which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry? which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry? ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. he charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good. jackies owns the copyright to a popular song. she receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song. caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. she receives payments from the company who manufactures the shoes. john owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. he charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach.

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Answer 1

This is not an example of a barrier to entry A. Ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. He charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good.

A barrier to entry refers to any obstacle that prevents a new competitor from entering a market or industry. Barriers to entry can be legal, economic, or even technological, and they make it difficult for new firms to compete with established ones. Option A is not a barrier to entry because it merely represents a successful business that offers a high-quality product at a high price. While it may deter some potential competitors, it doesn't prevent them from entering the market. New entrants could also open their seafood restaurants and offer different pricing strategies or unique dishes to compete with Ted's restaurant.

In contrast, options B, C, and D are examples of barriers to entry:

Jackie owns the copyright to a popular song. She receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song. This is a legal barrier to entry, as copyright laws prevent others from using her song without permission or payment.

Caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. She receives payments from the company that manufactures the shoes. Patents are another form of legal barrier to entry, protecting inventions and innovations for a certain period of time. Competitors cannot legally produce a running shoe with the same design without infringing on Caroline's patent.

John owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. He charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach. This is an example of a natural barrier to entry, as John's exclusive ownership of the property creates a limited supply of beach access. Competitors cannot offer the same service without access to a similar piece of property.

In summary, option A is not an example of a barrier to entry, while options B, C, and D are.

The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below:

which of the following is not an example of a barrier to entry?

A. ted owns the best seafood restaurant in a popular resort area. he charges high prices because the quality of the food is so good.

B. jackies owns the copyright to a popular song. she receives royalties every time a radio station plays her song.

C. caroline owns the patent for a new running shoe. she receives payments from the company who manufactures the shoes.

D. john owns the only parcel of lakeside property with a beach that is safe for swimming. he charges admission to neighbors who want to use the beach.

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quartz instruments had retained earnings of $151,000 at december 31, 2020. net income for 2021 was $96,000, and dividends for 2021 were $36,000. what amount of retained earnings should be reported at december 31, 2021?

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At December 31, 2021, Quartz Instruments should report retained earnings of $211,000.

This can be calculated as follows:

1. Start with the retained earnings at the end of 2020, which was $151,000.


2. Add the net income of 2021, which was $96,000.


3. Subtract the dividends paid out in 2021, which was $36,000.


4. This total of $211,000 should be reported as the retained earnings at December 31, 2021.

The retained earnings of a business represent the profit that is kept within the company instead of being distributed to shareholders.

This profit can be reinvested into the company to support future growth, allowing the business to increase profits over time.

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if the current rate of interest is 8%, then the present value of an investment that pays $1000 per year and lasts 20 years is closest to:

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The present value of an investment that pays $1000 per year for 20 years at an interest rate of 8% is $13,679.89.

To calculate the present value, we first need to calculate the future value. The future value is the sum of all payments over the life of the investment, including interest. The future value of this investment can be calculated using the following formula:

FV = PV x (1 + r)^n Where PV is the present value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years. In this case, FV = $1000 x (1 + 0.08)^20 = $30,514.46.

Next, to calculate the present value, we must use the following formula:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

Where FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years. In this case, PV = $30,514.46 / (1 + 0.08)^20 = $13,679.89.

Therefore, the present value of an investment that pays $1000 per year for 20 years at an interest rate of 8% is $13,679.89.

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the same brand of caramel candies tasted better to maria when she thought they cost $20 a pound than when she thought they cost half that much. this best illustrates the impact of'

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The example provided best illustrates the impact of top-down processing, which is the idea that prior knowledge and expectations influence our perception and interpretation of a stimulus.

In the study of perception, the top-down processing principle states that higher-level cognitive processes are involved in interpreting incoming sensory information. In contrast, the bottom-up processing concept suggests that perception is based on the analysis of incoming sensory information.

In this scenario, the information Maria possessed influenced her perception of the same brand of caramel candies. Maria's brain processes the taste of caramel differently, whether she thinks the candies cost $20 a pound or half the price.

The change in Maria's expectation, based on the cost, influenced her judgment of the product's quality. This effect, known as the top-down processing effect, shows how pre-existing knowledge, context, or expectation can shape the interpretation of sensory information.

Top-down processing is defined as the mechanism by which information flows from the top of the system (in this case, cognitive processes, thoughts, or prior knowledge) to the bottom of the system (in this case, sensory processing). This process affects how sensory information is interpreted, leading to a different perception of the same stimulus.

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when the productivity of a product resource increases and makes a firm's product more efficient and or effective, it will

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When the productivity of a product resource increases and makes a firm's product more efficient and or effective, it will result in increased profits for the firm. This is because the productivity of the product resource directly affects the quality of the firm's product and the amount of profit that can be generated from the sale of that product. A product resource is any resource that is used to produce a firm's product, such as raw materials, labor, or equipment.

When the productivity of these resources increases, the firm's product becomes more efficient and/or effective, which means that it can be produced faster, with fewer errors, or with more features. This makes the product more attractive to customers, which leads to increased sales and profits for the firm.

In addition, increased productivity can also lead to cost savings for the firm, as it can produce more products with the same amount of resources. This can reduce the firm's costs per unit, which can increase its profit margins. Overall, increased productivity of product resources is crucial for the success of a firm and its product.

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Which of the following emphasizes the main idea?1. We have now successfully concluded our interview process and you have passed.2. Congratulations! We would like to offer you the position of senior analyst.

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The second statement, "Congratulations! We would like to offer you the position of senior analyst," emphasizes the main idea.

This statement clearly communicates the main idea that the person being addressed has been offered a job as a senior analyst, and is congratulated on their achievement. It cuts straight to the point and highlights the most important information, which is the job offer.

The first statement is more general and doesn't specifically state what the outcome of the interview process was, so it doesn't emphasize the main idea as effectively. Overall, it's important to communicate the main idea clearly and succinctly, especially in situations like job offers where there's a lot of information to convey.

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which of the following provisions of the sarbanes-oxley act addresses the services outside the scope of auditors? multiple choice section 201 section 301 section 404 section 407

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Section 201 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act deals with services beyond the scope of auditors.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002 is a law passed by the U.S. Congress to protect investors from fraudulent financial accounting by companies.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act aims to shield investors from potential corporate accounting fraud by enhancing corporate financial disclosures, corporate governance, and the punishment for corporate accounting fraud.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is also known as the Public Company Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act of 2002. The PCAOB is in charge of enforcing the rules and regulations governing the audit of public companies.Section 201 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act deals with services beyond the scope of auditors.

The section prohibits auditing companies from supplying certain non-audit services, including legal services and other consulting services, to audit clients. The provision is intended to avoid conflicts of interest that may arise when an auditing company offers both audit and non-audit services to the same client.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act required firms to have an audit committee composed solely of independent directors. The audit committee must pre-approve all auditing and non-auditing services provided to the company by its auditing firm.

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jeff is tired of the numerous breakdowns and peeling paint on his old car. when jeff begins to think actively about his car in this way, which of the following cognitive decision-making process steps is jeff going through? question 21 options: evaluation of alternatives information search problem recognition product choice

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Jeff is going through the problem recognition step of the cognitive decision-making process.

This is when an individual identifies a problem or gap between their current state and their desired state. In Jeff's case, he is identifying the numerous breakdowns and peeling paint on his old car, which is the problem or gap he wishes to resolve. By recognizing this problem, he is now able to move forward with evaluating alternatives, information search, and product choice in order to make a decision on how to address the problem.

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the management of nixon corporation is investigating purchasing equipment that would cost $532,000 and have a 7 year life with no salvage value. the equipment would allow an expansion of capacity that would increase sales revenues by $371,000 per year and cash operating expenses by $214,500 per year. (ignore income taxes.) required: determine the simple rate of return on the investment. (round your answer to 1 decimal place.)

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The simple rate of return on Nixon Corporation's investment is 29.41%.

To calculate the SRR for Nixon Corporation's investment, we need to first calculate the annual net income generated by the investment. We can do this by subtracting the annual cash operating expenses from the annual sales revenue:

Annual Net Income = Annual Sales Revenue - Annual Cash Operating Expenses

= $371,000 - $214,500

= $156,500

Next, we can calculate the SRR by dividing the annual net income by the initial investment and multiplying the result by 100%:

SRR = Annual Net Income / Initial Investment x 100%

= $156,500 / $532,000 x 100%

= 29.41%

This means that the investment is expected to generate an annual net income of 29.41% of the initial investment cost.

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why the marginal cost for an informational product such as a cd, an ebook, and journal, can be constant

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The marginal cost for an informational product such as a CD, an ebook, and journal can be constant for a few reasons. Firstly, informational products are digital and can be reproduced at a low cost, making the cost of producing additional units negligible.

Secondly, informational products have no physical existence, which means that they don't deteriorate or wear out over time. This means that the cost of producing an additional unit remains the same regardless of how many units have been produced previously, as there are no additional costs associated with the production of new units.

The third reason is that informational products have a high fixed cost, but a low variable cost. The fixed cost includes things like research, development, and the cost of the equipment used to produce the product. The variable cost includes the cost of materials, labor, and distribution.

Since the variable cost of producing additional units is negligible, the marginal cost remains constant.In conclusion, the marginal cost for an informational product such as a CD, an ebook, and journal can be constant because of the low cost of reproducing additional units, the absence of physical existence, and the low variable cost.

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developing social capital is risky for an organization because social capital is specific to individuals and remains with the employee, if he or she leaves the organization group of answer choices true false

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True. Developing social capital is risky for an organization because social capital is specific to individuals and remains with the employee if he or she leaves the organization.

Social capital can be defined as the network of relationships that an organization can leverage to enhance its performance. An organization must, therefore, develop social capital to maintain a competitive edge. However, individuals' social capital is not transferrable, meaning that it stays with the employee and can move with them to another organization. In conclusion, developing social capital is risky for an organization because it can lose social capital when an employee leaves the organization. As a result, organizations must develop an internal strategy that builds the collective social capital of the organization, not just individual employees, to mitigate the risks associated with developing social capital.

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for each dollar of sales, how much is left to cover fixed costs and contribute to income? (round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

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For each dollar of sales, the amount left to cover fixed costs and contribute to income is known as the contribution margin. The contribution margin is  40% (400/1000 = 0.40) calculated by subtracting all variable costs from sales revenue.

The formula for the contribution margin is: Contribution Margin = Sales Revenue - Variable Costs


For example, if a business has $1,000 in sales revenue and $600 in variable costs, then the contribution margin would be $400. This means that $400 of each dollar of sales can be used to cover fixed costs and contribute to income.

The contribution margin is expressed as a percentage and can be calculated by dividing the contribution margin by sales revenue. In this example, the contribution margin would be 40% (400/1000 = 0.40). This means that 40% of each dollar of sales can be used to cover fixed costs and contribute to income.

In summary, the contribution margin is a measure of the amount of each dollar of sales that is left over after all variable costs have been paid. It is calculated by subtracting all variable costs from sales revenue, and expressed as a percentage by dividing the contribution margin by sales revenue.

In this example, the contribution margin is 40% (400/1000 = 0.40), which means that 40% of each dollar of sales can be used to cover fixed costs and contribute to income.

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which of the following is defined as falsely claiming competence in a skill, usually because that skill is in high demand.? question 11 options: a) breach of the duty of care b) software piracy c) resume inflation d) professional malpractice

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The correct answer is c) Resume inflation. Resume inflation is the practice of exaggerating or falsifying skills, qualifications, or job responsibilities on a resume or other professional profile in order to make it seem more impressive.

The term that is defined as falsely claiming competence in a skill, usually because that skill is in high demand is the Resume Inflation.What is Resume Inflation?Resume Inflation is a dishonest, fraudulent, and illegal practice in which an individual dishonestly represents themselves on their resume or job application as having qualifications, education, and abilities that they do not actually possess. Because a skill is in high demand, an individual may use it to inflate their résumé, making them appear more capable than they are.The common reason why people falsely claim competence in a skill is that the skill is in high demand. As a result, if one claims to have such skills, they are more likely to be employed, which is an advantage over other applicants. It is essential to note that resume inflation is illegal, dishonest, and fraudulent, and may result in criminal charges as well as termination of employment.Summary:Resume Inflation is the term that is defined as falsely claiming competence in a skill, usually because that skill is in high demand. The practice is dishonest, fraudulent, and illegal, and may result in criminal charges and termination of employment.

So, The correct answer is c) Resume inflation. Resume inflation is the practice of exaggerating or falsifying skills, qualifications, or job responsibilities on a resume or other professional profile in order to make it seem more impressive.

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from a us gaap perspective, what is goodwill (what does it represent) and what is its relevance in the context of acquisitions?

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Goodwill is a term that refers to the unquantifiable asset that an acquired company brings to its acquirer. The word 'goodwill' is frequently used in the context of a company's acquisition, which is when one company acquires another company. GAAP, or Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, dictates the accounting treatment for goodwill under US GAAP.

From a US GAAP perspective, goodwill is an asset account that represents the excess value that an acquirer obtains when purchasing a business. Goodwill is recorded when a company acquires another company for a price that is greater than the value of the target company's identifiable assets, including both tangible assets such as buildings, equipment, and inventory, and intangible assets such as intellectual property, patents, and trademarks.

In the context of acquisitions, goodwill is a reflection of the acquirer's willingness to pay a premium for the purchased company. It is important to note that goodwill is subjective and is calculated based on estimates of the acquirer's expected future earnings from the purchased company. As a result, goodwill can be a significant portion of a company's total assets, and it is vital for an acquiring company to be able to identify and measure its goodwill accurately.

To sum up, Goodwill is the excess value that an acquirer obtains when purchasing a business. GAAP dictates the accounting treatment for goodwill under US GAAP.

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pinnacle fund had year-end assets of $825,000,000 and liabilities of $25,000,000. if pinnacle's nav was $32.18, how many shares must have been held in the fund? question 40 options: 21,619,346.92 22,930,546.28 24,860,161.59 25,693,645.25

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If Pinnacle's nav was $32.18 then there must have been 24,860,161.59 shares held in the fund.

How many shares should a shareholder own?

If you decide to choose individual stocks, you should make sure you have a sufficient number of them in your portfolio so that your wealth is not overly concentrated on any one business or sector. Unless your portfolio is really tiny, this usually involves holding between 20 and 30 equities.

By deducting assets from liabilities, we can calculate equity:

825,000,000 - 25,000,000 = 800,000,000

The shares outstanding are obtained by dividing this by the value per share as follows:

800,000,000 / 32.18 = 24,860,161.59

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which firm's long-run marginal cost decreases as output increases? a. firm 2 b. firm 3 c. firm 4 d. firm 1

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The firm whose long-run marginal cost decreases as output increases is Firm 1. Option D is correct.

Long-run marginal cost (LRMC) is the cost per unit of output that arises as the firm expands its scale of production. As the firm increases its scale of production, the long-run marginal cost decreases due to the effect of economies of scale. In a perfectly competitive market, firms with increasing returns to scale have LRMCs that decline as output increases.


Firm 1 is an example of a firm that experiences decreasing LRMCs as output increases. This is because of the decreasing average cost curve that the firm experiences. As the firm increases its output, the average cost per unit decreases, leading to a lower LRMC. In the long-run, Firm 1 is able to take advantage of economies of scale, allowing it to reduce its long-run marginal cost. This gives Firm 1 a competitive advantage over other firms in the market.  


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the use of referent power is appropriate for: select one from group of answer choices a. experts. b. people with no personal power. c. higher-level managers. d. people with no position power.

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The use of referent power is appropriate for experts. Correct answer is option A

The five bases of power in organizational behavior include coercive, reward, legitimate, expert, and referent. Each has its own characteristics, uses, and limitations. It is, however, the referent power that is the most valuable to leaders. The power to influence people based on their desire to be liked and admired is referent power.

A person who is liked, respected, or admired for his or her personal qualities possesses referent power. This power can come from a variety of sources, including a person's character, charisma, or reputation. This type of power is especially valuable in situations where there is no formal structure, such as a group or team, or when an individual lacks other sources of power.

Referent power is best used by individuals who possess expertise, status, or likability that is admired or respected by others. They may be seen as role models or mentors, or they may be perceived as being highly credible or trustworthy due to their experience, training, or reputation. They are often seen as experts in their field or as having a deep understanding of the issues at hand. People who have referent power are frequently sought out for advice or guidance by others.

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in 2006, brazil began incentivizing farmers to grow on previously cleared land after a moratorium on what product?

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In 2006, Brazil began incentivizing farmers to grow soybeans on previously cleared land after a moratorium on the purchase of soybeans grown on newly deforested land.

The moratorium was put in place in response to concerns about the environmental impact of deforestation in the Amazon rainforest, and it was supported by major soybean buyers who pledged cash flow not to purchase soybeans grown on newly deforested land. By incentivizing farmers to grow on already cleared land, Brazil aimed to encourage sustainable agriculture practices and reduce the pressure to clear more land for agriculture. A moratorium is a temporary suspension or halt of an activity, often as a result of a formal agreement or government order. It is commonly used in situations where further action could potentially be harmful or have negative consequences.

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for some interest rate i and some number of interest periods n, the uniform series capital recovery factor is 0.1408 and the sinking fund factor is 0.0408. what is the interest rate? what is n?

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The uniform series capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor, respectively, are 0.1408 and 0.408, respectively. The interest rate is 5% and the number of interest periods is 20.

The uniform series capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor can be expressed as follows:

Uniform series capital recovery factor = i / (1 - (1 + i)⁻ⁿ)

Sinking fund factor = 1 / ((1 + i)ⁿ - 1) * i

Given that the uniform series capital recovery factor is 0.1408 and the sinking fund factor is 0.0408, we can set up the following system of equations:

0.1408 = i / (1 - (1 + i)⁻ⁿ)

0.0408 = 1 / ((1 + i)ⁿ - 1) * i

We can solve this system using numerical methods or trial and error. One possible solution is i = 0.05 (or 5%) and n = 20.

To check, we can calculate the uniform series capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor for these values:

Uniform series capital recovery factor = 0.05 / (1 - (1 + 0.05)⁻²⁰) ≈ 0.1408

Sinking fund factor = 1 / ((1 + 0.05)²⁰ - 1) * 0.05 ≈ 0.0408

Therefore, the interest rate is 0.05 (or 5%) and n = 20.

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a corporate bond pays 6.5 percent interest. you are in the 28 percent tax bracket. what is your after-tax yield on this bond in percent

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The after-tax yield on a 6.5% corporate bond for someone in the 28% tax bracket is 4.6%.

To calculate after-tax yield, you first take the pre-tax yield (6.5%) and multiply it by 1 minus your tax rate (28%), which equals 0.72. You then multiply the result (0.72) by the pre-tax yield (6.5%) to get your after-tax yield of 4.6%.

In other words:

After-tax yield = Pre-tax yield x (1 - Tax rate)
After-tax yield = 6.5% x (1 - 28%)
After-tax yield = 6.5% x 0.72
After-tax yield = 4.6%

The after-tax yield refers to the rate of return on an investment after taxes have been paid. In other words, it is the actual amount of return earned by an investor after accounting for any taxes owed on the investment. The after-tax yield is important because taxes can significantly reduce the amount of return on an investment. By taking into account the tax implications of an investment, investors can make more informed decisions about whether the investment is worth the potential return.

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In ______ data collection usually involves the use of a checklist form, which tells the researcher exactly which actions should be recorded.

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In structured data collection, the use of a checklist form is typically employed. This tells the researcher exactly which actions should be recorded.

Structured data collection is a technique for gathering data that follows a predetermined format. Structured data collection is a strategy for gathering quantitative data that is often performed with a checklist. Structured data collection can be used to obtain both primary and secondary data. Researchers must have a thorough knowledge of the data they are trying to obtain when employing this technique. It is recommended that a researcher create a structured data collection plan before beginning data collection.Researchers frequently use structured data collection techniques in order to obtain data that is reliable and accurate. The data collected can be analysed to discover trends, patterns, and relationships that are not evident in the raw data.A checklist form is a document that outlines all of the tasks or actions that need to be completed in a particular process or activity. It provides a comprehensive list of everything that needs to be done and serves as a reminder to the user to ensure that all critical actions are completed. A checklist form typically includes checkboxes or other methods for indicating whether each item has been completed.The use of a checklist form is prevalent in structured data collection since it allows researchers to obtain data in a consistent and comprehensive manner. By employing a checklist form, researchers may be assured that they are capturing all relevant data points and can be confident in the accuracy of the data they are collecting.

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draw two graphs with one showing recessionary gap and rhe other showing an inflartionary gap and explain how fiscal policy can be used to close each gap and show the effects of fiscal polocy on the graphs

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To draw the recessionary gap and inflationary gap graphs and explain how fiscal policy can be used to close each gap, follow these steps:Recessionary gap:It is when the actual GDP is less than the potential GDP. As a result, the country's output falls short of its potential.

As shown below, the gap between actual GDP and potential GDP is shown as a horizontal line (LRAS).Fiscal policy can be used to address the recessionary gap. By increasing government spending or lowering taxes, the government can boost aggregate demand, causing it to shift rightward.

The following diagram depicts an increase in AD caused by expansionary fiscal policy:Inflationary gap:It is the point at which actual GDP exceeds potential GDP. The economy is in a state of overheating, with rising prices and wages. The following diagram depicts the situation where the economy is producing above its potential output (LRAS).To address the inflationary gap, the government must reduce aggregate demand.

A contractionary fiscal policy can be implemented to accomplish this. This can be done by lowering government spending or raising taxes. The following graph depicts a decrease in AD caused by contractionary fiscal policy:Thus, fiscal policies can be used to close both the recessionary gap and the inflationary gap.

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If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) decreases from 0.8 to 0.6, how will the marginal propensity to save (MPS) and the spending multiplier change?

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The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the amount by which an individual increases their spending due to a one unit increase in disposable income.

When the MPC decreases from 0.8 to 0.6, this means that the individual is spending less of their extra income and more of it is being saved. The marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the opposite of the MPC and is the amount by which an individual increases their savings due to a one unit increase in disposable income. As the MPC decreases, the MPS increases.

The spending multiplier is the increase in the final level of national income resulting from a change in the initial level of investment. When the MPC decreases, the spending multiplier decreases as well because there is less spending on goods and services, leading to a lower increase in national income.

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Exquisite Jewelers is developing its annual financial statements for 2015. The following amounts were correct at December 31, 2015:
Cash $58,000
Accounts receivable $71,000
Merchandise inventory $154,000
Prepaid insurance $1,500
Investment in stock of Z corporation (long-term) $36,000
Store equipment $67,000
Used store equipment held for disposal $9,000
Accumulated depreciation, store equipment $19,000
Accounts payable $52,500
Long-term note payable $42,000
Income taxes payable $9,000
Retained earnings $164,000
and Common stock, 1,00,000 shares outstanding, par value $1.00 per share (originally sold and issued at $1.10 per share).
Required:
1) Based on these data, prepare a December 31, 2015, balance sheet. Use the following major captions:
a) Assets: Current Assets, Long-Term Investments, Fixed Assets, and Other Assets.
b) Liabilities: Current Liabilities and Long-Term Liabilities.
c) Stockholders' Equity: Contributed Capital and Retained Earnings.
2) What is the net book value of the store equipment? Explain what this value means.

Answers

1) The balance sheet for Exquisite Jewelers will include Total Assets: $396,500, Total Liabilities: $103,500, and Total Stockholders' Equity: $264,000. 2) The net book value of the store equipment is $48,000 which represents carrying value on the balance sheet.

1) Based on the provided data, here is the December 31, 2015 balance sheet for Exquisite Jewelers:

a) Assets

Current Assets:
 Cash                              $58,000
 Accounts Receivable           $71,000
 Merchandise Inventory       $154,000
 Prepaid Insurance              $1,500
 Total Current Assets          $284,500

Long-Term Investments:
 Investment in Z Corp. Stock  $36,000

Fixed Assets:
 Store Equipment                $67,000

Other Assets:
 Used Equipment Held for Disposal $9,000

b) Liabilities

Current Liabilities:
 Accounts Payable                 $52,500
 Income Taxes Payable          $9,000
 Total Current Liabilities        $61,500

Long-Term Liabilities:
 Long-Term Note Payable        $42,000

c) Stockholders' Equity

Contributed Capital:
 Common Stock (1,00,000 shares * $1 par value) $100,000

Retained Earnings:
 Retained Earnings                 $164,000

Total Assets: $396,500
Total Liabilities: $103,500
Total Stockholders' Equity: $264,000

2) The net book value of the store equipment is calculated as follows:
Store Equipment Cost          $67,000
Less: Accumulated Depreciation $19,000
Net Book Value                    $48,000

The net book value of $48,000 represents the store equipment's carrying value on the balance sheet. It is the original cost of the equipment ($67,000) minus the accumulated depreciation ($19,000) up to the balance sheet date. It reflects the remaining value of the store equipment that has not yet been depreciated or written off.

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which type of plans are the organizational plans that are broadest in focus and have the longest time frame?

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The type of plans that are the broadest in focus and have the longest time frame are strategic plans.

They are long-term plans that cover an organization's overall direction and goals, and they typically have a time frame of three to five years. Strategic planning is a process that assists organizations in determining their future direction by establishing the organization's mission, vision, and long-term objectives. Strategic plans are typically created by high-level executives and the board of directors or by a strategic planning committee. Strategic plans are critical since they assist an organization in establishing its overall purpose and direction. They also establish a clear vision for the organization's future, which is critical to motivating and inspiring employees.

Strategic plans also assist in defining an organization's position in the market, which is critical to understanding how the organization can be competitive over the long term. Strategic planning, as the broadest in focus and the longest-term plans, is crucial since it assists organizations in determining their future direction by establishing the organization's mission, vision, and long-term objectives. Strategic planning is done in several phases, beginning with environmental scanning, which entails collecting and assessing data about the organization's internal and external environment.

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why are the economies of developed countries predominantly engaged in the secondary and tertiary sectors, and less in the primary sector?

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The economies of developed countries are predominantly engaged in the secondary and tertiary sectors because of the shift of labour from the primary to the secondary and tertiary sectors.


In developed countries, the primary sector has become less labour-intensive as it has become more mechanised. This means that fewer people are employed in this sector, and those that are, typically have higher skills.


In contrast, the secondary and tertiary sectors have become more labour-intensive and require more skilled workers. This is due to the increasing demand for services and the emergence of new technologies in these sectors.


In addition, the growth of international trade and globalisation has also increased the demand for services in the secondary and tertiary sectors. The number of people employed in these sectors has risen in recent decades as a result of this increased demand.

Overall, The economies of developed countries predominantly engaged in the secondary and tertiary sectors, and less in the primary sector because of the shift of labour from primary to secondary and tertiary sectors. This has occurred due to increasing mechanisation of the primary sector and greater demand for higher-skilled labour in the secondary and tertiary sectors.

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the licensed sales associate for klm realty was disciplined for not notifying the adre regarding a dui and the department suspended his license until it received all the paperwork regarding the incident. he was suspended for two months. before the suspension, he had put a property into escrow with a 90-day close of escrow. the property closed after the suspension ended. is the licensee entitled to receive a commission? of the following four statements, which one is inaccurate or false?

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The licensee is entitled to receive a commission from the sale of the property. The licensed sales associate for KLM Realty was disciplined for not notifying the Arizona Department of Real Estate (ADRE) regarding a DUI.

The department suspended his license until it received all the paperwork regarding the incident. He was suspended for two months.Before the suspension, the licensee had put a property into escrow with a 90-day close of escrow. The property closed after the suspension ended. However, this does not impact the licensee's entitlement to receive a commission from the sale of the property. As long as the licensee was responsible for procuring the buyer and the sale was completed within the terms of the contract, they are entitled to their commission.As such, the accurate statement is that the licensee is entitled to receive a commission from the sale of the property. None of the four statements given are false or inaccurate.
The licensed sales associate for KLM Realty is entitled to receive a commission for the property that closed after his suspension ended. The associate was disciplined and had his license suspended by the ADRE for not notifying them about a DUI incident. However, the suspension lasted for only two months, and the property was put into escrow with a 90-day close of escrow before the suspension began.Upon completion of the suspension and with all the required paperwork submitted to the ADRE, the associate's license was reinstated. Since the property closed after the suspension ended and the licensee was in good standing with the ADRE, they are entitled to receive their commission for the sale.Inaccurate or false statement: The licensed sales associate is not entitled to receive a commission for the property that closed after the suspension ended. This statement is incorrect because, as explained above, the associate is entitled to receive their commission for the sale since their license was reinstated, and the property closed after the suspension period ended.

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The licensed sales associate for KLM Realty who was disciplined for not notifying the Arizona Department of Real Estate (ADRE) about a DUI was suspended for two months and had his license suspended until all paperwork regarding the incident was received. Before the suspension, the associate put a property into escrow with a 90-day close of escrow. The property closed after the suspension ended, and the question is whether the licensee is entitled to receive a commission.

The licensee is entitled to receive a commission for the sale of the property. The suspension was for the failure to report the DUI and not related to the transaction or the licensee's ability to represent the client properly. As long as the licensee fulfilled their obligations and responsibilities in the transaction, they are entitled to receive their commission.

All four statements in the question appear to be accurate and not false. It is essential for licensees to understand their responsibilities and obligations, including reporting any disciplinary actions to the ADRE promptly. Failure to do so can result in a suspension or revocation of the license, as in this case. It is also important to note that a suspension does not automatically mean the licensee forfeits their commission for any transactions they completed before or after the suspension.

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in the business world, the term disgorgement means group of answer choices to give up one's meal after eating. to return profits earned illegally. to return ill-gotten gains. to give up one's board position after a fraud incident.

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Disgorgement in the business world means to return ill-gotten gains, typically after a fraud incident.ill-gotten gains. to give up one's board position after a fraud incident.

In the business world, the term disgorgement means to return profits earned illegally. Disgorgement is a legal remedy that requires individuals or companies to give up profits that were obtained through illegal or unethical means, such as insider trading or securities fraud. The idea behind disgorgement is to prevent individuals from profiting from illegal or unethical behavior and to deter others from engaging in similar behavior in the future

to return ill-gotten gains. to give up one's board position after a fraud incident.

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how much cash would deere have to pay to repurchase the 7.125% notes at the quoted market price of 134.13

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Deere would have to pay $1,341.30 in cash to repurchase the 7.125% notes at the quoted market price of 134.13.

The solution to the given problem can be calculated as follows:

The given quoted market price of 134.13 is actually a percentage of $1,000, which is the face value of the note.

We can calculate the actual price of the note by multiplying the face value by the quoted market price as a decimal.

Therefore, the actual price of the note is:

$1,000 × 134.13% = $1,000 × 1.3413 = $1,341.30.

Hence, Deere would have to pay $1,341.30 in cash to repurchase the 7.125% notes at the quoted market price of 134.13.

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which of the following plans needs an actuary on an ongoing basis? a. tandem plan. b. cash balance plan. c. 412(e) plan. d. target benefit plan.

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The cash balance plan needs an actuary on an ongoing basis. Option B is the correct answer.

What is a cash balance plan?

A cash balance plan is a pension plan that is a type of defined benefit plan. Each participant in the plan is promised a specific amount of money each year based on a percentage of their salary, and the plan is funded by employer contributions.

What is an actuary?

An actuary is a specialist who works with probabilities and statistical models to assess, calculate, and mitigate risk. Actuaries are responsible for evaluating the likelihood of future events, designing creative solutions to reduce the probability of negative occurrences, and advising management on how to reduce potential risks in their operations.

Which of the following plans needs an actuary on an ongoing basis?

The cash balance plan needs an actuary on an ongoing basis to ensure that the contributions made to the plan are sufficient to meet the promises made to participants, as well as to monitor the performance of the plan's investments and make adjustments as needed. The other three plans listed in the question do not necessitate an actuary on an ongoing basis.

Option B is the correct answer.

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compare the economic surplus in this market when there is no tax to when there is a tax on pizza. with tax, the change in economic surplus is

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When there is no tax is X, and the economic surplus when there is a tax is Y, then the change in economic surplus is X - Y.

In this market, the economic surplus is higher when there is no tax on pizza than when there is a tax. Without the tax, buyers are able to purchase the pizza at its original market price, which is the maximum they are willing to pay.

This creates a surplus, since the sellers are willing to accept less than what buyers are willing to pay.

However, with a tax, the price of the pizza increases, meaning that buyers are now willing to pay less than what the sellers are willing to accept. As a result, the economic surplus is reduced.

The change in economic surplus with the introduction of a tax can be calculated by subtracting the economic surplus when there is no tax from the economic surplus when there is a tax.

If the economic surplus when there is no tax is X, and the economic surplus when there is a tax is Y, then the change in economic surplus is X - Y. This will tell you how much the economic surplus has been reduced by the introduction of the tax.

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