a nurse is providing teaching to a client who's being discharged after delivering a hydatidiform mole. which expected outcome takes highest priority for this client?
Answer:
The expected outcome that takes highest priority for this client is that they understand the importance of follow-up appointments.
Explanation:
We know this is the answer because, although a mole can be dangerous, it is not life-threatening and so the client's understanding of the importance of follow-up appointments is more important than anything else.
when planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (cp), what is important for the nurse to consider?
When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
What is cerebral palsy?Cerebral palsy is a group of conditions that are characterized by the fact that the individual is unable to maintain movement and balance of his/her own body.
In conclusion, When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP), it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
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associated factors with uremic pruritus in chronic hemodialysis patients: a single-center observational study
A person whose kidneys are not functioning correctly undergoes hemodialysis, also known as Hemodialysis or simply dialysis, to filter their blood.
The median post-dialysis recovery time (DRT) for people receiving conventional HD is normally between two and four hours, with about 25% reporting a recovery time of more than six hours.
While patients taking a daily or nightly dose of HD report a noticeably quicker recovery time, 6,7.
What is Chronic hemodialysis ?Children with chronic renal failure are treated with hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis on an ongoing basis. Children who have consumed certain toxins (poisons) that need to be immediately eliminated from the body are also treated with acute hemodialysis.
Although patients should expect to remain on dialysis for 5 to 10 years on average, many have successfully maintained their health for 20 or even 30 years. Consult your medical staff for advice on how to look after your health while undergoing dialysis.
According to research by Montaseri et al., HD patients have overall 1-, 2-, 3-, and 5-year survival rates of 75%, 63%, 50%, and 23%, respectively. [8] Additionally, Beladi Mousavi et al. revealed that patient survival rates were 89.2%, 69.2%, and 46.8%, respectively, at 1, 3, and 5 years.
What is Uremic pruritus ?Up to half of all ESRD patients on dialysis develop the common and painful symptom known as uremic pruritus (UP)1,2. It is frequently defined as the recurrence of itch on a regular or almost daily basis without the presence of main dermatologic symptoms.
Uraemia-related disorders (especially those involving the metabolism of calcium, phosphorus, and parathyroid hormones), the buildup of uraemic toxins, systemic inflammation, cutaneous xerosis, and common co-morbidities such diabetes mellitus and viral hepatitis are possible triggers.
For severe uraemic pruritus that has not responded to traditional therapies, UVB phototherapy is the basis of treatment. Other therapies that have reportedly been effective for some patients include: modest doses of pregabalin with gabapentin (e.g. 100–300 mg gabapentin, three times weekly) Nalfurafine (opioid agonist)
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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.
Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.
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a client who is homeless and diagnosed with bipolar disorder presents to the clinic for a follow-up visit and a nurse begins the assessment. which observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention?
POSSIBLE OBSERVATIONS:
1. Having a great mood: manic or hypomanic state
2. Depression
3. Irritability
4. Impulsiveness or erratic behavior
5. Rapid or slowed speech
6. Alcohol or drug abuse
7. Trouble at work
8. Racing thoughts
9. Memory or concentration problems:
10. Severe fatigue
11. Insomnia and sleep problems
observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention
are severe fatigue, Rapid or slowed speech
Explanation:
WHAT IS BIPOLAR DISORDER?
Manic depression, formerly known as bipolar disorder, is a mental health illness that results in sharp mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania), and lows (depression).
HUDDEN CLIENT:
According to numerous studies, one-third of those who are homeless suffer from a severe mental disease, most frequently schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. Homeless women and those who experience chronic homelessness are more likely to suffer from mental illness.
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the nurse is admitting a client who just had a bronchoscopy. which assessment should be the nurse's priority?
The assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is Swallow reflex
Swallow reflex is a healthcare process which aids to propel swallowing food bolus from the oral cavity to the esophagus without aspiration of food into the airways.
BronchoscopyIn the healthcare management, bronchoscopy is one of the procedures or technique which is used to view the airways deep inside respiratory system.
This bronchoscopy is usually, frequently and most of the time carried out in order to diagnose health conditions within the respiratory system and for therapeutic purposes
So therefore, the assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is swallow reflex
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a nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin ethylsuccinate 50 mg/kg/day po divided in equal doses every 6 hr to a toddler who weighs 32 lb. available is erythromycin ethylsuccinate suspension 200 mg/5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 4.5 ml per dose.
What is erythromycin ethyl succinate?
A prescription drug called erythromycin ethyl succinate is used to treat the symptoms of numerous bacterial infections. You can use erythromycin ethyl succinate by itself or in combination with other drugs. The medicine Erythromycin Ethyl succinate is a member of the Macrolide drug class.
Here,
According t the given data given in the question:
2.2 lb/kg x 32 lb = 14.54kg
50 mg/kg x 14.54 kg = 727.27mg
727.27 mg / 4 (Q6H) = 181.81 mg
200 mg/5ml x 181.81 mg = 4.54 mL
Therefore, the answer is 4.54 ml.
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a 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. they have intensified, and she now misses classes and work periodically as a result. the headaches occur about 4-6 times per month recently, up from 1-2 per month when she first started experiencing them. her headaches last 2-3 days and are accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and light sensitivity. after the headache resolves, she denies any residual symptoms. she denies neurologic symptoms, such as vision or taste changes, gait disturbances, and memory loss. she has tried multiple over-the-counter pain medications without relief. her mother and maternal aunt experienced similar headaches. she reports some increased stressors and less sleep since recently starting college.
A 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. Treatment approach should include providing treatment for acute headache, some prophylactic treatments, such as administration of topiramate.
what is throbbing headaches ?A throbbing headache is a common medical condition where blood rushes to the affected area of the head and Throbbing results from the dilation of the blood vessels from the increased blood flow.
Throbbing is a pulsing sensation which can come and go quickly in a frequent manner, some headaches can be a serious which causes stroke, a brain tumor, or meningitis, so that important to consult with a doctor if you have regular or painful headaches
Some important headaches are Occipital neuralgia which is a condition results from damaged nerves from the spinal cord to the scalp, a sharp, aching, or throbbing pain that starts at the base of the head and moves toward the scalp.
Throbbing headache can also arise at top of head where migraines can cause nausea, vomiting, or increased sensitivity to light or sound.
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to therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
The nurse must identify personal feelings about child abusers first.
Intervention in child maltreatment includes, for instance, the investigation of child abuse reports by state child protection agencies, clinical treatment of physical and psychological injuries, family counseling, self-help services, the provision of goods and services like homemaker or respite care, legal action against the perpetrator, and removing the child or the offender from the home.
Some people consider these therapy efforts to be a sort of tertiary prevention since they frequently aim to avoid more instances of child abuse as well as to lessen the detrimental effects of those events on children and their families.
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Question correction:
To therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
1 Develop a trusting relationship with the child.
2 Identify personal feelings about child abusers.
3 Recognize the emotional needs of the parents.
4 Gather information about the child's home environment
what are some self disclosures to that a counselor would not disclose to a client
Answer:
when practitioners discuss their own personal problems and hardships with their clients with no clinical rationale or purpose
Explanation:
unfractionated heparin tid dosing regimen is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism when compared to bid dosing in patients undergoing craniotomy
When compared to bid dosage, unfractionated heparin TID dosing to patients having craniotomies is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
Background:
The post-operative history of individuals who have had a craniotomy may be complicated by pulmonary embolism (PE). Unfractionated heparin (UFH) prophylaxis has been demonstrated to lower VTE rates; however, twice-daily (BID) and three-times-daily (TID) UFH dose regimens have not been contrasted in neurosurgical procedures.
Methods:
For 159 patients at Northwestern, a retrospective evaluation of their medical records was done. While controlling for age at surgery, sex, prior VTE history, craniotomy for tumor resection, surgery duration, length of stay, reoperation, infections, and IDH/MGMT mutations, general linear regression models were used to predict rates of DVT, PE, and reoperation due to bleeding from UFH dosing regimens.
Results:
In comparison to getting UFH BID, receiving UFH TID was significantly related with a decreased risk of PE ( = -0.121, P = 0.044; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 10.6%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID also shown a tendency for reduced DVT rates ( = -0.0893, P = 0.295; TID rate = 18.5%, BID rate = 21.2%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID revealed no discernible difference in the rate of reoperation for bleeding ( = -0.00623, P = 0.725; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 0.8%).
Conclusions:
Unfractionated heparin administered to individuals undergoing craniotomies on a daily basis as opposed to a weekly one is linked to a lower risk of pulmonary embolism.
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a client with bladder cancer is receiving cisplatin and vincristine. the nurse plans care, knowing that which is the purpose of administering both of these medications?
When cells start making up the urinary bladder start to grow out of control is called Bladder cancer.
The bladder is a hollow organ in the lower pelvis. Its main function is to store urine.
What is Bladder cancer?
Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC) is also known as Urothelial carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer.Other types of bladder cancer can start in the bladder, but these are not common than Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC).Most bladder starts in the innermost lining of bladder.However, cancer might spread outside the bladder too.To learn more about Bladder cancer
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Which of the following is a part of contact precautions
Answer:
I don't see any options I can choose from. However, key components of contact precautions include patient placement, equipment management, patient transport, and visitor management.
Explanation:
while assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. what is indicated by this finding? select all that apply.
The finding indicates that the client is an (2) older adult, has (4) history of smoking, and has a (5) chronic lung disease.
Anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, measured from front to back, is less than the width of the chest measured from side to side (transverse diameter) No obvious abnormalities, such as a barrel chest, kyphosis, or scoliosis, should be present on the chest.
A barrel-shaped chest is indicated by the 1:1 ratio of the anteroposterior diameter to the transverse diameter of the chest. This is a defining trait of an elderly smoker with chronic lung disease. The lumbar curvature increases with lordosis.
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Question correction:
While assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. What is indicated by this finding? Select all that apply.
Client has lordosisClient is an older adultClient has osteoporosisClient has a history of smokingClient has chronic lung diseasethe nurse is providing teaching to a client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. the nurse should explain to the client that which is true about this disorder?
The nurse should teach the client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder that the disorder is a mix of psychotic and mood disorder symptoms.
Schizoaffective disorder is a disorder consisting of varying symptoms like hallucinations, confusion, depression, etc. All the symptoms can either occur simultaneously or at different times. The treatment included is a combination of medications as well as therapy.
Mood disorder is the state of mind when the moods of a person are highly inconsistent. The person can become, angry or irritating at even the smallest thing. There are alterations of depressed and happy state. Bipolar disorder, Dysthymia, etc. are types of mood disorders.
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he nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. which would be an expected finding for this client?
Compression of the cord is an expected finding for the client.
When the feet or the bottom of the baby are within the uterus, the baby is said to be breech. During a vaginal delivery, a baby should be positioned such that the head comes out first. By 36 weeks, most breech infants will flip to face forward. While some breech infants can be delivered vaginally, a C-section is often advised.
After the membranes have ruptured, the cord may prolapse, and the pressure of the presenting portion may compress the chord, causing fetal hypoxia. A breech presentation does not increase the risk of bleeding or preeclampsia over a cephalic presentation.
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Question correction:
A nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. For what complication should the
nurse monitor the client?
Hemorrhagic shockIncreased blood pressureCompression of the cordMeconium in the amniotic fluidan emergency department nurse understands that a 110-lb (50-kg) recent stroke victim will receive at least the minimum dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa). what minimum dose will the client receive?
A stroke is a cerebrovascular event brought on by a disruption in the blood supply. A patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
What is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?A recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) is the medication used for a person suffering from a stroke. It is a protein and prevents the formation of blood clots in the circulatory or another organ system.
It is found on the endothelial cells of the blood vessels and converts the plasminogen to plasmin protein to break the blood particle accumulation. A 50 kg person suffering from a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) must be administered 45 mg of t-pa.
Therefore, the patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
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association of first primary cancer with risk of subsequent primary cancer among survivors of adult-onset cancers in the united states
The number of cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise, although there are few thorough studies on the likelihood that survivors of adult-onset cancers would get successive primary cancers (SPCs).
standardized incidence ratio (SIR) and standardized mortality ratio (SMR) of SPCs per 10,000 person-years in comparison to those anticipated in the general population.Several primary cancer types were significantly related with increased risk of acquiring and dying from an SPC among adult-onset cancer survivors in the United States when compared to the general population. Significant parts of the overall SPC incidence and death across all survivors were attributable to cancers linked to smoking or obesity, underscoring the significance of continuous surveillance and initiatives to stop new cancers among survivors.Cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise.
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safiejko k, tarkowski r, koselak m, et al. robotic-assisted vs. standard laparoscopic surgery for rectal cancer resection: a systematic review and meta-analysis of 19,731 patients. cancers (basel). 2021;14(1):180.
In patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer, robotic-assisted surgery is anticipated to provide benefits over the traditional laparoscopic technique.
What is robotic-assisted surgery?
Robotic surgery, also known as robot-assisted surgery, enables medical professionals to carry out a variety of intricate treatments with greater accuracy, adaptability, and control than is feasible with traditional methods. Robotic surgery is frequently related to minimally invasive surgery, which involves operations done through small incisions.
It may also be employed sometimes during various types of open surgery. Compared to traditional approaches, surgeons who utilize the robotic system report that it improves precision, flexibility, and control throughout the surgery and gives them a better view of the spot.
Surgeons may carry out delicate and intricate treatments using robotic surgery that could be challenging or impossible with traditional techniques.
Therefore, Patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer are predicted to benefit more from robotic-assisted surgery than from the traditional laparoscopic technique.
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a client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?
If the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer. The nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: b. Fear.
What is nerve-sparing prostatectomy?Nerve-sparing prostatectomy can be defined as a surgery carried out by a surgeon in which a patient prostate is removed and this procedure is done so as to prevent prostate cancer which can be deadly.
Fear occur when a person is anxious, scared or frightening about known and unknown issues or situation.
Based on the scenario the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is fear based on the fact that the patient is scared or afraid to carryout the surgery which is why the client does not want to talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery.
Therefore the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: Fear.
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The complete question is:
A client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. The emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?
A) Sexual Dysfunction
B) Fear
C) Knowledge Deficit
D) Ineffective Coping
As a veterinarian, if you suspect an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, whom should you contact?
Answer:
Possibly, an expert vet, or a person who can heal and knows what to do in that situation.
If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency.
If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency. This could be the state or federal fish and wildlife agency, or the state or federal department of agriculture.
These organizations have the expertise and resources to investigate and address the outbreak, and may work in partnership with veterinarians to conduct diagnostic testing, implement disease control measures, and provide guidance on managing the outbreak.
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which measure would the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan for a multiparous client who gave birth 24 hours ago and is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy for cystitis?
Emptying the bladder in every 2 to 4 hours while awake would be a way that the nurse could anticipate the problem.
What is cystitis?
It's an infection or inflammation of the urinary tract, including the bladder, brought on by a kind of bacterium known as Escherichia coli (E. coli). Urge to urinate, blood in urine, and burning during urination are the results of this.
A technique for the nurse to foresee the issue would be to have the patient empty their bladder every two to four hours while they are awake.
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a client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. which action is a priority nursing intervention?
A client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. monitoring for signs of bleeding is the priority nursing intervention.
Tissue Plasminogen activator:It is a thrombolytic. symptomatic and systemic hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication.
Tissue Plasminogen activator is an enzyme which is useful to treat diseases which includes heart attack, strokes and blood clots ,etc.
It is one type of glyco-protien which produced mainly a vascular endothelial cells.
The side effects of tissue Plasminogen activator includes headache, bleeding from the wound, paralysis, difficulties in breathing and swallowing, etc.
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent . it is also referred to as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Alteplase converts plasminogen to the proteolytic enzyme plasmin, which lyses fibrin as well as fibrinogen.
What is blood clots?Blood clots are gel-like thick collections of blood that form in your veins or arteries when blood changes from liquid to partially solid.
A blood clot is also called a thrombus.
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which behaviors would the nurse expect the client to do during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship
The nurse would expect the client would do insight and incorporate alternative behaviors during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship.
What does therapeutic relationship mean?The relationship between a healthcare provider and a client or patient is referred to as a therapeutic relationship. It is the way a therapist and a client intend to interact and bring about positive change in the client.
There is a distinct beginning and finish to the therapeutic relationship. It advances via the aforementioned four stages: commitment, process, change, and termination.
What is a good therapeutic relationship?Mutual regard, trust, and concern. general agreement over the therapy's objectives and tasks. Cooperative decision-making. Participation of both parties in "the job" of the therapy. the capability of discussing "here-and-now" elements of one's relationships with others.
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a patient is diagnosed with dementia. there has been an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (csf) volume, but no increase in intracranial pressure. what type of hydrocephalus is this patient demonstrating?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is the type of hydrocephalus is the patient demonstrating which is caused by increased CSF volume but no increase in intracranial pressure.
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is an abnormal buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the cavities or ventricles of the brain. It occurs when the CSF is unable to pass properly through the brain and spinal cord.
As a result, the ventricles enlarge and push against the brain. Normal pressure hydrocephalus can afflict people of any age, although it most usually affects the elderly. A subarachnoid hemorrhage, a concussion, an infection, a tumor, or issues following surgery might all cause it.
However, many people get NPH even without any of these risk factors. In certain cases, the underlying cause of the condition is unknown.
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which behavior by a preschool child indicates to the nurse that the child is in the appropriate stage of growth and development?
The behaviour related to creative play study, indicate to the nurse that the child is in appropriate stage of growth and development.
Preschool can inspire a lot of creativity. Drama, music, dance, art, and craft are all excellent learning and development tools during these formative years.
Creative study have following benefits to the prescholars.
cultivate your creativity and imaginationcreate confidence and improve in expressing emotionsexchange ideas, opinions, or experiences.enhance hand-eye coordination, and motor skills in the body. Practice making decisions, solving problems, and exercising critical thought.To know more about motor skills, refer this link
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operative report preoperative diagnosis:prolapsed vitreous in anterior chamber with corneal edema postoperative diagnosis:same operation performed:anterior vitrectomy the patient is a 72-year-old woman who approximately 10 months ago underwent cataract surgery with a yag laser capsulotomy, developed corneal edema and required a corneal transplant. the patient has done well. over the last few weeks, she developed posterior vitreous detachment with vitreous prolapse to the opening in the posterior capsule with vitreous into the anterior chamber with corneal touch and adhesion to the graft host junction and early corneal edema. the patient is admitted for anterior vitrectomy. procedure: the patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner after first undergoing retrobulbar anesthetic. a lid speculum was inserted. an incision was made at approximately the 10 o’clock meridian 3 mm in length, 2 mm posterior to the limbus, and grooved forward into clear cornea with a 3.2 mm anterior chamber. an anterior vitrectomy was carried out, placing a visco-elastic substance in the anterior chamber to maintain it. a sinskey hook was used to sweep vitreous away from the corneal wound and this was removed with the disposable vitrectomy instrument. the patient’s pupil is noted to be round. there was no vitreous to the wound. the wound self-sealed without aqueous leak. cautery was used to close the conjunctiva. subconjunctival decadron and gentamicin was given. the patient tolerated the procedure well and was discharged to the recovery room in good condition. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?
The surgical diagnostic or diagnoses given to the patient prior to the surgical procedure are documented in the surgical operation note pre-operative diagnosis and serve as the justification for the surgery. According to the surgeon, the preoperative diagnosis is the one that will be verified during operation.
What is Preoperative diagnosis ?The period of time between the decision to have surgery and the start of the surgical procedure is known as the preoperative phase.
What is conjunctiva ?infection or inflammation of the inner eyelid and the outer ocular membrane.
Pink eye, also known as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation or irritation of the conjunctiva, which covers the white portion of the eye. Allergies or a bacterial or viral illness may be to blame. Contact with eye secretions from an infected person can spread conjunctivitis, which can be quite contagious.
Redness, itchiness, and eye tears are symptoms. Additionally, it may cause crusting or discharge around the eyes.If you have conjunctivitis, you should cease wearing contact lenses. Although it frequently gets well on its own, therapy might hasten the healing process. Antihistamines are effective in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis. Antibiotic eye drops can be used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis.What is Retrobulbar anesthetic ?A retrobulbar block is a regional anesthetic nerve block that is administered in the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. The retrobulbar block is created by injecting local anesthetic into this region.
This method involves injecting local anesthetic into the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. By immobilizing cranial nerves II, III, and VI, this injection causes akinesia of the extraocular muscles and stops movement of the glob.
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a nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 500 mg im to a client. the nurse reconstitutes a 500 mg vial of cefazolin powder to obtain a final concentration of cefazolin 330 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 1.51ml(rounding off 2 ml)
In many different areas of the body, cefazolin is used to treat bacterial infections. In order to avoid infections, this medication is also administered before to several types of surgery. Cefazolin is a member of the cephalosporin antibiotics drug class. It functions by eradicating germs or stopping their development.By attaching to penicillin-binding proteins, cefazolin prevents the creation of the cell wall, which halts the production of peptidoglycans. Bacterial proteins called penicillin-binding proteins aid in catalyzing the last steps of peptidoglycan production, which is necessary to preserve the cell wall.It is therapeutically efficient against infections brought on by gram-positive staphylococci and streptococci species.To know more about cephalosporin visit:
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a client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. which measure should the nurse suggest to help alleviate this problem?
A client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. The measure the nurse should suggest to alleviate this problem is to use extra pillows.
Fetus is the offspring of an organism that grows inside the womb of the female. It is the stage after the embryo is developed. The stage begins after 8 weeks of fertilization and ends at the time of parturition.
Diaphragm is the muscle that majorly helps in respiration and also supports the lungs from below in the thoracic cavity. Upon inhalation, the muscle contracts, while it relaxes during exhalation.
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the nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community. which aspect is this addressing? context education resources time pressure
Clinical judgment is the ability to recognize a problem through evaluation, to pay attention to the patient (patient contact), and to act in the patient's best interests.
What is a clinical judgment model?A methodology for the precise assessment of clinical judgment and decision-making in the context of a high-stakes, standardized test.
Practice, experience, information, and ongoing critical analysis all contribute to the development of clinical judgment.
It encompasses all aspect of medicine, including diagnosis, treatment, communication, and decision-making.
Therefore, A clinical judgment model involves the gradual accumulation of knowledge and skills.
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