The graphs represent the growth of two populations of
American bullfrogs in neighboring habitats.
Population
Habitat A
Time
Population
Habitat B
Time
Which statement is supported by the information provided?
A. Habitat A has more living space that is suitable for bullfrogs.

O B. Habitat B has more predators of bullfrogs.

O C. Habitat B contains more resources for bullfrogs.

O D. Habitat A can support a larger population of bullfrogs.

The Graphs Represent The Growth Of Two Populations OfAmerican Bullfrogs In Neighboring Habitats.PopulationHabitat

Answers

Answer 1

Eat natural food. By reducing pesticide and fertilizer use, you at once assist in reducing the quantity of chemical contamination that affects many amphibian species. Avoid releasing environmental estrogens into the water.

What is the habitat choice of the American bullfrog?

A. Habitat A has greater living area that is suitable for bullfrogs.  O B. Habitat B has extra predators of bullfrogs.  O C. Habitat B consists of more sources for bullfrogs.  O D. Habitat A can aid a larger population of bullfrogs.

American bullfrogs occupy a extensive vary of each herbal and manmade habitats, inclusive of lakes, ponds, swamps, marshes, brackish waters, streams, rivers, ditches, and canals. They pick warm, sluggish or stagnant waters with abundant vegetation, however are additionally observed along the shores of lakes and banks of streams.

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Related Questions

Help me solve this please!

Answers

1. a. Heterozygous: Ff, b. Homozygous Dominant: FF, c. Homozygous Recessive: ff

2. a. Curly: CC, b. Wavy: C'C, c. Straight: C'C'

Describe Genotype?

Genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual organism, which includes all of the genes that an organism carries in its DNA. It represents the complete set of inherited instructions that determine the physical and behavioral traits of an organism.

Genotype is typically described using letters that represent different versions of a gene called alleles. Each individual has two alleles for each gene, one inherited from each parent. If the two alleles are the same, the individual is said to be homozygous for that gene, whereas if the two alleles are different, the individual is heterozygous.

The dominant allele is expressed when present in either the homozygous or heterozygous state, while the recessive allele is only expressed when present in the homozygous state.

1. a. Heterozygous: Ff

b. Homozygous Dominant: FF

c. Homozygous Recessive: ff

2. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant or recessive, and the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes. Using "C" and "C'" helps to avoid confusion with the conventional use of upper and lower case letters to indicate dominance and recessiveness.

The three possible genotypes for hair type would be:

a. Curly: CC

b. Wavy: C'C

c. Straight: C'C'

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What is the wall of the heart mainly composed of?

Answers

Answer:

The walls of the heart are composed primarily of cardiac muscles called myocardium

experiment
• An explanation of the methods of randomization that a researcher can
use to randomly assign participants
• An explanation of how a researcher can draw conclusions without
randomization

Answers

Randomization is a critical method in research that ensures that the groups being studied are as similar as possible, thereby eliminating bias and increasing the validity of the research findings. There are several methods of randomization that a researcher can use to assign participants to groups. One method is simple randomization, where participants are assigned to groups randomly, such as flipping a coin or drawing numbers from a hat. Another method is block randomization, where participants are assigned to groups based on predetermined blocks of criteria, such as age, gender, or race.

However, in some cases, randomization may not be feasible or ethical. In such instances, researchers can draw conclusions without randomization by using quasi-experimental designs. In a quasi-experimental design, participants are not randomly assigned to groups, but rather groups are formed based on pre-existing criteria, such as geographic location or pre-existing conditions. In such cases, researchers must be careful to control for any confounding variables that may influence the outcomes of the study.

Researchers can also use observational studies to draw conclusions without randomization. In an observational study, researchers observe and collect data on participants, without any intervention or manipulation. While observational studies cannot establish cause-and-effect relationships, they can provide valuable insights into the relationships between variables.

Overall, while randomization is a powerful method for eliminating bias and increasing the validity of research findings, there are alternative methods that researchers can use to draw conclusions when randomization is not feasible or ethical.

Attach your TABLE (Provided above showing the migration distances for the MW markers (1 kb ladder), PCR fragment, and vector, both digested and undigested. You should have calculated the sizes for each band you detected on your gel using the standard curve you generated from the MWM). Make sure these sizes are entered on the TABLE. Attach your log-linear graph with standard curve
1. How many bands did you detect in the lane with undigested plasmid? What size(s) were they? Explain each band. 2. How many bands did you detect in the plasmid cut with BamHI? Basing your answer on this result, how many sites are there in the plasmid? 3. Compare the insert digested with BamHI with the undigested insert: do you see a size difference? Explain. 4. Given the sizes of the vector and PCR product, what is the expected size of the plasmid constructed by ligating the two? Explain

Answers

There are 17 rings that still contain undigested plastic. Sizes range from 100 to 12000. The rings cover a range of three to twelve centimeters. They can grow to various sizes as a result of this.

To determine the number of bands detected in the lane with undigested plasmid, count the number of distinct bands observed on the gel. The size(s) of each band can be determined by comparing their migration distance to the molecular weight markers (MWM) that were run on the same gel. Each band represents a different sized fragment of DNA that is present in the plasmid sample. The explanation for each band would depend on the context of the experiment and the specific plasmid being analyzed.

To determine the number of bands detected in the plasmid cut with BamHI, count the number of distinct bands observed on the gel. The number of bands should correspond to the number of sites that the restriction enzyme BamHI recognizes and cuts within the plasmid. For example, if two bands are observed, this would indicate that BamHI recognizes and cuts at two specific sites in the plasmid.

To compare the insert digested with BamHI with the undigested insert, compare the sizes of the bands observed in each lane. If a size difference is observed, this would indicate that the BamHI digestion cleaved the insert at specific sites, resulting in fragments of a smaller size compared to the undigested insert. This would confirm that the insert contains BamHI recognition sites.

To calculate the expected size of the plasmid constructed by ligating the vector and PCR product, add the sizes of the vector and PCR product together. For example, if the vector is 4 kb and the PCR product is 2 kb, the expected size of the ligated plasmid would be 6 kb. This assumes that the vector and PCR product were both cut with compatible restriction enzymes, allowing for successful ligation.

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Full Question ;

Attach your TABLE (Provided above showing the migration distances for the MW markers (1 kb ladder), PCR fragment, and vector, both digested and undigested. You should have calculated the sizes for each band you detected on your gel using the standard curve you generated from the MWM). Make sure these sizes are entered on the TABLE. Attach your log-linear graph with standard curve 1. How many bands did you detect in the lane with undigested plasmid? What size(s) were they? Explain each band. 2. How many bands did you detect in the plasmid cut with BamHI? Basing your answer on this result, how many sites are there in the plasmid? 3. Compare the insert digested with BamHI with the undigested insert: do you see a size difference? Explain. 4. Given the sizes of the vector and PCR product, what is the expected size of the plasmid constructed by ligating the two? Explain.

please help me please

and explain why

1) The treatment of viral-associated lymphadenopathy is based on:

A. controlling symptoms and preventing complications instead of providing specific
antiviral therapies

B. administration of beta-lactamase–resistant antibiotics and drainage of purulence when fluctuation is present.

C. complete excision of the involved node because incision and drainage may lead to a chronically draining sinus.

D. administration of rifampin and isoniazid.

E. supportive; however, if the symptoms are severe, antibiotics may be used.

2) The treatment of bacterial-associated lymphadenopathy is based on :

A. controlling symptoms and preventing complications instead of providing specific
antiviral therapies.

B. complete excision of the involved node because incision and drainage may lead to a chronically draining sinus.

C. administration of beta-lactamase–resistant antibiotics and drainage of purulence when fluctuation is present.

D. administration of rifampin and isoniazide

E. supportive; however, if the symptoms are severe, antibiotics may be used.

Answers

1) The treatment of viral-associated lymphadenopathy is based on: B. administration of beta-lactamase–resistant antibiotics and drainage of purulence when fluctuation is present.

2) The treatment of bacterial-associated lymphadenopathy is based on : B. complete excision of the involved node because incision and drainage may lead to a chronically draining sinus.

What medical interventions are used for lymphadenopathy?

Antibiotics are the most typical therapy for lymph nodes that have enlarged due to a bacterial infection. You will undergo specialised therapy if your enlarged lymph nodes are brought on by an HIV infection.

An oral, broad-spectrum antibiotic is now the recommended course of treatment for those with acute cervical lymphadenitis. Patients with suspected MRSA should be treated with clindamycin or trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus).

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Compare and contrast how the circulatory system is important to obtaining raw
materials and excreting byproducts of cellular respiration.

Answers

The circulatory system plays an important role in both obtaining raw materials and excreting byproducts of cellular respiration.

What is cellular respiration?

Cellular respiration is a metabolic process in which living organisms convert nutrients such as carbohydrates and proteins into energy. During this process, energy is released from the molecules and used to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) molecules.

Obtaining raw materials: The circulatory system is responsible for transporting oxygen and other essential molecules to cells, which are then used as fuel for cellular respiration. Oxygen is obtained from the lungs and is transported through the bloodstream to the cells. Nutrients, such as glucose and amino acids, are also transported via the circulatory system for the purpose of providing energy to cells.
Excreting byproducts: The circulatory system is also responsible for carrying away the byproducts of cellular respiration, such as carbon dioxide and other waste products. These byproducts are transported away from the cells, to be released as gas or excreted in the form of urine.
In summary, the circulatory system is essential to cellular respiration, as it facilitates the transport of both the raw materials and the byproducts. Without the circulatory system, cells would not be able to obtain the necessary materials for respiration, nor would they be able to expel the waste products in an efficient manner.

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The development of artificial blood was fueled by the increased number of HIV cases, threatening an increase in the amount of contaminated blood available for blood transfusion, especially in___.

Answers

Explanation:

The development of artificial blood was fueled by the increased number of HIV cases, threatening an increase in the amount of contaminated blood available for blood transfusion, especially in areas where the prevalence of HIV is high. This includes regions with high rates of HIV transmission, such as sub-Saharan Africa, where many people rely on blood transfusions to treat medical conditions. The risk of HIV transmission through blood transfusions was a major concern in the development of artificial blood, which aimed to provide a safe and effective alternative to traditional blood transfusions.

Answer:

The development of artificial blood was fueled by the increased number of HIV cases, threatening an increase in the amount of contaminated blood available for blood transfusion, especially in the 1980s and early 1990s. During this time, the HIV/AIDS epidemic was rapidly spreading, and many people were becoming infected with the virus through blood transfusions. This led to a shortage of safe blood for transfusions, and there was a critical need for an alternative to human blood. The development of artificial blood was seen as a way to address this problem and provide a safe and reliable source of blood for transfusions, particularly for people at high risk of contracting HIV/AIDS.

Seafloor spreading and continential drift are believed to be caused by what?

Answers

Seafloor spreading and continental drift are believed to be caused by plate tectonics. Plate tectonics is the scientific theory that explains how the Earth's lithosphere is divided into a number of plates that move and interact with each other due to the underlying convective flow in the mantle. The movement of these plates can cause a variety of geological phenomena such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and the creation of mountain ranges. Seafloor spreading is a process in which new oceanic crust is formed through volcanic activity at mid-ocean ridges, and continental drift is the movement of continental plates across the Earth's surface.

Which of the following are possible explanations for the strange occurrence of iridium in the Earth's crust in Wyoming? Choose more then one if needed
The rock around this streak changed into iridium.
An asteroid made up of iridium crashed into the Earth.
The scientists were wrong and iridium is more common on Earth
than previously thought.
The streak of iridium in the Earth's crust in Wyoming indicates a
time when Earth was bombarded by asteroids.
The appearance of iridium in Earth's crust is probably due to
animal activity.
The heat from the sun probably converted minerals in Wyoming's
crust to iridium.

Answers

The streak of iridium in the Earth's crust in Wyoming indicates a time when Earth was bombarded by asteroids  of the following are possible explanations for the strange occurrence of iridium in the Earth's crust in Wyoming

Is iridium one of the most scarce metals found in the crust of the Earth?

Only rhenium, ruthenium, and rhodium are rarer elements than iridium, which is the fourth rarest element in the Earth's crust. Yet, between the Cretaceous and Paleogene geological eras, 65 million years ago, Luis Alvarez and his team of researchers discovered a strange thin layer of iridium-rich clay in 1980.

Both its melting temperature and density are quite high. The substance with the greatest resistance to corrosion is iridium.

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question #1 What is thermal energy? do all question (there's only 3 ) i will give brainlyies to the first to answer 100pts

Answers

Answer:

1) Thermal energy refers to the energy contained within a system that is responsible for its temperature.

2) picking up something hot

3

a) conduction

b) radiation

c) convection

d) radiation

e) conduction

Elaborate on two methods of microbial control that are essential for reducing the likelihood of foodborne illnesses? Are these methods applied worldwide?. What are some infections that we see, more so, when these methods are not used or not properly used?

Answers

Answer:

There are several methods of microbial control that are used to reduce the likelihood of foodborne illnesses, but two essential methods are thermal processing and chemical disinfection.

Thermal Processing: This is a method of microbial control that uses high temperatures to kill harmful bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms in food. The most common form of thermal processing is heat treatment, which involves cooking food at a high temperature for a specific period of time. The heat destroys the microorganisms that can cause illness, such as Salmonella, Listeria, and E. coli. Pasteurization is another form of thermal processing that is used to kill harmful bacteria in milk, juices, and other beverages. This method involves heating the liquid to a specific temperature for a specific period of time to kill the microorganisms.

Chemical Disinfection: This method involves the use of chemicals to kill microorganisms on surfaces, utensils, and equipment used in food preparation. Common disinfectants used in food industry include chlorine-based compounds, iodophors, and quaternary ammonium compounds. These disinfectants are effective against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.

Both thermal processing and chemical disinfection are widely used worldwide in the food industry to prevent the spread of foodborne illnesses. However, there are still instances where these methods are not used or not properly used, leading to outbreaks of foodborne illnesses.

Some examples of infections that are more likely to occur when these methods are not used or not properly used include:

Salmonella Infections: This type of infection is commonly associated with undercooked or raw poultry, eggs, and meat. If these foods are not cooked to a sufficient temperature, the Salmonella bacteria may survive and cause illness.

Listeria Infections: Listeria bacteria can grow in refrigerated foods, such as deli meats and soft cheeses, if they are not properly stored and handled. This can lead to serious illness, especially in pregnant women and people with weakened immune systems.

In conclusion, thermal processing and chemical disinfection are essential methods of microbial control that help reduce the likelihood of foodborne illnesses. When these methods are not used or not properly used, it can lead to outbreaks of illnesses caused by bacteria such as Salmonella and Listeria. It is important for the food industry to continue to use these methods to ensure the safety of the food supply.

Explanation:

Thermal processing and chemical disinfection are two essential methods of microbial control that are used in the food industry to prevent the spread of foodborne illnesses. Thermal processing involves using high temperatures to kill microorganisms, while chemical disinfection involves the use of chemicals to kill microorganisms on surfaces, utensils, and equipment used in food preparation.

Both of these methods are widely used worldwide to reduce the likelihood of foodborne illnesses, but they are not always used or used correctly, leading to outbreaks of illnesses caused by bacteria such as Salmonella and Listeria.

Salmonella infections are commonly associated with undercooked or raw poultry, eggs, and meat. If these foods are not cooked to a sufficient temperature, the Salmonella bacteria may survive and cause illness. Listeria bacteria can grow in refrigerated foods, such as deli meats and soft cheeses, if they are not properly stored and handled. This can lead to serious illness, especially in pregnant women and people with weakened immune systems.

It is essential for the food industry to continue using these methods to ensure the safety of the food supply and prevent outbreaks of foodborne illnesses.

Please answer all question below :) for 100 points and I'll mark you brainliest. Thank you :)

Why can’t all animals perform photosynthesis?

What are two examples of photosynthesizing animals?

How do these animals carry out the process of photosynthesis?

Are they born to carry out photosynthesis or do they develop the ability over their lifespan?

Do these animals eat in addition to carrying out photosynthesis?

What are the similarities and differences between these animals?

Why is the ability to perform photosynthesis an advantage to these animals?

How does the discovery of the animals further scientists’ understanding of the relationships between plants and animals?

Answers

Explanation:

All animals lack the specialized structures necessary for photosynthesis, such as chloroplasts and specialized pigments. Therefore, they cannot perform photosynthesis like plants and certain algae.

There are no known examples of photosynthesizing animals. While there have been a few reports in the past of animals supposedly capable of photosynthesis, further research has shown that these claims were not well-substantiated.

As there are no known examples of photosynthesizing animals, this question is not applicable.

Photosynthesizing animals do not exist, so they are not born or develop the ability to perform photosynthesis.

This question is not applicable, as photosynthesizing animals do not exist.

As previously mentioned, photosynthesizing animals do not exist.

The ability to perform photosynthesis would be a significant advantage to animals as it would allow them to generate their food from sunlight and would reduce their dependence on external food sources. This would be particularly advantageous in areas with limited food availability.

As there are no known examples of photosynthesizing animals, the discovery of such an animal would have significant implications for our understanding of the relationships between plants and animals. It would suggest that there may be more complex and intertwined relationships between these groups of organisms than we previously thought. However, as of yet, there is no evidence that photosynthesizing animals exist.

Experiment I: Effect of Different Substrates on the Rate of Enzyme Reaction
Consider the structures of the other substrates tested. Suggest reasons why only one elicited a reaction with the enzyme. Think about the active site of the enzyme

Answers

The other substrates did not fit the active site of the enzyme, resulting in no reaction.

The reason why only one substrate elicited a reaction with the enzyme could be due to the fact that the other substrates did not fit the active site of the enzyme. Enzymes are highly specific in their action, and they can only catalyze reactions with molecules that fit their active sites.

In the case of the experiment, the enzyme may have a specific active site that only allows the structure of the substrate that elicited a reaction to fit into it. The other substrates may have different structures that prevent them from binding to the enzyme's active site, and as a result, no reaction was observed.

It is also possible that the other substrates were not the optimal substrate for the enzyme, and therefore, the reaction rate was low or non-existent. Enzymes often have a preferred substrate that they can catalyze the reaction with the most efficiency. Overall, the selectivity of the enzyme's active site is likely the reason why only one substrate elicited a reaction with the enzyme in the experiment.

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C. Give one word for the following
2. The growth of a seed into a plant

Answers

The answer is Germination

b) Explain why the cells found in region A have microvilli on their border and many mitochondria.​

Answers

The presence of microvilli but few mitochondria aids a cell's capacity to successfully accomplish its secretion or absorption functions.

What are the microvilli used for?

Thousands of densely packed microvilli protrude from each small intestinal cell, forming a brush border that both absorbs nutrients and shields the body from intestinal microbes.

Microvilli are cytoplasmic protrusions that resemble fingers and are present on the surface of many different types of cells.

The mucosa of the intestine and the proximal tubule of the kidney are examples of simple epithelial cells on which they are most frequently found and elaborated.

Therefore, The presence of microvilli but few mitochondria aids a cell's capacity to successfully accomplish its secretion or absorption functions.

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QUESTION - why the cells found in region A have microvilli on their border and many mitochondria.​ explain.

The following represents a DNA strand in the process of replication. The bottom sequence is that of the DNA strand with polarity indicated and the top sequence represents the RNA primer.
GGGGCCUUU 5'
AAATCCCCGGAAACTAAAC 3'
Which of the following will be the first DNA nucleotide added to the primer?
A) A
B) G
C) C
D) T
E) U

Answers

A will be the first DNA nucleotide added to the primer in DNA replication.

A is the correct answer.

The "mRNA-like" segment of DNA is located on the top. The strand that is complementary to the mRNA is the bottom strand.

One end of a DNA strand is referred to as the 3′ end and the other as the 5′ end to denote this polarity. The two polynucleotide strands that make up DNA's double helix, a three-dimensional structure, have specific chemical and structural characteristics.

RNA Primers are brief RNA, or ribonucleic acid, fragments that range in length from five to fifteen bases. Primase, a subtype of RNA polymerase, produces them. Although alternative mechanisms can also be used to start synthesis of Okazaki fragments, RNA primers play a significant part in the process. It is proposed that ATP plays a crucial part in the production of RNA primers.

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Biologists have observed that kangaroo rats living in desert habitats change their diet from dry seeds to vegetation and insects depending on the season. Based on this information, which statement is most likely true?

Answers

The most likely true statement based on the information is that kangaroo rats adapt their diet to changes in their environment and food availability.

Specifically, they shift their diet from dry seeds to vegetation and insects depending on the season. This ability to adapt to changing conditions is an important survival strategy for animals living in harsh environments like deserts, where food resources can be limited and unpredictable. It also highlights the importance of understanding the ecological context in which an organism lives, as well as the complex interactions between organisms and their environment.

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What is pesticide resistance?

The ability of a pest to feed off certain pesticides.

The ability of an individual pest to become resistant to a pesticide after exposure.

The ability of a plant to naturally resist a pest infestation.

The ability of a pest to withstand a given pesticide.

Answers

The ability of an individual pest to become resistant to a pesticide after exposure.

How does pesticide resistance develop in pests?

Pesticide resistance can develop in pests due to genetic mutations that allow some individuals to survive exposure to a pesticide, allowing them to reproduce and pass on these resistance genes to their offspring.

What are some ways to prevent or manage pesticide resistance in pests?

Some ways to prevent or manage pesticide resistance in pests include rotating the use of pesticides with different modes of action, using integrated pest management strategies that incorporate multiple control methods, and using lower doses of pesticides to reduce the selection pressure for resistance.

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I need help the assignment is an savvas assignment it’s called “the genetic code

Answers

Answer: split them into section 3 letters in a section. In the 2nd section n the left you would notice AUG that’s your start code, circle that and at the very end circle UAG that’s a Stop code

Explanation:

Scientists discover a new species they call swamp cactus. It has three interesting genes that are unlike any they've previously seen. The scientists characterize the root morphology phenotypes as branched being dominant to twisted. Its spines can be spiked (dominant) to limp (recessive). And its fruit color can be neon green (dominant) to fuchsia (recessive).
The scientists agree that these genes are linked, but need to map the three genes along the chromosome. They perform a three-point test cross involving these traits. In the test cross, a true breeding branched, spiked, and neon parent is crossed with a true breeding twisted, limp, and fuchsia parent. All the F1 are branched, spiked, and neon, as expected. The F1 is crossed with a tester. The F2 progeny numbers are listed below. Table 1. Number of offspring from a three point test cross involving the swamp cactus root, spines, and fruit genes. phenotypic class number of offspring branched spiked neon 629 branched spiked fuchsia 31 branched limp neon 212 branched limp fuchsia 150 twisted spiked neon 158
twisted spiked fuchsia 214 twisted limp neon 30
twisted limp fuchsia 545 0.5 pts What is the distance between the root and fruit genes? Enter in only a numerical answer with one decimal place and without map units. Which phenotypic classes are single crossover recombinants for the spines to fruit genes? Select all that apply.
- branched spiked neon - branched spiked fuschia - branched limp neon - branched limp fuschia - twisted spiked neon - twisted spiked fuschia
- twisted limp neon - twisted limp fuschia D What is the distance between the spines and fruit genes? Enter in only a numerical answer with one decimal place and without map units.

Answers

The distance between the root and fruit genes is 15.8 units. The phenotypic classes that are single crossover recombinants for the spines to fruit genes are: branched spiked fuchsia, branched limp neon, twisted spiked neon, and twisted limp fuchsia. The distance between the spines and fruit genes is 10.0 units.

The scientists discovered a new species of cactus called the swamp cactus that has three unique genes for root morphology, spine type, and fruit color. In order to map these genes on the chromosome, they performed a three-point test cross. The resulting F2 progeny data allowed them to determine the distances between the genes.

The distance between the root and fruit genes was found to be 33.3 units, while the distance between the spine and fruit genes was 8.7 units. The phenotypic classes of the single crossover recombinants for the spine to fruit genes were branched spiked fuchsia and twisted limp neon.

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When a building faces north and south, it maximizes:
a. Parking lot space
b. The environment
c. Natural light
d. Recycled resources

Answers


Answer:

C.) Natural Light
The correct answer is C natural light i Bierce

How do we know UV light has energy?
Describe what happens when it is absorbed by ozone and melanin.

Please help
90 points

Answers

All radiation is a form of energy, most of which is invisible to the human eye. UV radiation is only one form of radiation and it is measured on a scientific scale called the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum.

Ozone: When an ozone molecule absorbs even low-energy ultraviolet radiation, it splits into an ordinary oxygen molecule and a free oxygen atom.

Melanin: Melanin absorbs the dangerous UV rays that can do serious skin damage. This is the process that gives you a tan. A tan is a sign that your skin is trying to keep UV rays from damaging your skin.

Staph infections can be very dangerous, especially ones caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA is problematic because it is not sensitive to the antibiotic methicillin, which is commonly used to treat staph infections. Which of the following statements best describes why MRSA is able to continue to multiply and spread in the presence of methicillin?

Answers

Answer: its a ;)

Explanation:because im smart yesssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss

What is name of bacteria a gram-negative. An acid/ acid butt. motile. positve UREASE. negative catalase. negative lactose. negative oxidase. negative Indole. negative sulfide. negative H2s. rod-shaped organism

Answers

Based on the given characteristics, the name of the bacteria is Proteus mirabilis.

What are the characteristics of Proteus mirabilis?

Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative, facultative anaerobic, motile, and rod-shaped bacterium that belongs to the family Enterobacteriaceae. It is a common member of the human gut microbiota and can also be found in soil and water.

Proteus mirabilis is known for its swarming motility, which allows the bacteria to move rapidly across surfaces. It is also notable for its ability to produce urease, an enzyme that hydrolyzes urea to produce ammonia and carbon dioxide. This characteristic gives the bacterium the ability to produce alkaline urine, which can contribute to the formation of kidney stones.

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Explain natural selection using a difference between highland Tibetans and lowland Han.

Answers

Answer:

Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their advantageous traits to their offspring. An example of natural selection can be seen in the difference between highland Tibetans and lowland Han in China.

Highland Tibetans have lived at high altitudes for thousands of years and have adapted to the low-oxygen environment. They have larger lung capacities, more efficient blood oxygen transport, and a higher red blood cell count compared to lowland Han. This adaptation has allowed Tibetans to live and thrive at high altitudes where the air is thin and oxygen is scarce. The ability to adapt to high altitudes is an advantageous trait that has been selected for over generations.

On the other hand, lowland Han have not lived at high altitudes for as long as Tibetans have, and thus have not developed the same adaptations. When lowland Han move to high altitudes, they often suffer from altitude sickness and other health problems due to the lack of oxygen. This is an example of natural selection at work, where the better-adapted population (Tibetans) have an advantage in their environment and are more likely to survive and pass on their advantageous traits to their offspring.

Natural selection is the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their surroundings live and reproduce, passing on their good characteristics to their offspring. The difference between highland Tibetans and lowland Han in China is an example of natural selection. Highland Tibetans have been living at high altitudes for thousands of years, adapting to the low-oxygen climate. When compared to lowland Han, they have bigger lung capacities, more efficient blood oxygen transport, and a higher red blood cell count. Tibetans have been able to live and grow at high altitudes where the air is thin and oxygen is short due to this adaptation. Adaptability to high altitudes is a helpful characteristic that has been selected for over generations. Lowland Han, on the other hand, have not lived at high altitudes for as long as Tibetans, and so have not evolved the same adaptations. When lowland Han migrate to high altitudes, they usually experience altitude sickness and other health issues due to a shortage of oxygen. This is an example of natural selection in action, where the better-adapted population (Tibetans) has an advantage in their environment and is more likely to live and pass on their good characteristics to their offspring.

why do traits vary, and why do they vary even between parents and offspring and among sibilings

Answers

Answer: Traits vary because of recessive and dominant traits

Explanation: When an offspring inherits traits, it receives traits from both its parents. For example, we can use the gene for brown or green eyes.

Brown is a dominant trait (meaning organisms only need one of its genes in order to have brown eyes) and green is a recessive trait (meaning organisms must have two green eye genes in order to inherit green eyes).

We can make BB be brown eyes with two brown eye genes, Bb be brown eyes with one brown eye gene and one green eye gene, and bb be green eyes with two green eye genes.

Say both parents have Bb, and the offspring can inherit one gene from each parent. The possibilities for the offspring gene would be BB, Bb, and bb. Therefore demonstrating how it is possible for an offspring to have different traits than their parents or siblings (a sibling could inherit bb and another BB, so one is green-eyed and the other brown-eyed.)

Obviously in reality there are many more factors that play into genes and much more diversity, however, this method pretty much explains the Punnet square method.

 

A paleoanthropologist finds a fossilized skull with very large molars with thick enamel, relatively small canines, and small incisors. What might you hypothesize about the diet of this creature? (max 3 sentences)

Answers

Based on the characteristics of the fossilized skull, it can be hypothesized that the creature had a diet that consisted of tough and fibrous plant material, such as roots, stems, and leaves. The large molars with thick enamel would have been used for grinding and crushing these types of foods, while the small canines and incisors suggest a reduced emphasis on meat in their diet. Additionally, the lack of sharp incisors would suggest that the creature did not need to tear apart flesh or other tough materials.

The boundaries between Eons and Era’s are marked by huge _____________ events which can be seen in the fossil record.

Answers

Answer:

The boundaries between eons and eras are marked by huge geological events which can be seen in the fossil record. These events are often associated with mass extinctions, major changes in the Earth's climate or geology, or other significant shifts in the evolutionary history of life on Earth. For example, the boundary between the Precambrian eon and the Phanerozoic eon is marked by the appearance of hard-shelled organisms in the fossil record, while the boundary between the Mesozoic era and the Cenozoic era is marked by the mass extinction of the dinosaurs.

Explanation:

The geological time scale is divided into several major divisions, including eons, eras, periods, and epochs. These divisions are based on major events in the history of the Earth, such as the appearance or extinction of particular species, changes in climate, or major geological events like volcanic eruptions or asteroid impacts.

The boundaries between eons and eras are particularly significant because they represent major shifts in the evolutionary history of life on Earth. These shifts are often marked by mass extinctions, which occur when a large proportion of the Earth's species go extinct in a relatively short period of time. These extinctions can be caused by a variety of factors, such as changes in climate, geological activity, or the impact of a large asteroid or comet.

The fossil record provides evidence of these major events, allowing scientists to piece together the history of life on Earth and understand how different species have evolved and interacted with each other over time. By studying the fossil record and other geological evidence, scientists can gain insights into the processes that have shaped the Earth and its inhabitants over billions of years.

What's The answer ?????

Answers

Ferns

Explanation:

"Ferns are a natural inhabitant of shady areas"

Ferns live in shady areas. So do Oxalis but they do not live in a lot of shade. So Ferns.

He looked for living S bacterial cells in each of the three batches that contained living R cells. How did the results of Avery's experiment show that DNA transfers heritable information?

A. The samples with destroyed DNA did not produce living S strain bacteria.
B. Living S cells did not appear in samples that still had intact RNA.
C. In the samples with intact DNA, no S strain bacteria were found.
D. Living S cells appeared only in the samples with destroyed proteins​

Answers

Option A. The samples with destroyed DNA did not produce living S strain bacteria is correct answer.

Avery's experiment showed that DNA transfers heritable information because the samples with destroyed DNA did not produce living S strain bacteria. This indicates that the genetic material responsible for the transformation of R cells into S cells was destroyed along with the DNA, and thus the ability to transform R cells was lost.

In contrast, samples with intact DNA were able to transform R cells into S cells, indicating that DNA was responsible for carrying the genetic information needed for this transformation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

What are the R-cell and S-cell?

R-cell and S-cell are two types of cells in the retina of the eye that are responsible for processing different types of visual information.

R-cells, or "rod cells", are responsible for detecting light and dark, and they are more sensitive to dim light conditions. They are located mostly in the outer areas of the retina and are mainly used for peripheral vision.

S-cells, or "cone cells", are responsible for detecting color and fine detail, and they are most active in bright light conditions. They are located mostly in the central area of the retina, called the fovea, which is responsible for central vision.

Both types of cells work together to provide us with a complete picture of the world around us. R-cells and S-cells are also connected to other neurons in the retina, which in turn send signals to the brain for further processing and interpretation of visual information.

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