The finding indicates that the client is an (2) older adult, has (4) history of smoking, and has a (5) chronic lung disease.
Anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, measured from front to back, is less than the width of the chest measured from side to side (transverse diameter) No obvious abnormalities, such as a barrel chest, kyphosis, or scoliosis, should be present on the chest.
A barrel-shaped chest is indicated by the 1:1 ratio of the anteroposterior diameter to the transverse diameter of the chest. This is a defining trait of an elderly smoker with chronic lung disease. The lumbar curvature increases with lordosis.
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Question correction:
While assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. What is indicated by this finding? Select all that apply.
Client has lordosisClient is an older adultClient has osteoporosisClient has a history of smokingClient has chronic lung diseaseWhat would the nurse expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis?.
The nurse is expected to hear Friction rub when auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis.
Pleural friction rub on auscultation is a non-musical, brief explosive sound that has been compared to walking on fresh snow and is described as cracking or grating. The noise could be sporadic or constant.
The lining of your lungs and chest are both affected by the medical disorder pleuritis. The lining may swell up or irritate. When too much fluid gathers in the "pleural gap," this occurs. It is typical for there to be a small quantity of fluid in the area. Pleural surfaces that are inflamed due to pleuritis lose their natural lubrication and rub against one another while breathing. Reduced pleural fluid volume causes an increase in the transmission of lung sounds and could result in a friction burn. Reduced breath sounds, which occur when there is minimal airflow in and out, may be a sign of a blockage. With bronchitis, sibilant wheezes are frequently heard; stridor happens with severe broncholaryngospasms, like croup. Stridor is characterized by a loud, high-pitched crowing that is indicative of an obstructed upper airway, such as an epiglottis or other disorders.
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after teaching a group of students about the signs and symptoms of breast cancer, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the group identifies which sign?
The correct answer for this question is Breast symmetry
A painless lump in the breast is the main indicator of breast cancer. A bloody flow from the nipple, dimpling of the skin over the lesion, retraction of the nipple, a peau d'orange (orange peel) aspect of the skin, and an imbalance in breast size are other indicators of breast cancer.
Men are much less likely than women to develop breast cancer.
Breast lumps, bloody nipple discharge, and changes in the nipple's or breast's shape or texture are all indications of breast cancer.
The cancer's stage affects the course of treatment. Chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery might be used.
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What are the top three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records?.
The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
Communication SkillsProject Management ExperienceTechnical ProficiencyWhat are the skills about?The new graduate’s ability to have a good communication skills is vital because it make sure that your EHR implementation is well-handle as well as been organized.
Project Management Experience is one which a person uses in their EHR implementation team to know the technical as well as clinical areas of EHR implementation.
Therefore, The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
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a novel 2-week wait lung cancer pathway starting with a telephone consultation, with patient satisfaction survey results.
A novel 2-week wait lung cancer pathway starting with a telephone consultation, with patient satisfaction survey results from the first 111 patients showed high satisfaction of about 93% of the telephonic consultation.
The survey was performed in May 2018 in a collaboration with local general practitioners (GP). GP first examined computed tomography (CT) of the chest or abdomen and blood tests simultaneously. The patients were provided telephonic appointments with respiratory consultants.
After taking the history of the patient and results from CT and blood tests, the patients were examined further. If the patient was found fine after a lung cancer diagnosis, he stood reassured and discharged.
The patients with some comorbidities were then sent for a face-to-face consultation and further examine the fitness level.
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the scene is safe, you've turned on the aed and it prompts you to attach the pads. choose the best answer for correct pad placement on a 10 year old child cardiac arrest victim.
Place one pad on the upper right side of the chest and the other pad on the lower left side of the chest
What is Cardiac Arrest?Cardiac arrest is the sudden loss of heart function in a person who may or may not have heart disease. It could arise out of nowhere or after other symptoms.
Cardiac arrest frequently leads to mortality if the appropriate measures are not immediately taken.
More than 356,000 cardiac arrests occur in the United States each year outside of hospitals.
If the appropriate steps aren’t immediately done in a cardiac arrest, death could occur quickly. Cardiac arrest may be reversible if CPR is administered, and a defibrillator shocks the heart and restores a normal heart rhythm within a few minutes.
What is an AED?An AED, or automated external defibrillator, is used to help someone who is experiencing a sudden cardiac arrest.
A defibrillator is a piece of cutting-edge but user-friendly medical technology that can analyze the heart’s rhythm and, if necessary, deliver an electrical shock to help the heart regain an effective rhythm.
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a health care team is involved in caring for a client with advanced alzheimer's disease. during a team conference, a newly hired nurse indicates that she has never cared for a client with advanced alzheimer's disease. which key point about the disease should the charge nurse include when teaching this nurse?
Clients with Alzheimer's disease are at high risk for injury because of their impaired memory and poor judgment is the key point about the disease should the charge nurse include when teaching this nurse.
The charge nurse should explain to the incoming nurse that patients with Alzheimer's disease have poor judgment and memory problems, which puts them at high risk for damage. It is most important to keep the area secure.
Families have a significant role in the client care team, but they shouldn't be counted on to provide care. In order to protect the patient's safety, family members may alternate sitting with the hospitalized patient. Every method should be described in clear, understandable words for the client.
Although they should be taken as directed, medications rarely help symptoms. Instead, they halt the spread of the illness.
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Question correction:
A health care team is involved in caring for a client with advanced Alzheimer's disease. During a team conference, a newly hired nurse indicates that she has never cared for a client with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Which key point about the disease should the charge nurse include when teaching this nurse?
The nursing staff should rely on the family to assist with care because family members know the client best.As long as the client receives the ordered medication, special care measures aren't necessary.Alzheimer's disease affects memory so the client doesn't need an explanation before procedures are performed.Clients with Alzheimer's disease are at high risk for injury because of their impaired memory and poor judgment.a nurse has just inserted a peripheral iv catheter for a continuous infusion. to secure the catheter, the nurse should
The nurse should leave the connection between the hub and the tubing uncovered to secure the catheter.
In patients who are hospitalized, peripheral intravenous catheters (PIVC) are the most widely utilized intravenous device. They are typically employed for therapeutic purposes, including the administration of drugs, the administration of fluids and/or blood products, and the collection of blood.
A peripheral venous catheter is a tool for blood collection and administration of medications, intravenous fluids, and blood transfusions. Usually in the foot, lower arm, or back of the hand, a small, flexible tube is introduced into a vein. To take blood samples or provide fluids, a needle is placed into a port.
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Question correction:
A nurse has just inserted a peripheral catheter for a continuous infusion. To secure the catheter, the nurse should?
leave the connection between the hub and the tubing uncovered
wrap tape around the circumference of the pts arm
tape the IV catheter’s hub securely to the pt. skin
place a piece of paper tape over the insertion site
a nurse is conducting a parenting class on infant skin care. what information should the nurse include when preparing materials on the characteristics of the skin of infants? select all that apply.
Parenting classes on newborn skin care are being taught by a nurse. The nurse should include information such as the fact that newborns' skin is thinner and more delicate than adults' materials are quickly absorbed when preparing materials on their qualities.
Compared to adult skin, infant skin is more sensitive and more vulnerable to damage from the sun. Infant skin has a significantly thinner epidermis than adult skin, and it doesn't get thicker until late in puberty. Infants have a hard time controlling their body temperature since their sweat glands are still developing at birth. As the baby gets older, the sweat glands develop.
Weight, length, head circumference, and vital signs are all parameters that should be part of a thorough newborn nursing examination. Beginning with a general observation of the infant's appearance, including posture, movement, color, and breathing, the examination should proceed. Focused examinations of the newborn soon after delivery aid in identifying grave anomalies that require rapid intervention. They concentrate on thermoregulation, the existence of abnormalities, and the cardiorespiratory condition. When the baby is stabilized, an assessment that is more thorough is made.
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englot dj, magill st, han sj, chang ef, berger ms, mcdermott mw. seizures in supratentorial meningioma: a systematic review and meta-analysis. j neurosurg. 2016 jun;124(6):1552-61. doi: 10.3171/2015.4.jns142742. epub 2015 dec 4. pmid: 26636386; pmcid: pmc4889504.
Seizures in Supratentorial Meningioma
The most frequent benign cerebral tumor is a meningioma, and individuals with supratentorial meningiomas usually experience convulsions. Even when compared to other types of brain tumors, meningioma patients' seizure rates and predictors have received very little research. An essential objective is to develop better methods for predicting, managing, and preventing seizures in meningioma patients because these seizures have a major negative influence on patients' quality of life.
Prevention methods: The incidence of pre- and postoperative seizures in supratentorial meningioma were examined, along with putative predictors of seizures using independent meta-analyses, in a systematic review of publications published in PubMed between January 1980 and September 2014.
Results: 39 observational case series were chosen by the authors for the study, but no controlled trials were found. Preoperative seizures were noted in 29.2% of 4709 patients with supratentorial meningioma, and male sex, the absence of a headache, peritumoral edema, and non-skull base placement were strongly associated with their occurrence. 12.3% of patients who had resection among 1085 people without preoperative epilepsy experienced new postoperative episodes.
Conclusion: Seizure independence is a crucial treatment objective since supratentorial meningioma frequently causes seizures, especially in tumors connected to cerebral edema. Resection can effectively manage seizures, but there is little evidence to suggest that people without seizures should routinely take prophylactic anticonvulsants.
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What does the medulla of the ovaries contain?
Answer:
Neurovascular structures
Explanation:
Mostly blood vessels and nerves
why should the nurse lower the enema container from the iv pole to the level of the buttocks after instilling the tubing into the client’s rectum?
Lower the container once the solution has been injected so that it can flow back into it. Once the patient has expelled the flatus and the abdominal distention has subsided, repeat the procedure several times. For the local impact they have on the rectal mucosa, medicated enemas may be administered.
What about enema?The rectum, or bottom portion of the large intestine, is where liquid or gas are inserted during an enema. The purpose is to allow for an examination, empty the bowels, or deliver medication. While an enema can be helpful in the treatment of some medical disorders, frequent usage of one might have detrimental effects on one's health.An enema, commonly referred to as a clyster, is a procedure in which fluid is injected into the lower bowel via the rectum. The term "enema" can also apply to the substance injected as well as the tool used to deliver the injection.Enemas are fluid injections used to clear your bowels or to encourage it to empty. Constipation and other comparable conditions have been treated with this treatment for many years. Stool movement is slowed down by constipation, a serious ailment. Additionally, it makes stools hard and challenging to pass.Learn more about enema here:
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quality-of-life outcomes and toxic effects among patients with cancers of the uterus treated with stereotactic pelvic adjuvant radiation therapy
When a patient has uterine cancer, adjuvant radiation is crucial in lowering locoregional recurrence.
Hypo-fractionated radiotherapy has not been investigated prospectively or in randomized trials for the treatment of uterine cancers, and the associated toxic effects and patient quality of life are unknown. Nevertheless, it may benefit health care systems and the global community while reducing the burden of treatment for patients traveling for daily radiotherapy.For repeated assessments on the quality-of-life scales, univariate generalized linear mixed models were created.In order to do a descriptive analysis, proportions for categorical variables and continuous variables' means, SDs, medians, IQRs, and ranges were calculated.According to the findings of this phase 1/2 nonrandomized controlled study, stereotactic hypo-fractionated radiation for the treatment of uterine cancer was well tolerated at short-term follow-up. Future randomized studies and a longer period of follow-up are required to assess this treatment further.A lot of quality-of-life outcomes and toxic effects among patients with cancers of the uterus treated with stereotactic pelvic adjuvant radiation therapy were observed.
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) incipient lesions involve subsurface demineralization, which appears as a white area with no breakthrough to the enamel surface. b) untreated incipient lesions are not visible by observation and are regular to gentle application of the side of an explorer tip or blunt probe.
The answers include the following:
a) Incipient lesions involve subsurface demineralization, which appears as a white area with no breakthrough to the the enamel surface is referred to as a true statement.
b) Untreated incipient lesions are not visible by observation and are regular to gentle application of the side of an explorer tip or blunt probe is referred to as a false statement.
What is Incipient lesion?Thus is a condition which is common in the oral cavity as a result of continual exposure to bacterial acids in the mouth which thereby demineralizes the tooth enamel. This forms tooth decay and the areas where they are present at an early stage is also referred to as incipient lesions.
They are are visible by observation as they are characterized by white area present in the region.
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county health rankings: relationships between determinant factors and health outcomes. am j prev med. 2016;50(2):129-135. doi:10.1016/j.amepre.2015.08.024
The article offers a framework for allocating funding for health-related projects and issues a challenge to healthcare professionals and the institutions that train them. The social and economic determinants of health must be addressed in order to achieve the largest changes in population health.
Briefly explain about county health rankings.For practically every county in the United States, the County Health Rankings (CHR) provides data on four categories of modifiable health determinants, including healthy behaviors, clinical care, physical environment, socioeconomic conditions, and health outcomes, including duration and quality of life.The purpose of this study was to objectively evaluate the strength of the link between these health determinants and health outcomes and to describe the performance of the CHR model factor weightings by state.In total, socioeconomic determinants, health behaviors, clinical care, and the physical environment accounted for 47%, 34%, 16%, and 3% of the composite score for health outcomes, respectively.These results provide strong empirical support for the weightings and CHR model, despite the fact that the CHR model performed better in some states than others.To learn more about determinants of health visit:
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the nurse knows that the patient who is being treated in the emergency room for traumatic injury should also be evaluated for which other comorbidities? (select all that apply.)
Suici/dality, depression, posttraumatic stress disorder, drug, and alcohol use are the other comorbidities.
Traumatic injury continues to be a significant global public health issue and is linked to significant loss of life and health. The American Association for the Surgery of Trauma estimates that traumas cause more than three million nonfatal injuries and more than 150,000 fatalities annually in the United States.
Elderly people frequently experience trauma, which is associated with high mortality. This is partly because of their advanced age, but it is further complicated by other factors including the severity of the injury, previous comorbidities, and poor first general assessments.
There will be an increase in preexisting conditions in trauma victims as the population ages and medical treatment advances.
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the nurse is discussing disorders of the hematopoietic system when a client asked about erythrocytosis. what disease will the nurse mention with a primary characteristic of erythrocytosis?
According to the research, the correct option is Polycythemia Vera. The nurse will mention Polycythemia Vera as a primary characteristic of erythrocytosis.
What is erythrocytosis?It is a syndrome or clonal disorder characterized by manifesting symptoms of hyperviscosity due to an abnormal increase in red blood cells. Those who suffer from it present a reddish cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes.
In this sense, it can be congenital or acquired (polycythemia vera) which is the chronic myeloproliferative syndrome characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of the erythropoietic lineage.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Polycythemia Vera. The nurse will mention Polycythemia Vera as a primary characteristic of erythrocytosis.
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menter rr, bach j, brown dj, et al. a review of the respiratory management of a patient with high level tetraplegia. spinal cord 1997; 35: 805–808.
Tetraplegia is one of the most severe forms of paralysis.
The term which refers to paralysis in the upper and lower body is known as Tetraplegia.
what is tetraplegia?
Tetraplegia affects all four limbs, and it also affects parts of the chest, abdomen, and back.Tetraplegia affects different parts of the body depending on the person.Due to damage to a different area of the brain or spinal cord paralysis occurs.A person with tetraplegia experiences paralysis in all four of limbs and experience tiredness and a partial loss of function.This will impact a person by causing paralysis and loosing of mobility.To learn more about tetraplegia?
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which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy
The advice that the nurse will give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy is B. Rotate injection sites.
Which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy?The trauma of repeated injections at the same place might lead to fibrous scar formation. Exercise has no effect on lipodystrophy, although it lowers blood sugar, which lessens the need for insulin.
Subcutaneous injections of insulin are administered; some intramuscular injections involve the Z-track method. After administering insulin, applying little pressure to the injection site encourages absorption.
Therefore, the advice that the nurse will give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy is to rotate injection sites.
In conclusion, the correct option is B.
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Which advice would the nurse give the client to avoid lipodystrophy when self-administering insulin therapy
1 Exercise regularly.
2 Rotate injection sites.
3 Use the Z-track technique.
4 Avoid massaging the injection site.
Which atom in the hydroxyl group has only one bond?
The atom in the hydroxyl group that can form only one bond is hydrogen because hydrogen is univalent.
What is the hydroxyl?The hydroxyl is a chemical moiety that is composed of only hydrogen and oxygen. We know that oxygen is divalent while hydrogen is univalent. This implies that oxygen can form two bonds while hydrogen can form only one bond.
As such, the atom in the hydroxyl group that can form only one bond is hydrogen because hydrogen is univalent.
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the nurse is teaching a patient about ways to reduce blood pressure. what will the nurse include in these instructions?
The nurse is teaching a patient about ways to reduce blood pressure. the nurse will ensure that your diet has an adequate daily intake of calcium.
What can high blood pressure lead to?By making your arteries less elastic, high blood pressure can harm them, which reduces the flow of blood and oxygen to your heart and increases the risk of heart disease. Additionally, reduced blood supply to the heart can result in: angina, or chest pain.
Aside from obesity, diabetes, stress, inadequate potassium, calcium, and magnesium intake, a lack of physical activity, and persistent alcohol use can all increase the risk of developing essential hypertension.
The main cause of high blood pressureHigh blood pressure is frequently brought on by consuming excessive amounts of salt, fat, or cholesterol. Chronic diseases include conditions including kidney and hormone problems, diabetes, and high cholesterol. Especially if your parents or other near relatives have high blood pressure, consult your family history.
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Wilbert turned 65 on January 13th, and enrolled into Medicare Part
A and Part D effective 01/01/2014; because Wilbert was still
working, he deferred his enrollment into Part B. Wilbert's Part B
started on 06/01/2014. In the space provided please list the ICEP
that Wilbert would be eligible for to enroll in an MAPD plan.
Answer:
ugpgxgxxyiyxyxyyyiyyxyxyf
Explanation:
t7dyidyidyixyxiycyicoycyicuocuocuoc
the nurse is to administer a vesicant chemotherapeutic drug to a client who had a right mastectomy and inserts the intravenous line
The nurse places the intravenous line before giving a client who underwent a right mastectomy a vesicant chemotherapy medicine using a flexible plastic catheter.
Which medicine is used as chemotherapy?Corticosteroids. Steroids, often known as corticosteroids, are natural hormones and hormone-like substances that are effective in treating a variety of cancers as well as other conditions. These medications are referred to as chemotherapy medications when they are used to treat cancer.
What are the effects of chemotherapy?Drugs are used in chemotherapy, a type of cancer treatment, to destroy cancer cells. Chemotherapeutic agents are the name for these kinds of medications. They function by reducing or halting the development of cancer cells.
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which action by the nurse when caring for the preschool child is appropriate, given preschoolers’ level of independence?
The action by the nurse when caring for the preschool child which is appropriate, given preschoolers’ level of independence is allowing the child to put on the exam gown by him- or herself.
Option d is the best answer choice.
As a matter of fact, children being what they are especially the preschool children usually want to attempt to do things on their own and should be encouraged to allow to make good attempt of whatever they want to do, this is one of the best ways to make them highly independent as this affect them positively as they grow up both in academics and their life issues.
Children independenceChildren independence simply refers to the act or process whereby children are being independent to do do things on their own.
Children independence is an important aspect of upbringing which must be be taught and encouraged both at homes , school, healthcare centers, religious institutions and others.
So therefore, the action by the nurse when caring for the preschool child which is appropriate, given preschoolers’ level of independence is allowing the child to put on the exam gown by him- or herself.
Option d is the best answer choice.
Complete question:
Which action by the nurse when caring for the preschool child is appropriate, given preschoolers' level of independence?
a. Allowing the child to brush teeth alone
b. Hand-feeding the child during mealtimes and snacks
c. Explaining the entire procedure for ear tube surgery
d. Allowing the child to put on the exam gown by him- or herself
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incretin based drugs and risk of cholangiocarcinoma among patients with type 2 diabetes: population based cohort study
This study is based to determine whether the use of DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists is associated with an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma in adults with type 2 diabetes.
What was the main outcome of the study?The use of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors and glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist was modeled as a time-varying variable and was compared with the use of other second or third-line antidiabetic drugs.
It was seen that the use of DPP-4 inhibitors showed a 77% increased hazard of cholangiocarcinoma whereas the use of GLP-1 receptor agonists provided an increased hazard with great intervals.
What was concluded from the study?So, it was concluded that compared with the use of the other second and third-line antidiabetic drugs, DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists are related to the increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma in adults that have type 2 diabetes.
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Which demonstrates the correct match?
A. A suspension is a type of solid drug.
B. A powder is a type of solid drug.
C. A transdermal patch is a type of liquid drug.
D. Bottled oxygen is a type of liquid drug.
Answer:
B. A powder is a type of solid drug.
Explanation:
rate as brainliest
after obtaining fitness test results what standards shouild the fitness professional compare them wth
The standards should the fitness professional compare the with the tests should resemble the sport being tested, so that similar actions and therefore,the specific muscle groups and muscle fiber types.
What is muscle fiber?Fiber present in muscle is known as muscle fiber. Vegetarian person play a vital role in maintaining the food chain of an ecosystem. Vegetarian person always have low density-lipoprotein cholesterol level, lowers blood pressure and lower rates of hypertension and type 2 diabetes as compared to non-vegetarian person.
Muscle fiber doesn't suffered very much with obesity because in vegetable there is very less amount of fat due to this they doesn't suffer with obesity so being a vegetarian is very helpful for health.
Being vegetarian is not easy because form the point of view of nutrients you must intake proper vegetable to manage you nutrients needs if you don't the you suffer with nutrients deficient. So you very careful for your diet.
Therefore, the standards should the fitness professional compare the with the tests should resemble the sport being tested, so that similar actions and therefore,the specific muscle groups and muscle fiber types.
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the client with a diagnosis of heart failure reports frequently awakening during the night with the need to urinate. what explanation will the nurse offer to explain the urination?
Edema is collected in dependent extremities during the day; at night when the client lays down, it is reabsorbed into the circulation and excreted by the kidneys is the explanation which the nurse will offer the client with a diagnosis of heart failure reports frequently awakening during the night with the need to urinate.
Edema is a swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in your body's tissues. It may affect any part of the body but is common in ankles, feet, arms and legs.
Edema is a result of underlying diseases in most cases which include heart failure, kidney disease etc. while it may also be caused due to pregnancy and medication.
Heart failure often develops after other conditions have damaged or weakened the heart and the most common cause of a heart disease is coronary artery disease.
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a nurse is teaching a group of clients about risk factors for heart disease. which factors will the nurse include that increase a client's risk for a myocardial infarction (mi)? select all that apply
a nurse is teaching a group of clients about risk factors for heart disease. The nurse include that Obesity, Hypertension increase a client's risk for a myocardial infarction (mi).
What is myocardial infarction ?The heart muscle starts to die as a result of inadequate blood flow during a heart attack, which is medically referred to as a myocardial infarction. Typically, a blockage in the arteries supplying blood to your heart is what causes this.
Causes of myocardial infarction :The primary cause of death in the US, coronary artery disease, is to blame for the majority of myocardial infarctions. The myocardium is deprived of oxygen when coronary arteries are blocked. Myocardial cell loss and necrosis can result from a prolonged lack of oxygen flow to the myocardium.
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Loss of blood can cause the kidneys to become hypoxic and release a hormone called
that stimulates
Loss of blood can cause the kidneys to become hypoxic and release a hormone called Erythropoietin that simulates an increase in erythropoietin production
a nurse is converting an infants weight in lb and oz to kg. the infant weighs 9 lb and 4 oz. what is the infants weight in kg
The infants weight in kg, given the data from the question is 4.2 Kg
How to convert 4 oz to lbWe'lol beging by converting 4 oz to lb. This can be obtained as illustrated below:
16 oz = 1 lb
Therefore,
4 oz = (4 oz × 1 lb) / 16 oz
4 oz = 0.25 lb
How to convert lb to kilogram (Kg)Total weight of infants (in lb) = 9 + 0.25 = 9.25 lbTotal weight of infants (in Kg) =?We can covert 9.25 lb to Kg as follow:
2.20462 lb = 1 Kg
Therefore,
9.25 lb = (9.25 lb × 1 Kg) / 2.20462 lb
9.25 lb = 4.2 Kg
Thus, the weights of the infants (in Kg) is 4.2 Kg
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