which of the following best represents the actions of photoautotrophs? question 2 options: a) convert chemical energy to solar energy b) produce thermal energy to be used by other organisms c) produce, and use, both oxygen and carbon dioxide d) produce oxygen and use carbon dioxide

Answers

Answer 1

Photoautotrophs are organisms that use solar energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into organic compounds through the process of photosynthesis. Therefore, the best option that represents the actions of photoautotrophs is d) produce oxygen and use carbon dioxide.

They do not convert chemical energy to solar energy like chemosynthetic organisms, nor do they produce thermal energy for use by other organisms. Additionally, they produce oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis and use carbon dioxide as a source of carbon. This makes them important contributors to the global carbon cycle and atmospheric oxygen levels.
Photoautotrophs are best represented by option D: produce oxygen and use carbon dioxide. Photoautotrophs are organisms, like plants and some bacteria, that can produce their own energy through the process of photosynthesis. They use sunlight as their energy source, and convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (a form of chemical energy) and oxygen. The oxygen is released as a byproduct, while the glucose is used for growth and reproduction. This process plays a crucial role in maintaining Earth's oxygen levels and supporting other life forms that depend on the chemical energy produced by photoautotrophs.

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Related Questions

in the presence of glucose, beta-galactosidase: group of answer choices cleaves glucose into lactose without using atp does not have to be produced because there is no need for it cleaves glucose into galactose by using atp binds to onpg which in turn facilitates glucose breakdown produces atp used for cellular respiration

Answers

beta-galactosidase cleaves glucose into lactose without using ATP. The explanation behind this is that beta-galactosidase is primarily involved in the breakdown of lactose into glucose and galactose.

However, in the presence of excess glucose, beta-galactosidase can also cleave glucose into lactose as a means of regulating glucose levels in the cell. This process does not require ATP because it is a simple hydrolysis reaction.

In contrast, if beta-galactosidase were to cleave glucose into galactose, it would require ATP as it is an enzymatic reaction that involves a transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to glucose.

To conclude, beta-galactosidase can cleave glucose into lactose without using ATP in the presence of excess glucose, as a means of regulating glucose levels in the cell. This process is a simple hydrolysis reaction and does not involve the production of ATP.


Beta-galactosidase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose into its constituent sugars, glucose and galactose. In the presence of glucose, there is no need for beta-galactosidase to be produced because the cell already has a source of glucose for energy production. The cell will preferentially use glucose over lactose as a source of energy.

When glucose is available, beta-galactosidase is not necessary for the cell, as glucose provides a more efficient energy source.

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1. A race of inbred plant has a mean petal length of 12 mm, a second race from another location has the same meant petal length. When the two races are crossed, the F1 also has the mean petal length of 12mm. However the F2 generation derived from crossing the F1 to one another shows a very wide spread in plant length. About 3 out of 770 have a length as small as 8 mm. And about 3 out of 770 have a length of 16 mm. How many allelic pairs seem to be involved in the different petal length? How much does each effective allele contribute to the length of petal?

Answers

There are two allelic pairs that are involved in different petal lengths.

The F2 generation shows a wide range of petal lengths, indicating that two allelic pairs are involved in determining petal length. Since the F1 generation had the same mean petal length as the parent races, we can infer that the allelic pairs are recessive in nature. Each effective allele contributes half of the petal length variation observed in the F2 generation.

In the case of the F2 generation, the range of petal lengths observed suggests that multiple genes are influencing this trait. This phenomenon is known as polygenic inheritance. Each effective allele likely contributes a small amount to the overall length of the petal, and the final length is the result of the combined effects of all the contributing alleles.

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the vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the

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The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the superior vena cava.

The heart pumps blood to all parts of the body. Blood supplies oxygen and nutrients to the entire body and removes carbon dioxide and residual elements. As blood travels through the body, oxygen is consumed and blood becomes deoxygenated.

The superior vena cava is a large vein that returns deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body back to the right atrium of the heart. Its function is to collect blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms and transport it back to the heart for oxygenation and circulation.

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the first penicillin-producing fungus that could be grown in stirred fermenters was _________.

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Penicillium chrysogenum was the first penicillin-producing fungus that could be grown in stirred fermenters.

Before the discovery of penicillin, bacterial infections were a leading cause of death. However, the production of penicillin was initially limited by the fact that the fungus that produced it, Penicillium chrysogenum, was difficult to grow in large quantities. This problem was eventually solved by the development of stirred fermenters, which allowed for more efficient growth and production of penicillin. As a result, Penicillium chrysogenum became the first penicillin-producing fungus that could be grown in large quantities for use in medicine.

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_____ is the species-specific biological predisposition to learn in certain ways but not others.

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Learning readiness is the species-specific biological predisposition to learn in certain ways but not others.

Learning readiness is the term for the species-specific biological predisposition to learn in some ways but not others. In psychology, the term "preparedness" is used to describe how some animals are naturally predisposed to learn specific behaviours or skills more quickly than others because of their evolutionary past.

For instance, many animals are predisposed to picking up particular behaviours that are necessary for their survival, such avoiding predators, finding food, and reproducing. Natural selection, which has favoured those who are better adapted to their environment, is assumed to be the cause of certain predispositions.

The capacity of birds to learn the songs of their particular species is a well-known illustration of readiness.

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some viruses cause abnormal growth of cells rather than destruction. this is called __________.

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Some viruses cause abnormal growth of cells rather than destruction. this is called Latent viruses.

A complete virus particle is called a virion. A virion's primary function is to deliver its DNA or RNA genome to a host cell so that the host cell can express the genome. But they don't have cell membranes or other organelles that cells have. It may contain an RNA genome.

The viral genome is packaged in a symmetrical protein capsid, often with associated basic proteins. Viruses do not have cells. They have a protein shell that protects their genetic material.

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how would the decreased size of the optic center in the brain of pachòn be an evolutionary advantage in a cave system?

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Decreased size of the optic center in the brain is an evolutionary advantage in a cave system. Optic nerve atrophy is a condition in which the vision of the normal being turned dim and reduces the vision of the field.

The ability to see the farsighted and fine detail of things gets reduced in some cases is lost.  As a result, the pupil of the eyes will reduce the reaction to the light and might eventually lose. It can be also stated that with time the size of the brain decreased which resulted in the reduction in the optic nerve ability reduces.

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membrane-enclosed bodies within eukaryotic cells are called . a. micelles b. prokaryotes c. organelles d. eukaryotes

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Membrane-enclosed bodies within eukaryotic cells are called organelles. The correct answer is thus C.

Eukaryota is a varied domain of creatures whose cells have a nucleus, and its members are referred to as eukaryotes. Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures. Along with the two prokaryote groups, the Bacteria and the Archaea, they make up a significant group of organisms.

Possibly as a sister archaea to the Asgard archaea, the eukaryotes first appeared in the Archaea. This suggests that there are just two types of life: eukaryotes are included in the Archaea and there are only two types of life: Bacteria and Archaea.

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why do you need to use a heterospecific organism? would this procedure work for all proteins in all heterospecific organisms?

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Using a heterospecific organism is sometimes necessary to study a specific protein due to various reasons such as protein complexity, limited resources, or ethical considerations.

Explanation: A heterospecific organism refers to a different species than the one under study. This can be useful when the protein of interest is complex, and it is difficult to study its function or structure in the original organism. For example, studying a human protein in a mouse model can provide valuable information for drug development or disease treatment. Additionally, using a heterospecific organism may be necessary due to limited resources or ethical considerations. For example, studying a protein in a non-endangered species may be more feasible than studying it in an endangered one.

However, it is important to note that using a heterospecific organism may not always work for all proteins in all organisms. Different organisms may have different protein expression patterns, post-translational modifications, and signalling pathways. Therefore, it is essential to carefully evaluate the suitability of the heterospecific organism for studying the protein of interest.

In summary, using a heterospecific organism can be a valuable tool for studying complex proteins or when resources or ethical considerations are limited. However, it is crucial to evaluate the suitability of the heterospecific organism for the protein of interest carefully.

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Please order the following choices to reflect the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type I) allergic reaction.
A. Individual is exposed to a sensitizing dose of an allergen.
B. Individual experiences allergy symptoms.
C. cells produce IgE directed against the allergen.
D. IgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophils.
E. A provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate releasing histamine and other allergic mediators

Answers

A. Individual is exposed to a sensitizing dose of an allergen.
C. Cells produce IgE directed against the allergen.
D. IgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophils.
E. A provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate releasing histamine and other allergic mediators.
B. Individual experiences allergy symptoms.

The correct order to reflect the mechanism and development of an immediate (Type I) allergic reaction is:
A. Individual is exposed to a sensitizing dose of an allergen.
C. Cells produce IgE directed against the allergen.
D. IgE coats (sensitizes) mast cells and basophils.
E. A provoking exposure to the allergen occurs and mast cells and basophils degranulate releasing histamine and other allergic mediators.
B. Individual experiences allergy symptoms.

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a blue crab must molt about ______ times over the course of its life.

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A blue crab must molt about 18 to 20 times over the course of its life.

Molting is a crucial process for blue crabs and other crustaceans, as it allows them to grow and develop. Crustaceans have a hard exoskeleton that provides protection and structural support but does not expand as the animal grows. Therefore, to accommodate growth, the crab needs to shed its old exoskeleton and form a new, larger one.

Molting occurs in several stages. First, the blue crab prepares by reabsorbing some of the calcium carbonate from its current exoskeleton, which weakens the shell. The crab then forms a new, soft exoskeleton beneath the old one. When ready, the crab ingests water to expand its body, causing the old exoskeleton to crack and separate. The crab then slowly extracts itself from the old shell.

Once free, the crab's new exoskeleton is still soft and vulnerable, leaving it at increased risk of predation. Over the next few hours to days, the exoskeleton hardens, providing the crab with renewed protection. Molting frequency decreases as the crab matures, with young crabs molting more often than adults. This process allows the blue crab to reach its full size and maturity throughout its lifespan.

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the disadvantage of anaerobic glycolysis in high-intensity muscle contractions is that ________.

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The disadvantage of anaerobic glycolysis in high-intensity muscle contractions is that it leads to the accumulation of lactic acid, which can cause muscle fatigue and discomfort.

The muscle needs a readily accessible source of ATP when it is active to meet its energy needs.

When muscles contract, a chemical called phosphocreatine stores energy and converts ADP to ATP. Therefore, the first process used is the hydrolysis of phosphocreatine.

Considering that anaerobic glycolysis does not require oxygen. The muscle cells find that eating up glucose is a convenient way to make ATP. As a result, this is the second mechanism used.

Since glycolysis requires a complete supply of oxygen, it is the final method used to produce ATP. This is based on the oxygen's availability and rate of diffusion into the tissues.

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Incomplete dominance is shown in the flower color of snapdragons, as shown in this figure. Choose the offspring phenotypes you would expect from the following cross: R^1 R^1 × R^1 R^2

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Incomplete dominance is a form of inheritance where neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in an intermediate phenotype. In snapdragons, the gene for flower color has two alleles: R^1 and R^2. When two homozygous parents with different alleles are crossed (R^1 R^1 × R^1 R^2), the offspring phenotypes can be predicted using a Punnett square.

The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:

|   | R^1 | R^1 |
|---|----|----|
| R^1 | R^1 R^1 | R^1 R^1 |
| R^2 | R^1 R^2 | R^1 R^2 |

From this, we can see that all of the offspring will have a genotype with at least one R^1 allele and one R^2 allele. However, the phenotype will not be the same as either parent. Instead, the flower color will be an intermediate blend of the two alleles. Therefore, all of the offspring will have a pinkish flower color, which is the result of incomplete dominance.

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which of the following can be sensed by plants? i) gravity ii) pathogens iii) wind iv) light

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Plants are capable of sensing a variety of external stimuli, including gravity, pathogens, wind, and light.

Gravity is sensed by plants through specialized cells called statocytes, which help them determine their orientation and facilitate proper growth direction. Pathogens are detected by plant immune systems, allowing them to respond to potential threats and protect themselves from harmful microorganisms.

The Wind is sensed through mechanoreceptors, which help plants adapt to their environment by adjusting their growth patterns and increasing their structural strength. Lastly, light is detected by photoreceptors in plants, enabling them to optimize their growth and photosynthetic processes according to light intensity and duration. Overall, these sensory capabilities help plants adapt to their environment and maintain optimal growth and health.

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which of the following criteria must be met for a species to qualify as invasive? question 7 options: a) endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species b) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species c) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species d) endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species

Answers

The correct option is c) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species.

To be considered invasive, a species must be introduced to a new area (outside of its native range), spread quickly, and have a negative impact on the native species in the ecosystem. It must then spread rapidly and displace the native species in the area, either directly or indirectly through competition or predation. Invasive species can have a range of negative impacts on the environment and local ecosystems, such as reducing biodiversity, changing the composition of native species populations, and causing economic and ecological damage. Invasive species can also spread diseases, which can further threaten native species.

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Which of the following are limiting nutrients? A. water B. Carbon C. Nitrogen D.Phosphorus

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Nitrogen as well as phosphorus are considered as limiting nutrients. The correct options are the options C and D.

A limiting nutrient is basically defined as a nutrient that is in short supply relative to the needs of a particular organism or an ecosystem and can therefore limit the growth as well as the productivity of that ecosystem.

In aquatic ecosystems, phosphorus is often found to be a limiting nutrient and its availability can limit the growth of algae as well as other primary producers. In terrestrial ecosystems, nitrogen may be limiting especially in areas which poor soils. Carbon and water are abundant on Earth and therefore are usually not the limiting nutrients.

Hence, the correct options are options C and D.

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based on mary's reaction to topomax, how would her urinary ph be affected? a decrease in urine ph an increase in urine ph topamax has nothing to do with urinary ph no change in urine ph

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Topiramate (Topamax) is an antiepileptic drug that is also used to treat migraines and weight loss. It works by decreasing abnormal brain activity and reducing the release of neurotransmitters.

One of the common side effects of topiramate is metabolic acidosis, which can lead to a decrease in urine pH. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by an increase in the acidity of the blood due to an increase in acid production, decreased acid elimination by the kidneys, or both.

As a compensatory mechanism, the kidneys excrete more acid in the urine, leading to a decrease in urine pH. Therefore, it is likely that Mary's urinary pH would be affected by topiramate, and it would decrease due to metabolic acidosis.

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what is it called when part of a patient's bronchial tree is blocked, causing a partial collapse?

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When part of a patient's bronchial tree is blocked, causing a partial collapse, it is called bronchial obstruction or bronchial collapse.

This can occur when there is a build-up of mucus, inflammation, or a foreign object in the bronchial tree, which can partially or completely block the airway.

Bronchial obstruction can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, wheezing, coughing, chest pain, and difficulty breathing. It can also increase the risk of developing infections such as pneumonia.

Treatment for bronchial obstruction depends on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. In some cases, bronchodilator medications may be used to help open up the airway and relieve symptoms.

In more severe cases, bronchoscopy may be performed to remove any blockages or foreign objects from the bronchial tree. Surgery may also be necessary in certain cases to remove blockages or repair damaged tissue.

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list the major events that occur in the patellar reflex, from the striking of the patellar ligament to the resulting response?

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The patellar reflex, is a monosynaptic reflex that involves the spinal cord and the quadriceps muscle. Here are the major events that occur in the patellar reflex:

Striking the patellar ligament with a reflex hammer.

Stretch receptors in the quadriceps muscle are activated by the sudden stretch caused by the hammer strike.

Sensory neurons transmit the signal to the spinal cord via the dorsal root.

The sensory neuron synapses directly with a motor neuron in the spinal cord.

The motor neuron sends an efferent signal back to the quadriceps muscle.

The quadriceps muscle contracts, causing extension of the knee joint and resulting in the response.

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a structure that a species shares with both a closely related species and an ancestral species is described as group of answer choices vestigial. homologous. analogous. convergent.

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A structure that a species shares with both a closely related species and an ancestral species is described as homologous. Homologous structures are similar in structure and origin, indicating a common ancestor.

In contrast, vestigial structures are remnants of structures that were functional in ancestral species but have lost their function in the current species, and analogous structures are structures that have similar functions but different origins. Convergent structures are structures that have evolved independently in different species in response to similar environmental pressures.

A homologous structure refers to an anatomical feature in different species that has a similar structure and function because it was inherited from a common ancestor. This helps support the concept of evolutionary relationships between species. On the other hand, vestigial structures are remnants of once-functional structures that have become less useful or nonfunctional over time, while analogous and convergent refer to structures with similar functions but different evolutionary origins.

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ytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) arises out of conflict between _______ and _______.
A) the Golgi; the endoplasmic reticulum
B) X chromosomes; Y chromosomes
C) mitochondria; nuclear genes
D) mitochondria; the Golgi
E) mitochondria; chloroplasts

Answers

Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) arises out of the conflict between __mitochondria__ and __nuclear genes__.
Your answer: C) mitochondria; nuclear genes

Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) is a phenomenon in which a plant loses its ability to produce viable pollen due to mitochondrial dysfunction. This dysfunction arises out of a conflict between mitochondria and nuclear genes. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell and are responsible for energy production, but they also carry their own genetic material. In plants, CMS is caused by incompatibility between the mitochondrial genome and the nuclear genes that regulate male fertility. This incompatibility leads to defects in the formation of anthers and pollen, resulting in male sterility. CMS is of great agricultural importance, as it allows for the production of hybrid seeds without the need for labor-intensive manual pollination.

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signs of an infection in your tissues include _______. (check all that apply)

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Signs of an infection in your tissues include redness, swelling, warmth, pain, and loss of function.

Redness occurs due to the increased blood flow to the affected area, which brings immune cells to fight off the infection. Swelling is caused by the accumulation of fluids and immune cells in the area. Warmth is due to the increased blood flow and metabolic activity in the region.

Pain is a result of the inflammation, pressure on the nerves, and the release of chemicals that stimulate pain receptors. Loss of function can occur due to the tissue damage or pain, which impairs movement and function of the affected area. If left untreated, infections in tissues can lead to more severe conditions, including sepsis, abscesses, or even death. It is essential to seek medical attention if you notice any signs of infection in your tissues to prevent further complications.

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If you randomly removed a somatic cell from the human body, odds are that it would ________.
A. Have been produced by meiosis
B. Be haploid
C. Have 46 chromosomes
D. Have 23 chromosomes

Answers

The correct answer to the given question is option C - Have 46 chromosomes.

Somatic cells are diploid, meaning they have two sets of chromosomes (one set from each parent) and undergo mitosis to divide. Meiosis, on the other hand, produces haploid cells with only one set of chromosomes, such as gametes (sperm and egg cells). Genomes are intrinsically unstable because the germ line requires DNA sequence variation to support natural selection-based evolution. Genome mosaics are produced in somatic tissues as a result of the accumulation of mutations throughout growth and ageing. With the exception of cancer, nothing is known regarding the potential causal contribution of elevated somatic mutation burdens to late-life disease and ageing. Due to their low, individual abundance, characterising somatic mutations and their functional effects in normal tissues remains a tough problem. In this section, I'll give a quick overview of what we now know about somatic mutations in people and animals as they relate to ageing, how they develop and create genomic mosaicism, the technology to study somatic mutations, and any potential connections between somatic mutations and non-clonal diseases.

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1. Tube that extends into the abdominal cavity and carries the sperm from the testes to the urethra for ejaculation __________
2. Organ through which both semen and urine pass ____________
3. Merged from the seminferous tubules, a comma shaped structure where the sperm mature __________
4. Produces about 30% of the seminal fluid in the ejaculated semen __________

Answers

Vas Deferens, Urethra, Epididymis, Prostate Gland

Here are the answers including the terms you mentioned:

1. Tube that extends into the abdominal cavity and carries the sperm from the testes to the urethra for ejaculation: Vas Deferens
2. Organ through which both semen and urine pass: Urethra
3. Merged from the seminiferous tubules, a comma-shaped structure where the sperm mature: Epididymis
4. Produces about 30% of the seminal fluid in the ejaculated semen: Prostate Gland

Your answer: Vas Deferens, Urethra, Epididymis, Prostate Gland

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Use the lists below to answer the question.
Cell Structures Observed in Two Organisms
Cell Structures in Organism 1
cell wall
endoplasmic
reticulum
Golgi body
chloroplasts
.
mitochondria
nucleus
ribosomes
vacuole
Cell Structures in Organism 2
cell membrane
endoplasmic
reticulum
Golgi body
mitochondria
nucleus
ribosomes
A student made lists of structures observed in cells from two different organisms. Which
statement describes the most likely difference in the way that organism 1 and organism 2
obtain energy?

Answers

Plant and animal cells differe in some of their structures, like the cell wall, chloroplasts, and a big vacuole present in the plant cell but not the animal cell. D) Only organism 1 uses solar energy to make energy-rich compounds.

What are the differences between a plant and an animal cell?

Both the animal and plant cells are eukaryotic. They carry their genetic material in the nucleus and mitochondria. Organelles are located in the cytosol, and both of them are surrounded by a protector cell membrane.

However, they have some differences:

Cell wall: A rigid structure that provides support and protection.

• Animal cells do not have a cell wall. They are only surrounded by the cell membrane, which is flexible so they can adopt different shapes.

• Plant cells have a wall, so their shape is usually prismatic and regular. The cell wall is composed mainly of cellulose.

Chloroplast: these are organelles that accumulate chlorophyll.

• Animal cells do not have chloroplasts because they do not photosynthesize.

• Plant cells have chloroplasts, and they are in charge of the photosynthesis process that allows plants to release oxygen. These organelles use solar light as the source of energy.

Vacuoles:

• Animal cells have many and small vacuoles whose function is to store water, ions, and waste intracellular substances.

• Plant cells have a unique big-sized vacuole that might occupy almost 90% of the cell. Their principal function is to store water and keep the turgidity. When the vacuole gets empty, the plant loses rigidity.

Other differences are:

The animal cell has centrioles, while the vegetable cell does not.

Plasmodium, chromoplasts, and glyoxysomes are present in the vegetable cell but not in the animal cell.

Option D is correct. Only organism 1 uses solar energy to make energy-rich compounds.

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krypton 85 has a half life of 10.76 years. it decays into rubidium 85 suppose a sample contains 4 atoms of krypton 85 and 12 atoms of rubidium 85 about how old is the sample?

Answers

Krypton 85 decays into rubidium 85 with a half-life of 10.76 years, which means that half of the initial krypton 85 atoms will decay into rubidium 85 in 10.76 years.

The radioactive decay of krypton 85 can be represented by the following equation:

Kr-85 → Rb-85 + β-

where β- represents an electron emitted in the decay process. Krypton 85 decays into rubidium 85 by emitting a beta particle.

The half-life of krypton 85 is 10.76 years, which means that half of the initial krypton 85 atoms will decay into rubidium 85 in 10.76 years.

[tex]N = \frac{N_{0}}{2^{t/T} }[/tex]

where N is the current number of krypton 85 atoms, N0 is the initial number of krypton 85 atoms, t is the time elapsed, and T is the half-life of krypton 85.

In this case, we know that the initial number of krypton 85 atoms is 4, and the current number of krypton 85 atoms is 4/2 = 2. We also know that the sample contains 12 rubidium 85 atoms.

Therefore, we can use the above equation to find the time elapsed:

[tex]2 = \frac{4}{2^{t/10.76} }[/tex]

[tex]2^{t/10.76} = 2[/tex]

[tex]\frac{t}{10.76}[/tex] = log2(2)

t = 10.76 years

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which of the following is true regarding crossing over? select all that apply it occurs during prophase i. it is an event that contributes to the non-identical nature of gametes. it involves exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes. it involves exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids. it occurs in mitosis and meiosis.

Answers

Crossing over is a genetic phenomenon that occurs during prophase I of meiosis. It involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, resulting in the formation of recombinant chromosomes. This event contributes to the non-identical nature of gametes, which are the reproductive cells that fuse during fertilization to form a zygote. During crossing over, sections of DNA are swapped between the paired chromosomes, leading to genetic variation in the offspring. It does not involve exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids. Therefore, the correct options are that it occurs during prophase I and involves exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes. Crossing over does not occur in mitosis, as it involves only a single cell division, unlike meiosis.
Hi! Crossing over is a significant event during meiosis that contributes to genetic diversity in gametes. It occurs during prophase I, specifically in the stage called pachytene. During this process, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material, leading to the non-identical nature of gametes. Crossing over does not involve the exchange of genetic material between sister chromatids, and it does not occur in mitosis. Therefore, the correct statements are:

1. It occurs during prophase I.
2. It is an event that contributes to the non-identical nature of gametes.
3. It involves exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes.

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what is the difference between a terminator nucleotide (ddntp) and a natural dna nucleotide (dntp)? group of answer choices the ddntp has a ribose sugar and the dntp has a deoxyribose sugar the ddntp has an extra phosphate on the 5' carbon the ddntp is missing a hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon use of ddntps speeds up the rate of dna synthesis

Answers

The main difference between ddNTPs and dNTPs is the presence or absence of a hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon of the sugar molecule. This difference means that ddNTPs can terminate DNA synthesis, while dNTPs can continue to participate in synthesis. The use of ddNTPs can also speed up the rate of DNA synthesis when used in conjunction with dNTPs.

Let's start with the structure of both types of nucleotides. Both ddNTPs and dNTPs are composed of a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine), a sugar molecule (ribose for dNTPs and deoxyribose for ddNTPs), and a phosphate group. The main difference between the two is that ddNTPs are missing a hydroxyl (-OH) group on the 3' carbon of the sugar molecule, while dNTPs have this hydroxyl group.

The presence or absence of this hydroxyl group is important in DNA synthesis. DNA is synthesized through the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides. During this process, the 3' hydroxyl group of one nucleotide attacks the phosphate group of the next nucleotide, forming a bond between them. This creates a chain of nucleotides that makes up the DNA molecule.

In the case of ddNTPs, the missing 3' hydroxyl group prevents the formation of phosphodiester bonds with adjacent nucleotides. This means that once a ddNTP is incorporated into the growing DNA chain, synthesis stops. This is why ddNTPs are often referred to as "terminator nucleotides" - they terminate DNA synthesis.

On the other hand, dNTPs can continue to participate in DNA synthesis, as they have the 3' hydroxyl group necessary for phosphodiester bond formation. This means that DNA synthesis can continue until all of the available dNTPs are used up or until another factor (such as a termination signal) stops synthesis.


In summary, the main difference between ddNTPs and dNTPs is the presence or absence of a hydroxyl group on the 3' carbon of the sugar molecule. This difference means that ddNTPs can terminate DNA synthesis, while dNTPs can continue to participate in synthesis. The use of ddNTPs can also speed up the rate of DNA synthesis when used in conjunction with dNTPs.

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a scientist wants to study the effect of ddt in a fish-eating bird species. she measures a variety of variables in a population of birds over a period of ten years to determine how levels of ddt affect bird survival and reproduction. which of the following identifies a scientific question she could ask to best evaluate the effect of ddt on the bird species?

Answers

The following identifies a scientific question that the scientist could ask to best evaluate the effect of DDT on the bird species is: "How do increasing levels of DDT in the environment affect the survival and reproduction rates of the bird population over a ten-year period?"

This question would allow the scientist to measure the long-term impact of DDT on the bird population, including any potential changes in behavior, migration patterns, and overall health. By measuring a variety of variables over the ten-year period, such as nesting success, eggshell thickness, and chick survival, the scientist can determine if there is a correlation between DDT levels and decreased survival and reproduction rates in the bird population.

The study could also assess if the bird species is able to adapt to the presence of DDT over time, or if the negative effects become more pronounced as exposure increases. Overall, this question would provide valuable information about the impact of DDT on the environment and the species that depend on it.The following identifies a scientific question that the scientist could ask to best evaluate the effect of DDT on the bird species is: "How do increasing levels of DDT in the environment affect the survival and reproduction rates of the bird population over a ten-year period?"

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How do the wind and ocean currents affect California’s weather?

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California’s weather is significantly affected by wind and ocean currents. The California Current, which flows from the Gulf of Alaska down to Baja California, helps to moderate temperatures along the coast.

The current brings cooler water to the surface, which cools the air above it, creating a marine layer of fog that can persist for much of the day. This marine layer can also help to trap pollutants close to the surface. In addition to ocean currents, winds play a significant role in California’s weather.

The Santa Ana winds, which blow from inland towards the coast, can cause hot and dry conditions, increasing the risk of wildfires. The winds can also stir up dust and particulate matter, leading to poor air quality.

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