The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
Communication SkillsProject Management ExperienceTechnical ProficiencyWhat are the skills about?The new graduate’s ability to have a good communication skills is vital because it make sure that your EHR implementation is well-handle as well as been organized.
Project Management Experience is one which a person uses in their EHR implementation team to know the technical as well as clinical areas of EHR implementation.
Therefore, The three factors that contribute to a new graduate’s ability to learn to work with the patient’s electronic medical records are:
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van beek m, geurts j, slangen r, et al. severity of neuropathy is associated with long-term spinal cord stimulation outcome in painful diabetic peripheral neuropathy: five-year follow-up of a prospective two-center clinical trial. diabetes care. 2018;41:32–38.
Up to 5 years after the start of treatment, SCS is effective in helping patients with PDPN manage their lower extremity chronic pain symptoms. In addition, after 5 years, 80% of PDPN patients are still using their SCS device. Additionally, a 5-year follow-up shows that the severity of neuropathy is linked to a higher risk of long-term treatment failure.
Describe neuropathy:Neuropathy is characterized by harm to or dysfunction of one or more nerves, and the most typical symptoms include pain, numbness, tingling, and weakening in the affected muscles. Although they can affect other areas of your body as well, neuropathies frequently start in your hands and feet.
What are neuropathy's four stages?Neuropathy's stages:
Stage 1: Numbness and pain.
Stage 2: Persistent pain
Stage 3: Severe Pain.
Stage 4: Total numbness/loss of sensation.
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the primary health care provider prescribes daily fasting blood glucose levels for a client with diabetes mellitus. which is the goal of fasting glucose levels for a cloent with diabetes mellitus
Answer:
A glucose level between 70 to 105 mg/dL
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. which assessment parameter should make the nurse suspect this client may be suffering from heat stroke?
The nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea therefore the assessment parameter which should be used to suspect the client may be suffering from heat stroke is the skin being hot and dry to the touch.
What is Heat stroke?This is referred to a life threatening condition in which the body is unable to cool down as a result of it not being able to control its temperature. This means that the sweating mechanism which is a cooling technique in the body has failed.
In this type of condition, there is dehydration of the body which is characterized by dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. The body also feels hot and dry to touch and rehydration techniques should be adopted immediately as it could lead to death.
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what influences patient-therapist interactions in musculoskeletal physical therapy? qualitative systematic review and meta-synthesis
In musculoskeletal physical therapy, patient-therapist interactions are thought to be influenced by a variety of interpersonal, clinical, and organizational factors.
How does physical therapy work?One of the allied health professions is physical therapy, also referred to as physiotherapy. It is given by physical therapists who, through physical examination, work to promote, preserve, or restore health.
What kind of physical therapy is an example of?To relieve muscle pain or spasms, try massage, heat or cold therapy, warm water therapy, or ultrasound rehabilitation to assist with learning to utilize an artificial limb. Practice using assistive devices to help you move or maintain balance, such as a cane or walker.
What are the three different types of physical therapy?Physical therapy in orthopedics.Physiotherapy for children.Pulmonary and Cardiovascular Rehabilitation.To know more about Physical Therapy visit?
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the nurse is assessing a client's response to sleeping pills and notes continued restlessness and inability to sleep. after an increased dose leads to sleep, which factor should the nurse investigate first?\
"Is the client now tolerant to the drug?" is the factor that the nurse should investigate first for a client who's response after an increased dose leads to sleep when taking sleeping pills and notes continued restlessness and inability to sleep.
If using sleeping drugs doesn't help you fall asleep, several guidelines suggest doctors to rethink their approach. Although they probably have looked for all of these things, they might want to do so again to make sure you don't have any habits, take any other drugs, or have any other health issues that might be keeping you up at night.
The appropriateness of your sleep drug dosage may also be checked by the doctor. The doctor may want to check your expectations for the sleeping drugs to make sure they are reasonable. So the best thing that the nurse/doctor should do is to investigate if the client is sleeping pill tolerant.
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a patient who has been prescribed enalapril (vasotec) has developed a persistent nonproductive cough. what is your best action?
A patient who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) has developed a persistent nonproductive cough.
The best action is to hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
An ACE inhibitor, Vasotec. The angiotensin-converting enzyme is referred to as ACE.
Adults and children who are at least one month old and have hypertension are treated with Vasotec.
Adults with congestive heart failure can also be treated with Vasotec.
Another condition that is treated with Vasotec is ventricular dysfunction (the lower chambers of the heart that allow blood to flow out of the heart). The heart's capacity to pump blood throughout the body may be diminished by this condition.
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which medications can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state? a. beta-blockers b. diuretics c. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. thyroid hormones
The medications which can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is referred to as beta-blockers and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?This is a serious complication which is related to diabetes mellitus and it involves the blood glucose level being high for an extended period of time thereby leading to certain symptoms.
Beta blockers is a medication which is capable of increasing the blood glucose level in the body and it also reduces the effect of oral hypoglycemic medications.
Thus is therefore the reason why beta blockers was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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during the assessment of a client, the nurse recognizes that which of the client's lifestyle practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia?
The nurse recognize that client's lifestyle strenous activity practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia.
When tissue, such as a portion of the intestine, pushes through a weak area in the abdominal muscles, it develops into an inguinal hernia. When you cough, lean over, or lift anything heavy, the ensuing bulge may hurt.Inguinal hernia is a form of hernia that develops in the groin and is frequent in males. It can be brought on by physically demanding sports and activities, especially weightlifting. A disease known as sports hernia, which has similar symptoms and even a similar name but is not a hernia, can also be brought on by strenuous activities.To know more about strenous activity visit:
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if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as:
if a patient demonstrates a disinterest in his or her health care situation, the defense mechanism is known as rationalization.
By creating comforting or self-serving but false justifications for their own or others' thoughts, actions, or feelings, rationalization is a disavowal defense mechanism that enables a person to deal with emotional conflicts or internal or external stressors. These justifications hide other motivations behind the rationalizations that are made.
By coming up with inaccurate justifications that can lessen their suffering, the defense of rationalization enables people to deal with emotional conflict or other pressures. Rationalization is a defense mechanism, an unconscious effort to avoid addressing the fundamental causes of behavior, according to Freud's standard psychoanalytic theory.
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a client who is in the first trimester is being discharged after a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum. she is to be maintained at home with rehydration infusion therapy. what is the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse?
After a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse is monitoring the client for signs of electrolyte imbalances.
What is hyperemesis gravidarum ?Terrible morning sickness and vomiting while pregnant. Only in rare cases does morning sickness reach the level of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Severe nausea and feeling lightheaded or faint upon standing are symptoms. Additionally, it may result in frequent vomiting, which can induce dehydration.
Hospitalization and therapy with IV fluids and anti-nausea drugs may be necessary for this disease.
What is the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?It is unknown what specifically causes nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. However, it is thought to be brought on by a hormone known as human chorionic gonadotropin, which is rising quickly in the blood (HCG).
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The role of a prescription medication is to activate the cells that it binds to. Which best describes how the drug works in the body?
A.The drug is a prodrug.
B. The drug is an antagonist.
C. The drug is an agonist.
D. The drug is a blocker.
A drug that binds with the specific cell receptors on the cells, activates the cells. Such drugs work as agonist. Thus, option C is correct.
What is the mechanism of drug action?The main role of drugs is to produce a considerate effect in the body against any pathogen or injury. A drug works by carrying out a specific biochemical reaction in the body.
Drugs can either activate the cell receptors or they suppress it. Drugs can also act like blockers on the cells. The drugs are prescribed specific to the diseases as well as it is taken for a specific duration.
Thus, drugs are important to treat specific illness in the body.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication.prior to administering the medication, the nurse uses an electronic database to gather 25information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. which ofthe following components of critical thinking is the nurse using when he reviews themedication information
A. CORRECT: By using the electronic database, the nurse takes the initiative to increase his knowledge base, which is the first component of critical thinking.
B. INCORRECT: The nurse has had no prior experience with administering this medication to this client.
C. INCORRECT: Intuition requires experience, which the nurse lacks in administering this medication to this client.
D. INCORRECT: Competence involves making judgments, but no one can make a judgment about how the nurse handles researching and administering this medication to this client until he performs those tasks.
Antihypertensive is a type of drug used to treat high blood pressure. There are many different types of antihypertensive agents, and they work in different ways to lower blood pressure. Some remove extra fluid and salt from the body. Others relax and widen the blood vessels or slow the heartbeat. Blood pressure medications (antihypertensives) are medicines that bring your blood pressure down in various ways.
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the nurse is giving medications to a patient in heart failure. the iv route is chosen instead of the im route. what patient function does the nurse recognize as the most influential when deciding to use the iv route of drug administration?
The nurse is giving medications to a patient in heart failure. the iv route is chosen instead of the im route. the nurse recognises diminished circulation of the patient as the most influential when deciding to use the iv route of drug administration.
Who are the nurses?A nurse is a person who care for the people.
They are trained to give care to people who are sick and injured.
They have their graduation successful and also fulfill all the needs of the hospital and qualified all the steps to become a nurse without any backlogs.
They work with the doctors and other health care workers to make patients well and to keep them fit and healthy.
Nurses also help with end-of-life needs.
Nursing is a noble profession but the training for nurse is different.
What is heart failure?it is one type of chronic condition in which the heart muscle doesn't work properly and unable to pump the required blood which a body need to functioning properly.
The causes of heart failure includes coronary artery disease, heart attack, cardiomyopathy.
Symptoms of heart failure includes irregular heart beat , dizziness, fluid and water retention, congested lungs.
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a client experiencing a manic phase of bipolar disorder sustained cuts on the body from falling through a store window. the nurse is preparing to start an intravenous needle insertion. how should the nurse explain the procedure to the client?
The nurse should explain the procedure in clear and simple terms to the client.
Bipolar disorder, formerly called manic depression, is a mental health condition that causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression).
When you become depressed, you may feel sad or hopeless and lose interest or pleasure in most activities. you may feel euphoric, full of energy, or unusually irritable. These mood swings can affect sleep, energy, activity, judgment, behavior, and the ability to think clearly.
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a nurse is teaching new parents about keeping follow-up appointments and calling their health care provider if they notice signs of illness in their newborn. the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the parents identify which signs as needing to be reported? select all that apply.
5 signs your baby is healthy and developing well is
Change diapers 8 to 10 times a day and continuous weight gain.The baby is quiet and attentive, at least some time of day.The baby calms down by listening to music.Eye contact and giggles for attention.Sleep longer and the crying will subside.How to know if something is wrong with the newborn?Weight loss, breastfeeding less, peeing little are just some of these symptoms, see others. Weight loss can be a sign that there are health problems with the baby. It is normal for a baby to lose 10-15% of weight after birth.
Whit this information we can conclude that You can see your baby moving their arms and legs disconnected. Slowly your baby will learn how to control her movements. Look into your baby's eyes and smile in response to their smile and keep looking at your baby's face
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the greatest improvements in flexibility occur as the result of stretching as a part of warm-up for cardiorespiratory and resistance training programs.
The greatest improvements in flexibility occur as the result of stretching as a part of a warm-up for cardiorespiratory and resistance training programs.
1)False
Cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF), though influenced by a number of unchangeable variables, including gender, age, and genetics, has gained attention in recent years as an objective measure of physical activity and a tool for evaluating the connection between physical activity and health status [30,31]. As a result, correlations between CRF and indices of abdominal obesity may hint at a link between physical activity and abdominal obesity. The results of research that took precise measurements of VAT are particularly significant. The early investigation on the topic found that VAT was not correlated significantly with CRF, only with the quantity of total abdominal adipose tissue and SAT [32].
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he dietary supplement health and education act of 1994 allows manufacturers to classify nutrient supplements and herbal products as rather than , reducing the testing they must undergo before marketing.
The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 permits makers to group supplement enhancements and home grown items as food rather than medications, lessening the testing they should go through prior to marketing.
What did the 1994 DSHEA do?The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 was sanctioned to restrict dietary producers and wholesalers from making false claims such as writing natural or therapeutic on supplement marks.The law likewise disallows the assembling and offer of adulterated dietary enhancements.The DSHEA means to make dietary enhancements more secure by disallowing makers and wholesalers from creating and selling mislabeled or adulterated items.The DSHEA expects that the maker of the dietary enhancement guarantees that their item meets DSHEA and FDA guidelines.Under the DSHEA, supplements with established ingredients (those that were sold in the United States before 1994) can be sold without any proof of security or adequacy.As opposed to dietary enhancements, prescription and non-prescription medicine can't be sold in the U.S. without strong proof that they are safe.Therefore the dietary enhancements like home remedies and nutrients, are not naturally more secure than prescription or non-prescription meds.Learn more about DSHEA here:
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Which brain structure is most responsible for the processing of emotions?
Answer:
Limbic system
while assessing a newborn infant, the nurse observes yellow–white retention cysts in the newborn’s mouth. the nurse should explain to the infant’s parents that these spots are usually indicative of
When an individual is exposed to extremely cold air the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that more blood will be brought closer to the outside surface of the skin. True or false?.
Answer: true
Explanation:
assessing the usability of wearable devices to measure gait and physical activity in chronic conditions: a systematic review
The necessity of patient involvement is emphasized in the worldwide plan for digital health developed by the World Health Organization. A key part of this is comprehending the usefulness and acceptability of wearable technology.
However, up until now, the majority of usability tests have been on healthy individuals. Understanding how wearable technology affects patients with chronic health issues is important.In five cohorts of people with chronic conditions (Parkinson's disease [PD], multiple sclerosis [MS], congestive heart failure [CHF], chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder [COPD], and proximal femoral fracture [PFF]), usability assessments of wearable devices were used to measure mobility through gait and physical activity.Usability of wearable technology is a variable in chronic health disorders that is poorly studied and reported. The voice of the patient should not be taken for granted, despite the fact that the variety in how these devices are applied suggests approval.Wearable technology is not successful in chronic health disorders.
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at 1130 hrs, your patient has 150 ml left in his iv bag. it is infusing at 30 gtt/min. drop factor is 15 gtt/ml. do you have enough iv solution left to go to lunch (30 min) now, without changing the iv bag?
According to the given statement the time required 15 minutes after getting back from lunch.
Time calculation as defined:Time goes by very swiftly as things continue to change minute by minute.
To calculate time, use the time equation t = d/s, which asserts that duration is equal to length divided by speed.
According to the given statement:30 gtt/min
(Medication given)
× 1 ml/15 gtt
(I.V. tubing drop factor)
2 ml / minute
(flow rate in minutes), or
2 ml / minute multiplied by 60 minutes equals one hour.
converting factor
120 ml / hour
(flow Rate in hours)
Do you have enough IV solution left to last through a 30-minute meal without having to change your IV bag?1 hour is equal to 1130 hours plus 30 minutes.
The amount of fluid remaining in the IV bag after one hour, at midday, will be 150 ml - 120 ml = 30 ml.
Answer:
Yes,
You can go without changing the IV bag for lunch.
Minutes will it take to change the iv bag:150 ml
(Amount to Infuse)
x 1 minute/2 ml
(Flow rate)
=
75 minutes
(time to infuse), or
15 minutes after getting back from lunch.
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List three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body
The three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body include muscle fibers, technique, and fitness.
What is exercise?Any movement that engages your muscles and forces your body to burn calories is considered exercise. There are many different kinds of physical activity, to name a few: swimming, running, jogging, walking, and dancing. Numerous health advantages of exercise, both physically and emotionally, have been demonstrated.
The ratio of mechanical work rate to energy expenditure is a general definition of exercise effectiveness.
In this case, the three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body include muscle fibers, technique, and fitness.
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a patient is scheduled for cryoablation for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "i am not exactly sure what the surgeon is going to do." what is the best response by the nurse?
Liquid nitrogen or an extremely cold probe are used in cryoablation to freeze tissue and destroy cells. Rectal, prostate, and cervical cancers are treated with it. Chemosurgery involves administering drugs. A laser is used during laser surgery. The use of radiofrequency ablation involves thermal energy.
Describe surgery:Licensed to practice medicine, perform surgery, and write prescriptions for medication is a doctor of osteopathic medicine (OD).
What makes surgery so important?Surgery may be necessary for a variety of reasons, including the establishment or confirmation of a diagnosis, the removal of a growth or obstruction, the repair or realignment of tissues or organs, the implantation of devices, the rerouting of blood vessels, or the transplantation of tissues or organs. Surgery is chosen by some individuals for cosmetic purposes.
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during a health assessment interview, a nurse learns that the client has a family history of colorectal cancer. what information should the nurse give the client about reducing the risk for colorectal cancer? select all that apply.
A nurse discovers that a client has a family history of colorectal cancer during a health assessment session. The nurse should educate the patient on ways to lower their risk of developing colorectal cancer, such as engaging in at least 30 minutes of regular exercise each day, obtaining an annual FOBT, and consuming enough folic acid in their diet.
Increase your intake of fruits, veggies, and whole grains since they provide vital vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that the body desperately needs. Give up drinking and smoking.
Regularly engage in physical activity, such as yoga. Maintain a healthy weight and an active lifestyle. As people age, their chance of colorectal cancer rises. Although young adults and teens can get colorectal cancer, those over the age of 50 account for the majority of cases. For males with colon cancer, the average age of diagnosis is 68, whereas for women it is 72.
Overall, getting frequent colorectal cancer screenings, starting at age 45, is the most efficient strategy to lower your chance of developing the disease. Precancerous polyps (abnormal growths) in the colon or rectum are where almost all colorectal malignancies start. Increasing both the quantity and the intensity of your exercise may help lower your risk.
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How do antibody tests allow scientists to target & id specific disease agents? explain, discussing immune response.
Answer:
because it does just look up the answer on Goo Gle
Explanation:
the answer is above
community care center has 200 beds. it has an average length of stay of years. most of the patients are elderly, but there are some younger patients with serious chronic illnesses. community care center is most likely a(n) facility.
The community care center is most likely a long term care facility. The correct option is c.
What is long term care facility?Long-term care facilities aids the patients who are not being able to stay independently with either of the medical and personal support services.
Long-term care is renowned to a range of services designed to meet a person's health or any personal care requirements for a long period of time.
When person cannot initiate or complete daily activities on their own, these services provide them live as independently as well as safely as possible.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
a. Acute care
b. Rehabilitation
c. Long-term care
d. Behavioral health
studies shows that "crack babies" who are entering school have significant difficulty dealing with multiple stimuli and forming close attachments. how might both genetic and environmental influences have combined to produce these results?
studies shows that "crack babies" who are entering school have significant difficulty dealing with multiple stimuli and forming close attachments. how might both genetic and environmental influences have combined to produce these results?
how many rights of delegation are there in the nursing practice? record your answer using a whole number.
Answer:5
Explanation:
The 5 Rights clarify the components of the delegation's decision-making process. The 5 Rights outline professional and legal responsibility for nurses at all levels and classes, from nursing service administrators to staff nurses.
What are the five rights of the nursing delegation?The five rights of delegation serve to guide the appropriate transfer of responsibility for the performance of an activity to another person. These "rights" are defined as having the right task, the right circumstance, the right person, the right direction/communication, and the right supervision/evaluation.
With this information, we can conclude that The Five (5) Rights of Delegation clarify the critical components of the delegation decision-making process.
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a client begins escitalopram for treatment of a depressive episode. on the fifth day, the client refuses the medication, stating, ‘it doesn’t help, so what's the use of taking it> which is the best response by the nurse?
"There is no need for the nurse to notify the health care provider yet." is the best response by the nurse for a client that begins escitalopram for treatment of a depressive episode.
Typically, it takes one to four weeks for escitalopram to reach a therapeutic blood level (Lexapro). It's too long—six to eight weeks. The patient requires longer time, not a higher dosage, to see a medication's effects.
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) called escitalopram is used to treat anxiety and major depressive disorder (MDD). This medication inhibits the transport of human serotonin in a highly powerful, dose-dependent manner.
This medication increases the action of serotonin in the central nervous system by preventing its reuptake into presynaptic nerve ends. Additionally, escitalopram exhibits allosteric action. Additionally, there is little chance that it will interact with other medications.
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