Estimate the radiation pressure due to a bulb that emits 25 W of EM radiation at a distance of 6.5 cm from the center of the bulb. Assume that light is completely absorbed.

Answer:

t = 27.5

Explanation:

[tex]3 + 5 -220t = 0[/tex]

Well to solve for t we need to combine like terms and seperate t.

So 3+5= 8

8 - 220t = 0

We do +220 to both sides

8 = 220t

And now we divide 220 by 8 which is 27.5

Hence, t = 27.5

Answer:

Please see below as the answer is self-explanatory.

Explanation:

The low band of the VHF TV Spectrum, spans channels 2-6, from 54 to 88 Mhz.

In the analog TV, in the Americas, the total bandwidth of any channel is 6 Mhz, with the visual carrier modulated in VSS (Vestigial Side Band) at 1.25 Mhz from the lowest frequency of the channel.

The aural carrier is located at 4.5 Mhz from the visual carrier, and is FM modulated.

For Channel 6, which spans between 82 and  88 Mhz, the visual carrier is at 83.25 Mhz, so the aural carrier is at 87.75 Mhz, which falls within the FM Band, so it is possible to listen the audio part of this channel in a FM radio receiver, even at a lower volume, due to the FM radio has a greater deviation than TV aural carrier.

The reason why it is possible for TV station to sometimes pick up some of the audio portion on your FM radio receiver is because; TV waves can sometimes deviate into the FM radio frequency range.

Let us start with explaining the waves of TV and radio.

The frequency range utilized by TV stations is either the range 54 MHz to 88 MHz or 174 MHz to 222 MHz. In contrast, the frequency range utilized by FM Radio band is between 88 MHz and 174 MHz.

Now, in some cases, it is possible that the TV signal may deviate into the range of the FM Radio and as such in that case, the TV signal will pick the audio portion of an FM Radio. These TV waves are very high frequency waves.

Finally, it does not imply that the TV wave is broadcasting as an FM because it only deviated a bit from the TV range and not like that is where it is made to operate.

Read more about TV waves at; https://brainly.com/question/9684913

Answer:

T = 2689.6N

Explanation:

Considering the situation, one can say that torque due to tension in the spine is counter balanced by the torque due to weight of upper part of the body and the weight of the object. Hence, the tension force is acting at an angle of 12 degree

while both weight are acting perpendicular to the length. Hence we have :

Torque ( clockwise) = Torque ( anticlockwise)

m1g (L/2)+ m2g(L) = Tsin 12(2L/3)........1

Where m1 = 36kg

m2 = 20kg

g = 9.81m/s^2

Theta = 12

Substituting into equation 1

36(9.81) * (L/2)+20(9.81)(L) = Tsin12(2L/3)

353.16L/2+196.2L = T ×0.2079(2L/3)

176.58L+196.2L = T × 0.1386L

372.78L = 0.1386LT

T = 372.78L/0.1386L

T = 2689.6N

Answer:

500 nm, 530 nm, 650 nm

Explanation:

Let's say that there is diffraction grating observed with a slit spacing of s. Respectively we must determine the angle θ which will help us determine the 3 wavelengths ( λ ) of the light emitted by element X. This can be done applying the following formulas,

s( sin θ ) = m [tex]*[/tex] λ, such that y = L( tan θ ) - where y = positioning, or the distance of the first - order maxima, and L = constant, of 77 cm

Now the grating has a slit spacing of -

s = 1 / N = 1 / 1200 = 0.833 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻³ mm

The diffraction angles of the " positionings " should thus be -

θ = tan⁻¹ [tex]*[/tex] ( 0.58 / 0.77 ) = 37°,

θ = tan⁻¹ [tex]*[/tex] ( 0.654 / 0.77 ) = 40°,

θ = tan⁻¹ [tex]*[/tex] ( 0.945 / 0.77 ) = 51°

The wavelengths of these three bright fringes should thus be calculated through the formula : λ = s( sin θ ) -

λ = 0.833 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻³ [tex]*[/tex] sin( 37° ) = ( 500 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻⁹ m )

λ = 0.833 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻³ [tex]*[/tex] sin( 40° ) = ( 530 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻⁹ m )

λ = 0.833 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻³ [tex]*[/tex] sin( 51° ) = ( 650 [tex]*[/tex] 10⁻⁹ m )

Wavelengths : 500 nm, 530 nm, 650 nm

This question will be solved using the "grating equation".

The wavelengths of the light emitted by element X are:

"1. 6.654 x 10⁻⁷ m = 665.4 nm

2. 6.349 x 10⁻⁷ m = 634.9 nm

3. 5.262 x 10⁻⁷ m = 526.2 nm"

The diffraction grating equation is given as follows:

[tex]m\lambda = d Sin\ \theta[/tex]

where,

m = order of maxima = 1

λ = wavelength of light = ?

d = grating element = [tex]\frac{1}{no.\ of\ slits\ per\ unit\ length} = \frac{1}{1200\ slits/mm}[/tex]

d =  (8.33 x 10⁻⁴ mm/slit)(1 m/ 1000 mm) = 8.33 x 10⁻⁷ m/slit

θ = angle of diffraction = [tex]tan^{-1}(\frac{L}{y})[/tex]

where,

L = distance of grating from the screen = 77 cm

y = distance of maxima from central maxima

Hence, the general equation after substituting constant values becomes:

[tex]\lambda = (8.33\ x\ 10^{-7}\ m/slits)\ Sin(tan^{-1}(\frac{77\ cm}{y}))[/tex]

FOR y = 58 cm:

[tex]\lambda = (8.33\ x\ 10^{-7}\ m/slits)\ Sin(tan^{-1}(\frac{77\ cm}{58\ cm}))[/tex]

λ = 6.654 x 10⁻⁷ m = 665.4 nm

FOR y = 65.4 cm:

[tex]\lambda = (8.33\ x\ 10^{-7}\ m/slits)\ Sin(tan^{-1}(\frac{77\ cm}{65.4\ cm}))[/tex]

λ = 6.349 x 10⁻⁷ m = 634.9 nm

FOR y = 94.5 cm:

[tex]\lambda = (8.33\ x\ 10^{-7}\ m/slits)\ Sin(tan^{-1}(\frac{77\ cm}{94.5\ cm}))[/tex]

λ = 5.262 x 10⁻⁷ m = 526.2 nm

The attached picture shows the arrangement of the light rays in a diffraction grating.

Learn more about diffraction grating here:

https://brainly.com/question/17012571?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

The critical angle is [tex]\theta _c = 62.57^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  index of refraction of the glass in the fiber is [tex]n_f = 1.69[/tex]

     The index of refraction of the glass in the cladding is [tex]n_c = 1.50[/tex]

The critical angle is mathematically evaluated as

       [tex]\theta_c = sin^{-1}[\frac{n_c }{n_f } ][/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\theta_c = sin^{-1}[\frac{1.50 }{1.69 } ][/tex]

       [tex]\theta _c = 62.57^o[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

let the coil of length l and breathe b entering the magnetic field B with speed v.

So, the magnetic flux through the coil is

Ф = B(l×b)

length × breathe = area

Ф = BA

dФ = BdA

therefore induced emf is given as

ε = [tex]Bl(\frac{db}{dt})[/tex]

note: [tex]\frac{db}{dt} = v[/tex]

ε[tex]= Blv[/tex]

attached is the diagram for the solution

Answer:

You got it right, didn't you?

c) vector C

Explanation:

opposite to vector V

Answer:

A, vector B

Explanation:

A negative vector is a vector which points in the opposite direction, even though it’s in a different quadranot it’s still the opposite direction.

Answer:

D) Photography can be used to both control and benefit society.

Explanation:

High-resolution satellite imagery and diagnostic positron emission tomography (PET scans) have been used to both control and benefits the society in the sense that it has helped to take records of information of crime, traffic offenders such drunk drivers and over speeding drivers, e.t.c. it helps control by given their information and automatically penalizing them or ensuring the agency penalized them and also benefit the society by preventing people from committing crime thereby, protecting them from offenders.

Answer:

Carbon analysis of bones and teeth will give insight to the types of plant material the hominin consumed.

Explanation:

This is because carbon being the principal composition of plants, analysis of the teeth's and bones for carbon will give an insight of what the homini n consumed

Answer:

Explanation:

radius of aorta = 1.5 cm

cross sectional area = π r²

= 3.14 x 1.5²

= 7.065 cm²

volume of blood flowing out per second out of heart

= a x v , a is cross sectional area , v is velocity of flow

= 7.065 x 11.2

= 79.128 cm³

heart beat per second = 67 / 60

= 1.116666

If V be the volume of heart

1.116666 V = 79.128

V = 70.86 cm³.

Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

The set up is a compound microscope. The converging lens is the objective lens while the diverging lens is the eyepiece lens.

In compound microscopes, the distance between the two lenses is expressed as L = v0+ue

v0 is the image distance of the objective lens and ue is the object distance of the eye piece lens.

Befre we can get the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens (ve), we need to get ue first.

Given L = 18.0cm

Using the lens formula to get v0 where u0 = 12.0cm and f0 = 7.40cm

1/f0 = 1/u0+1/v0

f0 and u0 are the focal length and object distance of the converging lens (objective lens)respectively.

1/v0 = 1/7.4-1/12

1/v0 = 0.1351-0.0833

1/v0 = 0.0518

v0 = 1/0.2184

v0 = 19.31cm

Note that v0 = ue = 19.31cm

To get ve, we will use the lens formula 1/fe = 1/ue+1/ve

1/ve = 1/fe-1/ue

Given ue = 19.31cm and fe = -7.00cm

1/ve = -1/7.0-1/19.31

1/ve = -0.1429-0.0518

1/ve = -0.1947

ve = 1/-0.1947

ve = -5.14cm

Hence, the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens is 5.14cm to the lens

b) Magnification of the final image M = ve/ue

M = 5.14/19.31

M = 0.27

Magnification of the final image is 0.27

Answer:

[similar to]

Explanation:

it is the missing word

Answer:

   K_A = 32.2 10⁶ J

Explanation:

In this exercise we must relate the quantities given to find the kinetic energy

Asteroid A data

              m_A = 3.5 m_B

               v_A = 2.0 v

they also give the value of the kinetic energy of asteroid A

              K_B = 2.3 10⁶ J

the expression for scientific energy is

               K = ½ m v²

let's replace

              K_A = ½ m_a V_a2

               K_A = ½ 3.5 m_B (2.0 v_B)^2

                K_A = 3.5 2² (½ m_B v_B²)

                K_A = 14 K_B

               K_A = 32.2 10⁶ J

Answer:

B) the particle's momentum.

Explanation:

We know that

The centripetal force  on the particle when its moving in the radius R and velocity V

[tex]F_c=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

The magnetic force on the particle when the its moving with velocity V in the magnetic filed B and having charge q

[tex]F_m=q\times V\times B[/tex]

At the equilibrium condition

[tex]F_m=F_c[/tex]

[tex]q\times V\times B=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

[tex]R=\dfrac{m\times V}{q\times B}[/tex]

Momentum = m V

Therefore we can say that the radius of curvature is directly proportional to the particle momentum.

B) the particle's momentum.

Answer:

λ = 5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m = 520 nm

Explanation:

From Young's Double Slit Experiment, we know the following formula for the distance between consecutive bright fringes:

Δx = λL/d

where,

Δx = fringe spacing = distance of 1st bright fringe from center = 0.00322 m

L = Distance between slits and screen = 3.1 m

d = Separation between slits = 0.0005 m

λ = wavelength of light = ?

Therefore,

0.00322 m = λ(3.1 m)/(0.0005 m)

λ = (0.00322 m)(0.0005 m)/(3.1 m)

λ = 5.2 x 10⁻⁷ m = 520 nm

Answer:

D. There are drilling platforms all along the coast that are used to drill for natural gas that can be used to generate electricity

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because the sun will not run out. The power plant uses water, so it is also a renewable resource. Windmills use wind, and wind will not run out so it is a renewable resource. However, natural gas and oil are not renewable resources because they will run out one day.

Answer:

The induced  emf is  [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The number of turns is  [tex]N = 1300 \ turns[/tex]

    The diameter is  [tex]d = 2.2 \ cm = 2.2*10^{-2}[/tex]

     The initial magnetic field is  [tex]B_i = 0.14 \ T[/tex]

      The final magnetic field is  [tex]B_f = 0 \ T[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]dt = 9.0ms = 9.0*10^{-3} \ s[/tex]

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]r = \frac{d}{2 }[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{2.2 *10^{-2}}{2 }[/tex]

     [tex]r = 1.1*10^{-2} \ m[/tex]

The induced emf is mathematically represented as

    [tex]\epsilon =- N * \frac{d\phi }{dt }[/tex]

Where  [tex]d\phi[/tex] is the change in magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]d\phi = dB * A * cos\theta[/tex]

=>   [tex]d\phi = [B_f - B_i ] * A * cos\theta[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta = 0[/tex] given that the axis of the coil is parallel to the field

Also A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]A = 3.142 * [1.1*10^{-2}]^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 3.8 *10^{-4] \ m^2[/tex]

So

    [tex]d\phi = [0 - 0.14 ] * 3.8*10^{-4}[/tex]

    [tex]d\phi = -5.32*10^{-5} \ weber[/tex]

So  

     [tex]\epsilon =- 1300 * \frac{-5.32*10^{-5} }{ 9.0*10^{-3} }[/tex]

    [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

Trial 1: 2 Volts, 0 %

Trial 2: 2.8 Volts, 0%

Trial 3: 4 Volts, 0 %

Explanation:

Th experimental values are given in the table, while the theoretical value can be found by using Ohm/s Law:

V = IR

TRIAL 1:

V = IR

V = (0.1 A)(20 Ω)

V = 2 volts

% Difference = [tex]|\frac{Theoretical Value - Exprimental Value}{Theoretical Value}|[/tex] x 100%

% Difference = |(2 - 2)/2| x 100%

% Difference = 0 %

TRIAL 2:

V = IR

V = (0.14 A)(20 Ω)

V = 2.8 volts

% Difference = [tex]|\frac{Theoretical Value - Exprimental Value}{Theoretical Value}|[/tex] x 100%

% Difference = |(2.8 - 2.8)/2.8| x 100%

% Difference = 0 %

TRIAL 3:

V = IR

V = (0.2 A)(20 Ω)

V = 4 volts

% Difference = [tex]|\frac{Theoretical Value - Exprimental Value}{Theoretical Value}|[/tex] x 100%

% Difference = |(4 - 4)/4| x 100%

% Difference = 0 %

Answer:

The  magnetic field is  [tex]B = 0.0764 \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

    The mass of the metal is  [tex]m = 0.210 \ kg[/tex]

     The current is  [tex]I = 11.0 \ A[/tex]

      The distance between the rail(length of the rod ) is  [tex]d = 0.490 \ m[/tex]

      The coefficient of kinetic friction is  [tex]\mu_k = 0.200[/tex]

Generally the magnetic force is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_b = B * I * d[/tex]

Given that the rod is moving at a constant velocity, it

=>    [tex]F_b = F_k[/tex]

Where [tex]F_k[/tex] is the kinetic frictional force which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]F_k = \mu_k * m * g[/tex]

So

    [tex]B * I * d = \mu_k * m * g[/tex]

=>   [tex]B = \frac{\mu_k * m * g}{I * d }[/tex]

substituting values

=>   [tex]B = \frac{0.200 * 0.210 * 9.8 }{ 11 * 0.490 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]B = 0.0764 \ T[/tex]

Answer:

1.32 is the turns ratio

Explanation:

Note that The transformer steps up the voltage from 12000 V to 390000V

12000 V is the primary and in the secondary it is 390000 V in old transformer

If n₁ be no of turns in primary coil and n₂ be no of turns in secondary coils

the formula is

n₂ / n₁ = voltage in secondry / voltage in primary

n₂ / n₁ = 390000 / 12000

ratio of turns in old transformer is 32.5

ratio of turns in new transformer

n₃ / n₁ = 515 / 12 ( n₃ is no of turns in the secondary of new transformer )

= 42.9

T he ratio of turns in the new secondary compared with the old secondary

n₃ / n₂ = 42.9 / 32.5

= 1.32

Answer:

Q = 590,940 J

Explanation:

Given:

Specific heat (c) = 1.75 J/(g⋅°C)

Mass(m) = 2.01 kg = 2,010

Change in temperature (ΔT) = 191 - 23 = 168°C

Find:

Heat required (Q)

Computation:

Q = mcΔT

Q = (2,010)(1.75)(168)

Q = 590,940 J

Q = 590.94 kJ

Answer:

a

  [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

b

  [tex]M = 6[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

          The mass of the rock is  [tex]m_r = 200 \ kg[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the rock is  [tex]d = 2 \ m[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the branch [tex]l = 12 \ m[/tex]

An image representing this lever set-up is shown on the first uploaded image

Here the small object acts as a fulcrum

The  force exerted by the weight of the rock is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]W = m_r * g[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]W = 200 * 9.8[/tex]

     [tex]W = 1960 \ N[/tex]

 So  at  equilibrium the sum  of the moment about the fulcrum is mathematically represented as

         [tex]\sum M_f = F * cos \theta * l - W cos\theta * d = 0[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta[/tex] is very small so  [tex]cos\theta * l = l[/tex]

                               and  [tex]cos\theta * d = d[/tex]

Hence

       [tex]F * l - W * d = 0[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = \frac{W * d}{l}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]F = \frac{1960 * 2}{12}[/tex]

       [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

The  mechanical advantage is mathematically evaluated as

          [tex]M = \frac{W}{F}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]M = \frac{1960}{326.7}[/tex]

       [tex]M = 6[/tex]

Answer:

Wavelength is 4.8x10^-7m

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

8.33` m/s^2 and 8333.3 N

Explanation:

a) acceleration:

ā=v^2/r

ā=(15m/s)^2/27m

ā=225/27 m/s^2

ā=8.333 m/s^2

force:

F=mā. where the is equal to v^2/r

F=1000kg*8.3 m/s^2

F=8333.3 N

Answer:

8.33` m/s^2 and 8333.3 N

Explanation:

Answer:

The work done by gravity during the roll is 490.6 J

Explanation:

The work (W) is:

[tex] W = F*d [/tex]

Where:

F: is the force

d: is the displacement = 20 m

The force is equal to the weight (W) in the x component:

[tex]F = W_{x} = mgsin(\theta)[/tex]

Where:

m: is the mass of the bowling ball = 5 kg

g: is the gravity = 9.81 m/s²    

θ: is the degree angle to the horizontal = 30°        

[tex]F = mgsin(\theta) = 5 kg*9.81 m/s^{2}*sin(30) = 24.53 N[/tex]    

Now, we can find the work:

[tex]W = F*d = 24.53 N*20 m = 490.6 J[/tex]      

Therefore, the work done by gravity during the roll is 490.6 J.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

The speed of the electron is 6.79 x 10⁵ m/s

The radius of the circular path is 1.357 x 10⁻⁵ m

Explanation:

Given;

magnetic field, B = 0.285 T

energy of electron, E = 2.10 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

The kinetic energy of the electron is calculated as;

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2[/tex]

Where;

[tex]m_e[/tex] is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

V is the speed of the electron

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} m_eV^2\\\\V^2 = \frac{2.K.E}{m_e} \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m_e} } \\\\V = \sqrt{\frac{2*(2.1*10^{-19})}{9.11*10^{-31}} }\\\\V = 6.79 *10^{5} \ m/s[/tex]

The radius of the circular path is given by;

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB}[/tex]

where;

q is the charge of the electron = 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

[tex]R = \frac{M_eV}{qB} \\\\R = \frac{9.11 *10^{-31}*6.79 *10^{5}}{1.6*10^{-19}*0.285} \\\\R = 1.357 *10^{-5} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The distance is [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

       The order of maximum diffraction is  m =  2

         The wavelength is   [tex]\lambda = 775 nm = 775 * 10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

         The angle is  [tex]\theta = 62.5^o[/tex]

Generally the   condition for  constructive  interference for diffraction grating  is mathematically represented as

          [tex]dsin \theta = m * \lambda[/tex]

where  d is  the distance between the lines on a  diffraction grating

     So  

            [tex]d = \frac{m * \lambda }{sin (\theta )}[/tex]

substituting values  

           [tex]d = \frac{2 * 775 *1^{-9} }{sin ( 62.5 )}[/tex]

          [tex]d = 1.747 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]

Answer:

14.29 turns.

Explanation:

From the question,

Ns/Np = Ip/Is........................ Equation 1

Where Ns = Secondary turn, Np = Primary turn, Is = current flowing in the secondary turn, Ip = current flowing in the primary turn.

Make Ns the subject of the equation

Ns = NpIp/Is.................... Equation 2

Given: Np = 100 turns, Ip = 2.0 A, Is = 14 A.

Substitute these values into equation 2

Ns = 100(2.0)/14

Ns = 14.29 turns.