Tom is climbing a 3.0-m-long ladder that leans against a vertical wall, contacting the wall 2.5 m above the ground. His weight of 680 N is a vector pointing vertically downward. (Weight is measured in newtons, abbreviated N).
A) What is the magnitude of the component of Tom's weight parallel to the ladder?
B) What is the magnitude of the component of Tom's weight perpendicular to the ladder?

Answer:

The  time interval is  [tex]t = 3 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The angular acceleration is  [tex]\alpha = 4.0 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

     The  time taken is  [tex]t = 4.0 \ s[/tex]

      The angular displacement is  [tex]\theta = 80 \ radians[/tex]

The angular displacement can be represented by the second equation of motion as shown below

          [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2[/tex]

where  [tex]w_i[/tex] is the initial velocity at the start of the 4 second interval

So substituting values

        [tex]80 = w_i * 4 + 0.5 * 4.0 * (4^2)[/tex]

=>    [tex]w_i = 12 \ rad/s[/tex]

Now considering this motion starting from the start point (that is rest ) we have

       [tex]w__{4.0 }} = w__{0}} + \alpha * t[/tex]

Where  [tex]w__{0}}[/tex] is the angular velocity at rest which is zero  and  [tex]w__{4}}[/tex] is the angular velocity after 4.0 second which is calculated as 12 rad/s s

        [tex]12 = 0 + 4 t[/tex]

=>       [tex]t = 3 \ s[/tex]

Following are the response to the given question:

Given:

[tex]\to \alpha = 4.0 \ \frac{rad}{s^2}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to \theta= 80\ radians\\\\\to t= 4.0 \ s\\\\ \to \theta_0=0\\[/tex]

To find:

[tex]\to \omega=?\\\\\to t=?\\\\[/tex]

Solution:

Using formula:

[tex]\to \theta- \theta_0 = w_{0} t+ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\ \to 80-0= \omega_{0}(4) + \frac{1}{2} (4)(4^2)\\\\ \to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + \frac{1}{2} (4)(16)\\\\\\to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + (4)(8)\\\\\to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + 32\\\\\to 80-32 = \omega_{0}(4) \\\\\to \omega_{0}(4)= 48 \\\\\to \omega_{0}= \frac{48}{4} \\\\ \to \omega_{0} = 12 \frac{rad}{ s} \\\\[/tex]  

It would be the angle for rotation at the start of the 4-second interval.

This duration can be estimated by leveraging the fact that the wheel begins from rest.  

[tex]\to \omega = \omega_{0} + \alpha t\\\\\to 12 = 0 +4(t) \\\\\to 12 = 4(t) \\\\ \to t=\frac{12}{4}\\\\\to t= 3\ s[/tex]

Therefore, the answer is "[tex]12\ \frac{rad}{s}[/tex] and [tex]3 \ s[/tex]".

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Answer:

If the magnitude of the field is decreasing with time the direction of the induced magnetic field is CLOCKWISE

Explanation

This is because If the magnetic field decreases with time, the electric field will be produced in order to oppose the change in line with lenz law. Thus The right hand rule can be applied to find that the direction of electric field is in the clockwise direction.

Answer:

5.33333... seconds

Explanation:

800 divided by 150 is equal to 5.33333... because it is per second that the cheetah moves at 150miles, the answer is 5.3333.....

Explanation:

Newton's third law of motion states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction. This means that forces always act in pairs. Action and reaction forces are equal and opposite, but they are not balanced forces because they act on different objects so they don't cancel out.

Answer:

constant horizontal force developed in the coupling C = 11.25KN

the friction force developed between the tires of the truck and the road during this time is 33.75KN

Explanation:

See attached file

The friction force between the tires of the truck and the road is 22500 N.

It is given that a 2 Mg truck ( m = 2000 Kg) is initially moving with a speed of u = 15 m/s.

Distance traveled before coming to rest, s = 10m

The final velocity of the truck will be zero, v = 0

When the breaks are applied, only the frictional force is acting on the truck and it is opposite to the motion of the truck.

The frictional force is given by:

f = -ma

the acceleration of the truck = -a

The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is opposite to the motion.

Applying the third equation of motion we get:

v² = u² -2as

0 = 15² - 2×a×10

225 = 20a

a = 11.25 m/s²

So the magnitude of frictional force is:

f = ma = 2000 × 11.25 N

f = 22500 N

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Answer:

31.55° and 148.45°

Explanation:

Formula for calculating the force experiences by the proton placed in a magnetic field is as expressed below;

F = qvBsinθ where;

F is the magnetic force experienced by the proton

q is the charge on the proton

v is the velocity of the proton

B is the magnetic field

θ is the angle between the proton's velocity and the field (Required)

Given parameters

F =  7.00 * 10⁻¹³N

q = 1.602*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 4.80 * 10⁶ m/s

B = 1.74 T

θ  =?

From the formula F = qvBsinθ;

sinθ = F/qvB

sinθ = 7.00 * 10⁻¹³/1.602*10⁻¹⁹* 4.80 * 10⁶*1.74

sinθ =  7.00 * 10⁻¹³/13.38*10⁻¹³

sinθ = 0.5231689 * 10⁰

sinθ = 0.5231689

θ = sin⁻¹0.5231689

θ = 31.55°

The following are the positive values of the angle between 0° and 360°

Sin is positive in the first and second quadrant. In the second quadrant the angle is equal to 180°-31.55° = 148.45°.

Hence the possible values of the angle from smallest to largest are 31.55° and 148.45°

Answer:

  B. matching your speed

Explanation:

To merge safely, you must identify a gap in traffic and match your speed to the speed of the gap. Before you make your move to fill the gap, you should signal your intent.*

_____

* At least one resource says "The first step ... is to make sure you're traveling at the same speed ..." Then it goes on to say "Use your indicator. Do it early ...." The accompanying animation shows blinkers being activated on the ramp before the merge lane is entered. Apparently, "the first step" is not necessarily the first thing you do.

Answer:

It's C "signaling your intent"

Explanation:

The key thing to look at is they are asking the rest of the first step and that;s C

A wedge of glass of refractive index 1.64 has a silver coating on the bottom, as shown in the image attached below.

Determine the smallest distance x to a position where 450-nm light reflected from the top surface of the glass interferes constructively with light reflected from the silver coating on the bottom. The light changes phase when reflected at the silver coating.

Answer:

the smallest distance x  = 2.74 × 10⁻³ m or 2.74 mm

Explanation:

From the given information:

The net phase change is zero because both the light ray reflecting from the air-glass surface and silver plate undergo a phase change of [tex]\dfrac{\lambda}{2}[/tex] , as such the condition for the  constructive interference is:

nΔy = mλ

where;

n = refractive index

Δy = path length (inside the glass)

So, from the diagram;

[tex]\dfrac{y}{x}=\dfrac{10^{-5} \ m}{0.2 \ m}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{y}{x} = 5 \times 10^{-5}[/tex]

[tex]y = 5 \times 10^{-5} x[/tex]

Now;

Δy can now be = 2 ( 5 × 10⁻⁵ [tex]x[/tex])

Δy =1 ×  10⁻⁴[tex]x[/tex]

From nΔy = mλ

n( 1 ×  10⁻⁴[tex]x[/tex] ) = mλ

[tex]x = \dfrac{m \lambda}{n \times 1 \times 10^{-4} }[/tex]

when the thickness is minimum then m = 1

Thus;

[tex]x = \dfrac{1 \times 450 \times 10^{-9} \ m}{1.64 \times 1 \times 10^{-4} }[/tex]

x =  0.00274 m

x = 2.74 × 10⁻³ m or 2.74 mm

Answer: B. The surface of the coating is rough, so light that shines on it gets scattered in many directions.

Explanation: On Edge!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

Explanation:

Intensity of the sunlight is expressed as I  = Power/cross sectional area. It is measured in W/m²

Given parameters

Power rating = 6.50Watts

Cross sectional area = 100cm²

Before we calculate the intensity, we need to convert the area to m² first.

100cm² = 10cm * 10cm

SInce 100cm = 1m

10cm = (10/100)m

10cm = 0.1m

100cm² = 0.1m * 0.1m = 0.01m²

Area (in m²) = 0.01m²

Required

Intensity of the sunlight I

I = P/A

I = 6.5/0.01

I = 650W/m²

Hence, the intensity of the sunlight in W/m² is 650W/m²

Answer:

Δx = 9 x 10⁻³ m = 9 mm

Explanation:

The formula for fringe spacing in Young's Double Slit Experiment is given as follows:

Δx = λL/d

where,

Δx = fringe spacing = ?

λ = wavelength of light = 450 nm = 450 x 10⁻⁹ m

L = Distance between slits and screen = 2 m

d = distance between slits = 0.1 mm = 0.1 x 10⁻³ m

Therefore,

Δx = (450 x 10⁻⁹ m)(2 m)/(0.1 x 10⁻³ m)

Δx = 9 x 10⁻³ m = 9 mm

Answer:

a

Explanation:

The correct answer would be that the apparent depth of the object is less than the real depth.

The refractive property of light as it passes from air to water would make the depth of the pool appear less shallow than the actual depth to an observed. Hence, an object placed at the bottom of the pool will have an apparent depth that is shallower than its actual depth.

Due to the difference in the density of air and that of water, as the ray of light from an observer standing at the edge of a swimming pool travels from air into the water, it becomes refracted by bending away from the original traveling angle.

The same refraction occurs when light rays from an object inside the pool travel from water into the air. Hence, due to the refraction of the ray of light coming from the object at the bottom of the pool, the depth appears shallower than the actual depth.

Correct option: a

Answer:

c. 66 V

Explanation:

p =IV

I =P/V

P1/V1=P2/V2

60/110=36/V2

0.55 = 36/V2

V2 =36/0.55 = 65.5V

V2 = 66V

Answer:

The force is  [tex]F = 172 \ N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the block is  [tex]m_b = 27.0 \ kg[/tex]

     The  coefficient of  static friction is  [tex]\mu_s = 0.65[/tex]

     The coefficient of kinetic friction is  [tex]\mu_k = 0.50[/tex]

The  normal force acting on the block is  

      [tex]N = m * g[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]N = 27 * 9.8[/tex]

     [tex]N = 294.6 \ N[/tex]

Given that the force we are to find is the force required to get the block to start moving then the force acting against this force is the static frictional force which is mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]F_f = \mu_s * N[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]F_f = 0.65 * 264.6[/tex]

        [tex]F_f = 172 \ N[/tex]

Now for this  block to move the force require is  equal to [tex]F_f[/tex] i.e

       [tex]F= F_f[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = 172 \ N[/tex]

Answer:

A) 1.76U×10⁻³N

B) 2.716×10⁻³N

C) 264.5⁰

Explanation:

See detailed workings for (a), (b), (c) attached.

Answer:

The inventors  claim is not real

a)  No the the freezer cannot operate in such conditions

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  power input is  [tex]P_i = 0.25 kW = 0.25 *10^{3} \ W[/tex]

      The  rate of heat transfer [tex]J = 3050 J/s[/tex]

       The temperature of the freezer content is [tex]T = 270 \ K[/tex]

       The  ambient temperature is  [tex]T_a = 293 \ K[/tex]

Generally the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator at idea conditions is mathematically represented as

      [tex]COP = \frac{T }{Ta - T}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]COP = \frac{270 }{293 - 270}[/tex]

     [tex]COP =11.7[/tex]

Generally the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator at real conditions is mathematically represented as

       [tex]COP = \frac{J}{P_i}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]COP = \frac{3050}{0.25 *10^{3}}[/tex]

       [tex]COP = 12.2[/tex]

Now given that the COP  of an ideal refrigerator is  less that that of a real refrigerator then the claims of the inventor is rejected

This is because the there are loss in the real refrigerator cycle that are suppose to reduce the COP compared to an ideal refrigerator cycle where there no loss that will reduce the COP

Answer:

The  potential energy is [tex]PE = 2.031 *10^{-7} \ J[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The inner radius is  [tex]r_i = 5 \ mm = 0.005 \ m[/tex]

      The outer radius is  [tex]r_o = 11 \ mm = 0.011 \ m[/tex]

     The  common length is  [tex]l = 160 \ m[/tex]

      The  potential  difference is   [tex]V = 6 \ V[/tex]

Generally the capacitance of the cylindrical capacitor is mathematically represented as

       [tex]C = \frac{2 \pi * k * \epsilon_o }{ ln \frac{ r_o }{r_i} } * l[/tex]

Where  [tex]\epsilon _o[/tex] is the permitivity of free space with the values [tex]\epsilon _o = 8.85*10^{-12} \ m^{-3} \cdot kg^{-1}\cdot s^4 \cdot A^2[/tex]

and  k  is the dielectric constant  of the dielectric material here the  dielectric material is free space so  k  =   1

     Substituting values

             [tex]C = \frac{2* 3.142 * 1 * 8.85*10^{-12} }{ ln \frac{ 0.011}{0.005} } * 160[/tex]

             [tex]C = 1.129 *10^{-8} \ F[/tex]

The potential energy stored is mathematically represented as

       [tex]PE = \frac{1}{2} * C * V ^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]PE = 0.5 * 1.129 *10^{-8} * (6)^2[/tex]

      [tex]PE = 2.031 *10^{-7} \ J[/tex]

Answer:

A) 1.4167 × 10^(-11) F

B) r_a = 0.031 m

C) E = 3.181 × 10⁴ N/C

Explanation:

We are given;

Charge;Q = 3.40 nC = 3.4 × 10^(-9) C

Potential difference;V = 240 V

Inner radius of outer sphere;r_b = 4.1 cm = 0.041 m

A) The formula for capacitance is given by;

C = Q/V

C = (3.4 × 10^(-9))/240

C = 1.4167 × 10^(-11) F

B) To find the radius of the inner sphere,we will make use of the formula for capacitance of spherical coordinates.

C = (4πε_o)/(1/r_a - 1/r_b)

Rearranging, we have;

(1/r_a - 1/r_b) = (4πε_o)/C

ε_o is a constant with a value of 8.85 × 10^(−12) C²/N.m

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(1/r_a - 1/0.041) = (4π × 8.85 × 10^(−12) )/(1.4167 × 10^(-11))

(1/r_a) - 24.3902 = 7.8501

1/r_a = 7.8501 + 24.3902

1/r_a = 32.2403

r_a = 1/32.2403

r_a = 0.031 m

C) Formula for Electric field just outside the surface of the inner sphere is given by;

E = kQ/r_a²

Where k is a constant value of 8.99 × 10^(9) Nm²/C²

Thus;

E = (8.99 × 10^(9) × 3.4 × 10^(-9))/0.031²

E = 3.181 × 10⁴ N/C

Answer:

Power = Force × Distance/time

Power = Force × Velocity

Power = 2,300.0 N × 28.0 m/s²

Power = 64400 Nm/s

Explanation:

First show the formula of Power

Re-arrange formula and used to work out Power

Pretty simple stuff!

Hope this Helps!!

Answer:

Explanation:

The greatest speed is attained at middle point or equilibrium point or where displacement from equilibrium point is zero .

When the object remains at one of the extreme point it experiences greatest acceleration but at that point velocity is zero . Due to acceleration , its velocity goes on increasing till it come to equilibrium point . At this point acceleration becomes zero . After that its velocity starts decreasing because of negative acceleration . Hence at middle point velocity is maximum .

The greatest acceleration is attained at maximum displacement or at one of the two extreme end .

Greatest restoring force too will be at position where acceleration is maximum because acceleration is produced by restoring force .

Restoring force is proportional to displacement or extension against restoring force . So it will be maximum when displacement is maximum .

Zero restoring force exists at equilibrium position or middle point or at point where displacement is zero . It is so because acceleration at that point is zero .

Answer:

   R = r_protón / 2

Explanation:

The alpha particle when entering the magnetic field experiences a force and with Newton's second law we can describe its movement

      F = m a

Since the magnetic force is perpendicular, the acceleration is centripetal.

       a = v² / R

the magnetic force is

       F = q v x B = q v B sin θ

the field and the speed are perpendicular so the sin 90 = 1

we substitute

          qv B = m v² / R

          R = q v B / m v²

in the exercise they indicate

the charge  q = 2 e

the mass     m = 4 m_protón

        R = 2e v B / 4m_protón v²

we refer the result to the movement of the proton

         R = (e v B / m_proton) 1/2

the data in parentheses correspond to the radius of the proton's orbit

         R = r_protón / 2

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image  

Answer:

a

 [tex]a_{max} = 0.00246 \ m/s^2[/tex]

b

   [tex]k =722.2 \ N/m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  amplitude is [tex]A = 1.8 \ cm = 0.018 \ m[/tex]

     The period is [tex]T = 17 \ s[/tex]

    The test weight is  [tex]W = 13 \ N[/tex]

Generally the radial acceleration is mathematically represented as

        [tex]a = w^2 r[/tex]

at maximum angular acceleration

       [tex]r = A[/tex]

So  

       [tex]a_{max} = w^2 A[/tex]

Now [tex]w[/tex] is the angular velocity which is mathematically represented as

      [tex]w = \frac{2 * \pi }{T}[/tex]

Therefore

       [tex]a_{max} = [\frac{2 * \pi}{T} ]^2 * A[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]a_{max} = [\frac{2 * 3.142}{17} ]^2 * 0.018[/tex]

       [tex]a_{max} = 0.00246 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Generally this test weight is mathematically represented as

     [tex]W = k * A[/tex]

Where k is the spring constant

Therefore

        [tex]k = \frac{W}{A}[/tex]

substituting values        

      [tex]k = \frac{13}{0.018}[/tex]

     [tex]k =722.2 \ N/m[/tex]

Answer:

Current that flows through any one of the resistors has a value of 12 amperes.

Explanation:

When a group of resistors are connected in series, the same current flows through each resistor. According to the Ohm's Law, the circuit can be represented as follows:

[tex]V_{batt} = i\cdot (R_{1}+R_{2}+R_{3})[/tex]

[tex]i = \frac{V_{batt}}{R_{1}+R_{2}+R_{3}}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]V_{batt}[/tex] - Voltage of the battery, measured in volts.

[tex]R_{1}[/tex], [tex]R_{2}[/tex], [tex]R_{3}[/tex] - Electric resistance of the first, second and third resistors, measured in ohms.

[tex]i[/tex] - Current, measured in amperes.

If [tex]R_{1} = R_{2} = R_{3} = R[/tex], then:

[tex]i = \frac{V_{batt}}{3\cdot R}[/tex]

Current that flows through any one of the resistors has a value of 12 amperes.

The current flows via any of the resistors should have a value of 12 amperes.

At the time When a group of resistors are linked in series, so there is a similar current flow via each resistor.

Here the circuit should be

vbatt = i.(R1 + R2+ R3)

i = Vbatt/R1 + R2 + R3

here

Vbatt means the voltage of the battery

R1,R2, and R3 means the resistance of the first, second and third resistors

I means the current

So, in the case when

R1 = R2 = R3 = R

So,

i = Vbatt/3.R

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Answer:

Body inertia I = 4.5 kg/m^2

Explanation:

Here, we want to calculate the body inertia when the arms are stretched outwards.

We know from the question that angular momentum is conserved

Thus;

I * 3 = 4.5 * 3

I = 4.5 kg/m^2

Answer:

V = 451.47 volts

Explanation:

Given that,

Distance, d = 0.21 m

Initial speed, u = 0

Time, t = 33.3 ns

Let v is the final velocity. Using second equation of motion as :

[tex]d=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}at^2[/tex]

a is acceleration, [tex]a=\dfrac{v-u}{t}[/tex] and u = 0

So,

[tex]d=\dfrac{1}{2}(v-u)t[/tex]

[tex]v=\dfrac{2d}{t}\\\\v=\dfrac{2\times 0.21}{33.3\times 10^{-9}}\\\\v=1.26\times 10^7\ m/s[/tex]

Now applying the conservation of energy i.e.

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2=qV[/tex]

V is voltage

[tex]V=\dfrac{mv^2}{2q}\\\\V=\dfrac{9.1\times 10^{-31}\times (1.26\times 10^7)^2}{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}}\\\\V=451.47\ V[/tex]

So, the voltage is 451.47 V.

Answer:

4 tonne/m³

Explanation:

ρ = m / V

ρ = 49 g / (π (17.4 mm / 2)² (50.3 mm))

ρ = 0.0041 g/mm³

Converting to tonnes/m³:

ρ = 0.0041 g/mm³ (1 kg / 1000 g) (1 tonne / 1000 kg) (1000 mm / m)³

ρ = 4.1 tonne/m³

Rounding to one significant figure, the density is 4 tonne/m³.

Note: if the professor wants the distance between the m = 0 and m = 1 maxima to be 25 cm

Answer:

d = 1.0128×10⁻⁵m

Explanation:

given:

length L = 4.0m

maximum distance between m = 0 and m = 1 , y = 25cm = 0.25m

wavelength λ = 633nm = 633×10⁻⁹m

note:

dsinθ = mλ (constructive interference)

where d is slit seperation, θ is angle of seperation , m is order of interference , and λ is wavelength

for small angle

sinθ ≈ tanθ

[tex]d (\frac{y}{L}) =[/tex] mλ

[tex]d (\frac{y}{L}) = (1)(633nm)[/tex]

[tex]d(\frac{0.25}{4} ) = (1)(633nm)[/tex]

d = 1.0128×10⁻⁵m

Answer:

Explanation:

Area of the loop = a b

current = I

magnetic moment of the loop M  = area x current

= ab I

Torque on the loop = MB sinθ

here θ = 90

Torque = MB

= abIB

In this case net force on the loop will be zero because here torque is created by two equal and opposite force acting on two opposite sides of the loop so net force will be zero .

Answer:

 x = 0.006 m

Explanation:

The potential at one point is given by

          V = k ∑ [tex]q_{i} / r_{i}[/tex]

remember that the potential is to scale, let's apply to our case

          V = k (q₁ / x₁ + q₂ / x₂ + q₃ / x)

in this case they indicate that the potential is zero

          0 = k (2 10⁻⁶ / (- 1 10⁻²) + (-6 10⁻⁶) / 2 10⁻² + ​​3 10⁻⁶ / x)

         3 / x = + 2 / 10⁻² + ​​3 / 10⁻²

         3 / x = 500

          x = 3/500

          x = 0.006 m

Answer:

C) Each successive stage lasts for approximately the same amount of time.

Explanation:

Nuclear burning is a series of nuclear processes through which a star gets its energy. The energy within a star is due to nuclear fusion of lighter elements (hydrogen) into more massive element (helium), with a release of a large amount of energy due to the conversion of some of the mass into energy. Each stage leads to a loss of some of the mass which is converted into energy (option A is valid).

The fusion of four hydrogen atoms into one helium atom means that there is a creation of element with a higher atomic weight (option D is valid), and the energy output of each stage exceeds its energy input, meaning that each stage will require a higher temperature than its previous stages (option B is valid).