on the outer wall of glass of ice , it releases heat equal to mass x latent heat of condensation of water . This heat reaches the ice melting inside  glass . Due to this heat , the melting process is accelerated .

Hence the process of melting gets accelerated when water droplet condenses on the outer wall of glass containing mixture of ice and water .

Answer:

the right answer is true

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Answer:

A) 1.5 v

B) Top plate is at higher voltage than the bottom plate

Explanation:

Battery value set between 0.0 V and 1.5 V

a) The potential difference between the plates

Δ V = V1( potential at top plate) - V2( potential at lower plate )

potential at top plate = 1.5 V

potential at lower plate = 0.0 V

hence potential difference = 1.5 V

b ) The top plate is always connected to the positive terminal of the DC source ( which is at a higher potential )while the bottom plate is connected to the negative terminal of the DC source ( which is at a lower potential )

hence the Top plate is at higher voltage than the bottom plate

Answer:

16.96 W

Explanation:

Power: This can be defined as the rate at which work is done by an object. The S.I unit of power is Watt(W).

From the question,

P = (F×d)/t....................... Equation 1

Where P = power, F = force, d = distance, t = time.

Given: F = 75 N, d = 42 m, t = 3.1 min = 3.1×60 = 186 s

Substitute these values into equation 1

P = (75×42)/186

P = 16.94 W

Hence the average power delivered by the child  = 16.96 W

The average power delivered by the child is 16.96 W.

Power can be defined as the rate at which work is done by an object. The S.I unit of power is Watt(W).

Work done is the product of force and displacement caused.

Then the formula of power will be

P = (F×d)/t

Substitute F = 75 N, d = 42 m, t = 3.1 min = 3.1×60 = 186 s, we get the power as

P = (75×42)/186

P = 16.94 W

Hence, the average power delivered by the child is 16.96 W.

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Answer:

A. plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster.

Explanation:

A star cluster can be defined as a constellation of stars, due to gravitational force, which has the same origin.

The astronomy student would have to plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster and determine the age of the cluster by observing the turn-off point. The turn-off is majorly as a result of gradual depletion of the source of energy of the star. Thus, it projects off the constellation.

Answer:

Energy, [tex]E=4.67\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Frequency of blue shade is, [tex]f=7.06\times 10^{14}\ Hz[/tex]

We need to find the energy of exactly one photon of this light. The formula that is used to find the energy of photon is given by :

[tex]E=nhf[/tex]

Here, n is number of photon, n = 1

h is Planck's constant

So,

[tex]E=1\times 6.626\times 10^{-34}\times 7.06\times 10^{14}\\\\E=4.67\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex]

So, the energy of this light is [tex]4.67\times 10^{-19}\ J[/tex].

Answer:

The magnetic field's direction is towards the north

Explanation:

The force on a positive charge in a uniform magnetic field is represented by the right hand rule. To determine the direction of the force, place your right hand with your palm up, and your thumb at 90° to the other fingers. If the fingers represent the magnetic field, and the thumb the direction of the positive charge, then the palm will push up in the direction of the force. But a negative charge like an electron pushes in exactly the opposite direction. So if you follow this rule, you will find that the magnetic field points towards the north.

The direction of the magnetic field is towards the North. This can be

determined using the right hand rule by Fleming.

The right hand rule states that to determine the direction of the magnetic

force, the right thumb should be pointed in in the direction of the velocity,

index finger in the direction of the magnetic field and middle finger in the

direction of magnetic force.

When this is applied, we will discover that the index finger will point towards

the north region.

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Answer:

Helium atoms compared to nitrogen atoms are moving faster and have a greater kinetic energy.

Explanation:

The molecular velocity of a gas at room temperature is inverse proportional to the square root of its molecular mass.

The greater the molecular mass of the gas the lesser the average speed of its molecules. Comparing the molecular masses of nitrogen and helium, helium is found to have a lower molecular mass and a corresponding greater velocity.

Hence helium moves faster than nitrogen and has a higher kinetic energy than nitrogen

Answer:

Option b: 16.6 cm.

Explanation:

The position of the mass at 2.50 s can be found using the simple harmonic motion equation:

[tex] x_{t} = Acos(\omega t) [/tex]

Where:

A: is the amplitude = 17.5 cm

ω: is the angular frequency = 2πf

t = 2.50 s

[tex] x_{t} = Acos(\omega t) = 17.5cos(2\pi*8.38*2.50) = 16.6 cm [/tex]

Therefore, the correct answer is option b: 16.6 cm.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

Hello the options to your question is missing below are the options

2 x 10^8 ft-lb

15527950 ft-lb

2.8 x 10^7 ft-lb

13.55 x 10^7 ft-lb

Answer : 13.55 * 10^7 ft-Ib

Explanation:

Given data :

weight of Aircraft (p) = 20000 Ibs

height ( h ) = 5000 ft

Velocity = 200 KTS  = 370 km/h ( 10277 m/s) where 1 KTS = 1185 km/h

calculate the total energy

Total energy = potential energy + kinetic energy

potential energy = mgh = p * h =20000 * 5000 = 100 * 10^6 ft-Ibs

kinetic energy = 1/2 mv^2 = 1/2 * 625 * (33709)^2 = 3551 *10^6 ft-Ibs

where ; m = p/g = 20000 / 32 = 625 Ibs

             v = 10277 m/s ≈ 33709 ft/s

hence total energy = 100 * 10^6 + 3551 * 10^6 = 1355*10^7 ft-Ibs

Answer:

the direction of angular momentum = EAST

Explanation:

given

Direction of position = r = north

Direction of velocity = v = up

angular momentum = L = m(r x v)

where m is the mass, r is the radius, v is the velocity

utilizing the right hand rule, the right finger heading towards the course of position vector and curl them toward direction of velocity, at that point stretch thumb will show the bearing of the angular momentum.

then L = north x up = East

Answer:

The speed at which the magnet falls through the copper block will be reduced dramatically.

Explanation:

Eddy's current are loops of electrical current induced within conductors by a changing magnetic field in the conductor. Eddy's current is proportional to the the magnetic field strength, the rate of change of flux, the area of the loop, and is inversely proportional to the resistivity of the material. Eddy currents flows perpendicularly to the magnetic field, and in closed loops within conductors.

Reducing the resistivity of the copper will increase the Eddy current on the copper, which will in turn increase the opposition to the action producing the flux change (the falling magnet through the copper block). The result is that the speed at which the magnet falls through the copper block will be reduced dramatically.

Answer:

It becomes wider

Explanation:

Because The bigger the object the wave interacts with, the more spread there is in the interference pattern. Decreasing the size of the opening increases the spread in the pattern.

Answer:

4.41 m/s^2

Explanation:

(v_f)^2 - (v_i)^2 = 2a * change in distance

(21)^2 - (0)^2 = 2a * 50

a = (21^2)/(2*50)

a = 4.41 m/s^2