work cell at Chris Ellis Commercial Laundry has a workstation with two​ machines, and each unit produced at the station needs to be processed by both of the machines.​ (The same unit cannot be worked on by both machines​ simultaneously.) Each machine has a production capacity of 5 units per hour. The throughput time of the work cell=nothing minutes per unit ​(enter your response as a whole​ number).
What is the process time of the work cell in minutes per unit?

Answer:

$31,310.35

Explanation:

Face value = 2,000,000

Semiannual interest = 2,000,000 *0.015 * 6/12= 15,000

Semiannual yield = 3.9*6/12= 1.95%

Semiannual months = 10*2= 20

Issue price =[PVA 1.95%,20 * Interest] + [PVF 1.95%,20 * Face value]

Issue price = [16.43061*15,000]+ [ .67960* 2,000,000]

Issue price = 246459.10+ 1,359,200

Issue price = $1,605,659.10

The amount of interest expense to be recorded on July 1, 2020 (the first interest payment = Issued price * Semi annual yield

= $1,605,659.10 * 1.95%

=$1,605,659.10 * 1.95%

=$31,310.35

Thus, the amount of $31,310.35 will be recorded as the interest expense on July 1, 2020

Answer:

$12,000

Explanation:

Margin of safety = Current sales level - Break even point

=(8,000 ×12) - (7,000 × 12)

= 96,000 - 84,000

= $12,000

Answer:

The correct answer is C.

Explanation:

The variable costing method incorporates all variable production costs (direct material, direct labor, and variable overhead).

We need to calculate the net operating income:

Sales= 120,000*40= 4,800,000

Total variable cost= (20 + 10)*120,000= (3,600,000)

Total contribution margin= 1,200,000

Fixed manufacturing costs= (600,000)

Fixed operating (nonmanufacturing) costs= (400,000)

Net operating income= 200,000

Answer:

1. $1,250,000

2. $750,000

3. Forecasted contribution margin income statement for 2018

Sales                                                    $ 1,000,000

Variable costs                                       ($400,000 )

Contribution margin                              $600,000

Fixed costs ($250,000  + $200,000)  ($450,000)

Net Income /( loss)                                 $150,000    

Sales to meet target profit (dollars) = $1,083,333

4. Forecasted contribution margin income statement

Sales                                                      $1,083,333

Variable costs                                       ($400,000 )

Contribution margin                               $683,333

Fixed costs ($250,000  + $200,000)  ($450,000)

Net Income /( loss)                                 $233,333

Explanation:

Break even point is the level of activity where a firm neither makes a profit nor a loss.

Break-even point in dollar sales = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution Margin Ratio

Where, Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution margin ÷ Sales

                                                        = $200,000 ÷ $ 1,000,000

                                                        = 0.20

Thus, Break-even point in dollar sales = $250,000 ÷ 0.20

                                                               = $1,250,000

Predicted break-even point in dollar sales for year 2018

New Contribution Margin :

Sales                                                        $ 1,000,000

Less Variable Cost $800,000 × 50%     ($400,000)

New Contribution Margin                         $600,000

New Contribution Margin Ratio

New Contribution Margin Ratio =   $600,000 ÷ $ 1,000,000

                                                    =   0.60

New Break-even point in dollar sales

Break-even point in dollar sales = ($250,000 + $200,000) ÷ 0.60

                                                     = $750,000

Sales to meet target profit = (Fixed Cost + Target Profit) ÷ Contribution Margin Ratio

                                            = ($450,000 + $200,000) ÷ 0.60

                                            = $1,083,333

Forecasted contribution margin income statement

Sales                                                      $1,083,333

Variable costs                                       ($400,000 )

Contribution margin                               $683,333

Fixed costs ($250,000  + $200,000)  ($450,000)

Net Income /( loss)                                 $233,333

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

For computing the amount of safety time required for protecting a specific path we need to subtract the total of safety time in order to protect the individual activities who are making the path so that the path should be secure, safe and protected

Hence, the given statement is true

Therefore the correct option is a. True

Answer: True

Explanation:

Marginal benefit is the maximum amount that a consumer will be willing to pay for an extra product. It should be known that as consumption rises, the marginal benefit starts reducing.

The marginal cost is the extra cost that a producer incurs when an extra unit of a product is made. Economic decisions made by economic agents are typically based on marginal as it'll be possible to know the impact of an extra decision made on a variable.

Therefore, it is better to evaluate economic decisions at the marginal, where the decision has to be made as long as its marginal benefit exceeds its marginal cost, if not equal to its marginal cost.

Answer:

$3400.03

Explanation:

The balance one in one year would be the future value of the annuity

The formula for calculating future value of an annuity = A / [B / (r/m) ]

B = [(1 + r/m)^nm] - 1

FV = Future value  

P = Present value of annuity  = $50

R = interest rate  = 5%

N = number of years  = 1

m = number of compounding per year

[(1 + 0.004167)^60] - 1 = 0.283359

$50 x (0.283359 / 0.004167) = $3400.03

Answer:

a. Beck Inc. = 5.00  and Bryant Inc. = 2.50

b. Beck Inc. =  $100,000 and 100%  : Bryant Inc. =  $150,000 and 50 %

c. True.

Explanation:

Degree of Operating Leverage shows,  the times Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT) would change as a result of a change in Sales contribution.

Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution ÷ EBIT

Thus,

Beck Inc = $500,000 ÷ $100,000

              = 5.00

Bryant Inc. = $750,000 ÷ $300,000

                 = 2.50

If Sales increased by 20% the effects on Incomes would be :

Beck Inc = 20% × 5.00

              = 100%

              = $100,000 × 100%

              = $100,000

Bryant Inc.=  20% × 2.50

              =  50 %

              =  $300,000 × 50 %

              =  $150,000

Answer:

$2.64 per units

Explanation:

The computation of the cost per equivalent unit of material is shown below:

Cost per equivalent unit is

= (Beginning conversion cost + cost incurred during October) ÷ (Total equivalent units)

= ($99,700 + $939,300) ÷ (390,000 units  + (40,000 units × 10%))

= $1,039,000 ÷ 394,000 units

= $2.64 per units

We simply applied the above formula

Answer:

155,000

Explanation:

The computation of the required units of production is shown below:-

Required units of production = Sales units + Ending finished goods - Beginning finished goods

= 160,000 units + 15,000 units - 20,000  units

= 155,000

Therefore for computing the required units of production we simply applied the above formula.

Answer: neither Colin's concept nor his process.

Explanation:

The Copyright law in the United States is a a law that gives monopoly protection to the original works of an author. The copyright law was put in place in order to prevent people from copying the works of other people.

In this case, we are told that Colin thinks of a new concept for a palm-sized computer notebook and also thinks of a new, faster process for producing the notebooks. Therefore based on the explanation given above, the Federal copyright law protects neither Colin's concept nor his process.

Answer:

A. They might also compete to make riskier loans, potentially imperiling the safety of the banking system.

Explanation:

Banks may compete to make riskier loans if they had to pay higher interest rates, which might jeopardize the stability of the banking system. As a result, choice (A) is the appropriate response.

A loan is an act of one or more people, businesses, or other entities lending money to other people, businesses, or other entities. The recipient, or borrower, incurs a debt and is often responsible for both the main amount borrowed as well as interest payments on the debt until it is repaid.

The promissory note or equivalent document used to prove the debt will typically include information such as the principal borrowed amount, the interest rate being charged by the lender, and the due date. The subject asset is temporarily reallocated between the borrower and the lender as part of a loan.

The payment of interest encourages the lender to make the loan.

Hence, option (A) is accurate.

Learn more about loans, from:

brainly.com/question/11794123

#SPJ2

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

In simple words, The seller must have intention of making the offer. These are determined first from offeree 's place that there is intention to make an bid. When a fair person in the offerer 's position assumes that the terms or acts of the offeror represent an offer, that is an bid. It is an empirical, and not a moral, criterion for deciding that there is an desire to accept an bid.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is B .

Answer: false

Explanation:

Annuity due is an annuity whereby the payment is normally due at the beginning of every period which can be annually, semi annually, monthly, or quarterly. Examples of payments with annuity due include rents and, leases.

In ordinary annuity, the main difference is that the payments have to be made at the end of every period.

It should be noted that the present value of an annuity due is typically worth more when it is compared to the present value of ordinary annuity.

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr, $10,400

             To Sales $10,000

              To Sales taxes payable $400

(Being the cash is recorded)

Here we debited the cash as  it increased the assets and we credited the sales and sales tax payable as  it increased the sales and the liabilities

2. Cost of goods sold Dr, $5,000

                 To Merchandise inventory $5,000

(Being cost of goods sold is recorded)

Here we debited the cost of goods sold as it increased the expenses and we credited the merchandise inventory as  it reduced the assets

3. Unearned services revenue Dr, $50,000

              To Earned services revenue $50,000

(Being unearned service revenue is recorded)

Here we debited the unearned service revenue as it decreased the liabilities  and we credited the earned service revenue as it increased the revenue

Answer:

February 1 Issues 4,100 shares of no-par common stock for $16 per share.

Dr Cash 65,600

    Cr Common stock 65,600

May 15 Issues 200 shares of $10 par value, 3% preferred stock for $13 per share.

Dr Cash 2,600

    Cr Preferred stock 2,000

    Cr Additional paid in capital - preferred stock 600

October 1 Declares a cash dividend of $0.30 per share to all stockholders of record

Dr Retained earnings 1,290

    Cr Preferred stock dividends payable 60

    Cr Common stock dividends payable 1,230

October 15 October 15 Date of record.

No journal entry required.

October 31 Pays the cash dividend declared on October 1.

Dr Preferred stock dividends payable 60

Dr Common stock dividends payable 1,230

    Cr Cash 1,290

Answer:

1. Increasing

2. A. The elasticity of private saving with respect to the after-tax real interest rate

B. The response of private saving to changes in the government budget deficit

C. The elasticity of investment with respect to the interest rate

Explanation:

1. It is difficult to implement both of these policies at the same time because reducing taxes on private spending has the effect of Increasing the government budget deficit.

A Government budget deficit is acquired when the government spends more than it earns. The Government earns money from taxes and if it spends more than it receives in taxes, that will lead to a deficit. If taxes on Private spending are reduced, this will lead to less tax revenue for the government thereby increasing the Deficit.

2. All of the listed options are useful in determining which policy would be a more effective way to raise investment.

The elasticity of private saving with respect to the after-tax real interest rate refers to how much private saving changes in reaction to a change in the tax rates. This can enable one decide how much investment will be expected if the Government reduces or increases taxes.

The response of private saving to changes in the government budget deficit is also a useful factor to look at because private savings reduce when government deficits reduce.

Also how much does investment change by due to interest rates. This will be important to note in terms of Private Investment to see if it will be beneficial to use it over reducing the government budget deficit given a certain interest rate.

Answer: high cost and risk

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that the CEO of Jamil Circuits is unhappy with the firm's choice of wholly owned subsidiaries as the mode of foreign entry and that hee has pointed out a number of disadvantages to this mode.

A disadvantage of wholly owned subsidiaries as a mode of entry into foreign markets is high costs and risks. A lot of risk is involved which may hinder the success of the business.

Answer:

3.22%

Explanation:

we must first determine the yield to maturity of both bonds in order to determine their before tax cost of debt:

YTM = {coupon + [(face value - market value)/n]} / [(face value + market value)/2]

YTM Bond₁ = {19.10 + [(1,000 - 1,030)/12]} / [(1,000 + 1,030)/2] = 16.6 / 1,015 = 0.01635 x 2 = 3.27%

YTM Bond₂ = {32.95 + [(1,000 - 1,070)/28]} / [(1,000 + 1,070)/2] = 0.0294 x 2 = 5.88%

firm's weighted after tax cost of debt = {[($5.2 / $14.7) x 3.27%] x (1 - 0.35)} + {[($9.5 / $14.7) x 5.88%] x (1 - 0.35)} = 0.75% + 2.47% = 3.22%

Answer:

1. $12,000 is the amount of the loss that will clear the basis limitation

2.Remaining loss of the amount of $10,000 will be put on hold

Explanation:

Calculation of How much of the loss clears the basis limitation and what is the treatment of the remaining loss

Based on the information given his adjusted basis in S corporation stock was the amount of $12,000 which means that the amount of $12,000 will be the amount of the loss that will clear the basis limitation

Secondly since his share of S corporation losses was the amount of $22,000 which means that the remaining loss will be $10,000($22,000-$12,000).

Based on this the remaining loss of the amount of $10,000 will be put on hold and can be carried forward at unspecified period of time while the amount of $12,000 may be deducted in the current year.

Answer:

$340,500

Explanation:

From the above information, the below data are given;

Purchase discounts $5,600, freight in $7,800, purchases 350,000, beginning inventory $23,500, closing inventory $28,800, purchase returns and allowance $6,400

Therefore, using the periodic system,

Cost of goods sold .

Cost of goods sold using the periodic system is computed by adding beginning inventory and cost of goods purchased( purchases plus freight in minus purchases return minus purchases discount) and then subtracting ending inventory.

= $23,500 + ($350,000 +$7,800 - $6,400 -$5,600) - $28,800

= $340,500

Answer:

Sole proprietorship

Explanation:

The sole proprietor is a single owner of a business. He bears the loss of From the business alone and also enjoys gains from the business alone. There is no distinction between the business and it's owner. Such a business is easy to form and dismantle because the government has no involvement in it.

From the question since Andrews business was dissolved when he because there was no plan for control after his death, this signifies a sole proprietorship.

Answer:

Option 2. Product costs may be inaccurate because support department services may be used more heavily by some products than others.

Explanation:

Option 1 is not a misguide about this approach as all the depreciation costs are considered as general or administration expenses.

Option 3 is incorrect because cost drivers of cost pools are always accurate, they can not be used inaccurately while using Activity Based Costing.

Option 4 is also incorrect because direct costs are prime cost which are easily attributable to products and in this scenario, the indirect costs are considered inappropriate to be assigned to the product cost.

Option 2 is correct because considering support department costs to be facility-level costs would result in inappropriate cost allocations to some products as a single appropriate basis would be used to allocate the support department services cost to each product. This means if appropriate basis is not chosen correctly then this would result in inaccurate allocation as some of the products will be using the support services heavily than others.

Answer:  d. 185.4

Explanation:

x1 = The time to make the product which is 5 hours

x2 = the number of different materials used which is 4

x3 = the amount spent on marketing the product  which is $100

The Regression equation is given as;

y = [tex]83 - 2x_{1} + 0.6x_{2} + 1.1x_{3}[/tex]

Cost = 83 - 2(5) + 0.6(4) + 1.1 (100)

Cost = 83 - 10 + 2.4 + 110

Cost = 185.4

Answer:

M = 3

Explanation:

The first withdrawal takes place 1 - M/12 months until the end of the year. The second withdrawal takes place 2M/12 months before the end of the year.

$315,000 = ($300,000 x 1.16) - {$15,000 x [1 + 0.16(1 - M/12)]} - {$15,000 x [1 + 0.16(2M/12)]}

$315,000 = $348,000 - [$15,000 x (1.16 - 0.16M/12)] - [$15,000 x (1 + 0.32M/12)]

$315,000 = $348,000 - $17,400+ 200M - $15,000 - 400M

$315,000 = $315,600 - 200M

200M = $315,600 - $315,000 = $600

M = 600 / 200 = 3

Answer:

Option “A” is the assumption of perfect competition while options B, C, and D are not the assumption of perfect competition.

Explanation:

Option A, is the assumption of perfect competition because, in the perfect competition, the industry decides the price with the help of market forces demand and supply. Moreover, this determined price is followed by firms in the industry. While the other options are not assumed in perfect competition because there are a large number of firms that can be seen in perfect competition and these firms sell homogeneous goods. Furthermore, the firms are free to enter and exit the market.

The following assumption are made under perfect competition:

The following assumption are not made under perfect competition:

Perfect competition is a market where there are many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. There are no barriers to the entry or exit of firms into the market. An example of perfect competition is the market for apples. All apples are identical and there are many farmers who sell apples.

The market price of goods in a perfect competition is set by the market forces. So, buyers and sellers are price takers. They take the price as determined by the market forces. There is perfect information in a perfect competition.

To learn more, please check: https://brainly.com/question/3355398

Answer:

COGS= $880,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning inventory= $45,000

Ending inventory= $35,000

Total Purchase= 870,000

To calculate the cost of goods sold (COGS), we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods purchased - ending finished inventory

COGS= 45,000 + 870,000 - 35,000

COGS= $880,000

Answer:

a. The entry that the parent makes to record the investment

Investment in Subsidiary $50,000 (debit)

Common Stocks $50,000 (credit)

b. Consolidation Entries

Common Stock (Subsidiary) $15,000 (debit)

Retained Earnings (Subsidiary) $35,000 (debit)

Investment in Subsidiary $50,000 (credit)

Explanation:

The entry that the parent makes to record the investment

Investment in Subsidiary $50,000 (debit)

Common Stocks $50,000 (credit)

Recognize the Investment in Subsidiary and recognize the Equity element : Common Stocks

Consolidation Entries

Common Stock (Subsidiary) $15,000 (debit)

Retained Earnings (Subsidiary) $35,000 (debit)

Investment in Subsidiary $50,000 (credit)

Eliminate Common Items and recognize Goodwill or Gain on Bargain  Purchase if any.

probably a relativist

Answer:

$10,000 in 20X1 and $0 in 20X2

Explanation:

Pink is allocated $10,000 ($40,000 x 25%) of income in 20X1. In 20X2, Pink is allocated $0 income, as distributions are generally NOT taxable if they do not exceed basis