Influenza viruses journey thru the air in droplets when someone with the contamination coughs, sneezes or talks. You can inhale the droplets directly. Or you can pick up the germs from an object — such as a smartphone or laptop keyboard — and then transfer them to your eyes, nostril or mouth.
What is the description of the influenza virus?Flu is a contagious respiratory illness triggered by means of influenza viruses that infect the nose, throat, and once in a while the lungs. It can cause mild to extreme illness, and at times can lead to death.
Which type of influenza virus is the principal cause of epidemics and pandemics?Influenza A viruses are the only influenza viruses regarded to motive flu pandemics (i.e., world epidemics of flu disease). A pandemic can happen when a new and extraordinary influenza A virus emerges that infects people, has the capacity to spread efficaciously among people, and towards which humans have little or no immunity.02
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Conclusions and Application Questions, Part A 1. a) Make a very crude estimate of the maximum total length of DNA that (in theory) has been spooled onto your rod, given a genome length of
4.64
Megabase pairs for E. coli strain K-12. To make your estimate, assume that there are
5×10 8
E
. coli/ml of culture. You will need to factor in that you started with
5 mL
of culture and recall that each nucleotide pair is
0.34 nm
"tall".
E. coll X E. coli nucleotide pairs × nucleotide 0.34 nm
× 10 9
nm
1 m
=
b) Convert the length that you calculated for la) into some verbal size description that has meaning to you by completing this sentence: "The total length of DNA derived from
5 mL
of culture is about the same as the distance from... c) List some assumptions inherent in this length estimate:
The crude estimate of the maximum total length of DNA that has been spooled onto the rod is 4.0 m. The total length of DNA derived from 5 mL of culture is about the same as the distance from the ground to the roof of a two-story building.
1a) Estimate the total length of DNA that has been spooled onto the rod.Assuming that there are 5 × 108 E.coli/ml of culture and a genome length of 4.64 Megabase pairs for E.coli strain K-12, the total length of DNA that has been spooled onto the rod can be calculated as follows:
Total E. coli = 5 × 108/ml of culture × 5 ml = 2.5 × 109Total nucleotide pairs = 2.5 × 109 E. coli X 4.64 Megabase pairs/E. coli = 11.6 × 1018 nucleotide pairsLength = 11.6 × 1018 nucleotide pairs X 0.34 nm/nucleotide pair X 1m/109 nm = 4.0 m
1b) Verbal size description of the total length of DNAThe total length of DNA derived from 5 mL of culture is about the same as the distance from the ground to the roof of a two-story building or roughly the same as the height of two giraffes standing on top of each other.
1c) The following are some assumptions inherent in this length estimate:The number of E.coli present in the culture is accurate.The genome length of E.coli strain K-12 is 4.64 Megabase pairs.The length of each nucleotide pair is constant, and no mutations or variations are present.
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Chapter 2 - Microscopy - You have prepared a specimen for light microscopy, stained it using the Gram staining procedure, but failed to see anything when you looked through your light microscope. What
If you have prepared a specimen for light microscopy, stained it using the Gram staining procedure, but failed to see anything when you looked through your light microscope, there could be a few reasons for this.
The proper way to do the activity is:
1. The specimen may not have been properly prepared or stained. Make sure that you followed the Gram staining procedure correctly and that the specimen was properly fixed to the slide before staining.
2. The microscope may not be properly focused. Make sure that the objective lens is in the correct position and that the focus is adjusted correctly.
3. The microscope may not be properly illuminated. Make sure that the light source is turned on and that the condenser is properly adjusted to provide even illumination.
4. The specimen may not contain any bacteria or other microorganisms. If this is the case, you may need to prepare a new specimen from a different sample.
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4. According to your data, what is the effect of exercise on heart rate? Explain why this occurs at a cellular level. Hint: What is the purpose of the heart? What is the purpose of cell respiration?
Exercise increases heart rate due to an increase in oxygen demand. This causes an increased need for cell respiration, which is the process of cells taking in oxygen to produce energy. The increased demand for oxygen is detected by the heart, which then increases its rate to meet the oxygen demand.
How does exercise affect heart rate?Exercise has been found to increase the efficiency of the heart in delivering oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues. This is because exercise stimulates the body to produce more capillaries, or tiny blood vessels, which allow oxygen and nutrients to reach more parts of the body. Exercise also strengthens the heart muscle, which enables it to pump more efficiently.The heart is responsible for pumping oxygen-rich blood to the body's tissues. It does this by receiving oxygenated blood from the lungs and then pumping it out to the body through the circulatory system. The purpose of cell respiration is to generate energy for the body's tissues.
During cell respiration, glucose and oxygen are used to produce ATP, which is the primary energy source for the body's cells.Exercise causes an increase in the demand for oxygen by the body's tissues, which in turn increases the demand for oxygen by the heart. This causes the heart to beat faster and pump more blood to the tissues. At the cellular level, exercise stimulates the body to produce more mitochondria, which are the organelles responsible for producing ATP through cell respiration. This increase in mitochondrial density allows the body's tissues to produce more ATP, which in turn allows them to perform more work.
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List several properties of water that are important to living systems.
Discuss the acid-fast stain.
The acid-fast stain is a procedure used in microbiology to differentiate between acid-fast and non-acid-fast bacteria. The procedure involves staining the bacteria with a dye that is acid-fast, meaning it is not easily washed off, and is retained by bacteria that are acid-fast.
The properties of water that are important to living systems include:
1. High specific heat - Water has a high specific heat, meaning it can absorb a large amount of heat without changing temperature. This property is essential for the regulation of body temperature in living systems.
2. High surface tension - Water has high surface tension, meaning it forms tight surface films, and can hold objects on its surface. This property is important for plants, as it helps keep water in the soil and on the surface of their leaves.
3. Universal solvent - Water is a universal solvent, meaning it can dissolve a wide variety of substances. This property is important for living systems, as it helps break down substances like food into usable components.
The acid-fast bacteria will then appear pink or red under a microscope, while the non-acid-fast bacteria will appear colorless. The acid-fast stain is used to identify the presence of acid-fast bacteria, such as the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis.
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Why is sufficient chlorine added to raw water (prechlorination) to go past the breakpoint in plants where THMs are not a problem?1. To aid coagulation.2. To control algal problems in basins.3. To prevent the formation of THM's.4. To provide sufficient chlorine contact time to effectively kill or inactivate pathogenic organisms.5. To reduce odor problems in treated water.
Sufficient chlorine is added to raw water (prechlorination) to go past the breakpoint in plants where THMs are not a problem for a number of reasons, such as 1. aid coagulation, 2. to control algal problems in basins, 3. to prevent the formation of THM's, 4. to provide sufficient chlorine contact time to effectively kill or inactivate pathogenic organisms, and 5. to reduce odor problems in treated water.
Coagulation helps to remove suspended particles and impurities from the water. Another reason is to control algal problems in basins, which can cause unpleasant tastes and odors in the water. Additionally, prechlorination is used to prevent the formation of THMs, which are harmful byproducts of the chlorination process.
Prechlorination also provides sufficient chlorine contact time to effectively kill or inactivate pathogenic organisms, which is important for ensuring the safety of the water. Finally, prechlorination is used to reduce odor problems in treated water, which can be caused by organic compounds and other impurities.
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The answer is D but why not B
Isn’t the role of mitosis is growth??
The plant cell is growing due to more cell elongation at Q than P, as Q is the lower layer, if it elongates by various factors or hormones, then it will grow more, as if mitosis helps, but it doesn't increase the plant length but increases the cell number, so option D is correct.
What is mitosis?Mitosis leads to cell division as the single cell is divided into two cells, and through this process, the cell increases in number but doesn't elongate, so for the elongation process, the plant needs some hormones, and as a result, the plant grows in size.
Hence, the plant cell is growing due to more cell elongation at Q than P, as Q is the lower layer, so option D is correct.
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Can Plaque assays detect viruses that are undergoing a lysogenic cycle?true or false??pleaee provide explan
False. Plaque assays cannot detect viruses that are undergoing a lysogenic cycle. This is because during the lysogenic cycle, the viral genome is integrated into the host cell's genome and does not produce new virus particles.
Plaque assays rely on the ability of a virus to form plaques, which are clear areas of cell death caused by the virus. Since viruses in the lysogenic cycle are not actively replicating and causing cell death, they will not form plaques and therefore cannot be detected by plaque assays.
Only viruses in the lytic cycle, which actively replicate and cause cell death, can be detected by plaque assays.
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The ability of the kidneys to concentrate the plasma ultrafiltrate from the Bowman’s space is reflected by the amount of solute present in the final urine. This property can be expressed in terms of_________
The ability of the kidneys to concentrate the plasma ultrafiltrate from the Bowman’s space is reflected by the amount of solute present in the final urine. This property can be expressed in terms of the urine osmolality.
Urine osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the urine, and is an important indicator of the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute the urine. The higher the urine osmolality, the more concentrated the urine is, and the lower the urine osmolality, the more diluted the urine is.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body, and they do this by filtering the blood and producing urine. The urine osmolality is a reflection of the amount of solutes, such as sodium, chloride, and urea, that are present in the urine. The kidneys can adjust the urine osmolality in response to changes in the body's fluid and electrolyte balance, in order to maintain homeostasis.
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For Locke, human beings have inalienable rights that stem from simply being human and which no government has the right to take away. (True or False)
The statement "According to Locke, human beings have inalienable rights that stem from simply being human and which no government has the right to take away" is true.
John Locke, an influential Enlightenment philosopher, argued that human beings have certain inalienable rights that come from simply being human and which no government has the right to take away.
These rights include life, liberty, and property. Locke believed that the primary purpose of government was to protect these rights and that if a government failed to do so, the people had the right to overthrow it.
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We see consistent results of the effects of phytonutrients in all clinical trials due to thier consistent bioavailablity.
True
False
The statement 'we see consistent results of the effects of phytonutrients in all clinical trials due to their consistent bioavailability is false.
The results of clinical trials studying the effects of phytonutrients are not always consistent due to various factors, including the bioavailability of the phytonutrients.
Bioavailability refers to the extent to which a nutrient is absorbed and utilized by the body, and it can vary depending on the source of the phytonutrient, the individual's digestive system, and other factors.
Therefore, it is not accurate to say that we see consistent results of the effects of phytonutrients in all clinical trials due to their consistent bioavailability.
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explain how someone would make a 40ml of a 20mg/ml (x) soultion?
(x being any hypothetical liquid)
To make a 40ml of a 20mg/ml solution, the first step is to calculate the amount of the liquid needed. This can be done by multiplying the concentration of the liquid (20mg/ml) by the desired volume (40ml). The answer to this equation is 800mg.
The next step is to measure out 800mg of the liquid and add it to a beaker or other container. Next, add 40ml of sterile water to the beaker and mix the solution until the liquid is completely dissolved.
The last step is to transfer the solution to a sterile container. This solution is now ready to be used and is a 40ml of a 20mg/ml solution.
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Howwould I convert from ng/microliter DNA into [micro,p, or f]mols/microliter? What would the conversion look like?
To convert from ng/μL DNA to [μ, p, or f]mol/μL, first calculate the number of moles of DNA using the molecular weight of DNA.
Then convert to the desired unit by multiplying the number of moles by the appropriate conversion factor, e.g. to convert to pmol/μL, multiply the number of moles by 10^12.
The conversion factor from mass (ng) to moles depends on the molecular weight of the substance, which for DNA can be calculated by multiplying the number of base pairs by the average molecular weight per base pair (330 g/mol for double-stranded DNA). Once the number of moles of DNA is calculated, it can be converted to [μ, p, or f]mol/μL by multiplying by the appropriate conversion factor, e.g. 10^6 for μmol/μL, 10^9 for pmol/μL, or 10^15 for fmol/μL.
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1. One of the size broad classes of nutrients include micronutrients. - True - False 2. Of the 20 different amino acids, how many must be obtained through food? a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. Zero 3. The only goal for the Institute of Medicine (IOM) is to prevent nutritional deficiencies. - True - False 4. The potential health risks associated with underconsumption of nutrients is lesser than slight to moderate overconsumption of nutrients. - True - False 5. Understanding energy requirements has improved due to the broader use of this method. a. kcal/day b. doubly labeled water (DLW) c. IOM d. WHO measures 6. Globally, for children under 6 years, energy requirements are determined by multiplying the child's weight by an age-and sex specific constant. - True
- False 7. The _____ ______ proposes that a mammal's basal energy needs could be estimate by this equation: BMR Wt = x70 0 750. a. Kleiber Relationship b. Schiller Relationship c. Activity Patterns d. Leonard Relationship
8. Data from 229 hunting and gathering societies found that... a. plant foods contribute to 20% of energy intake b. chimpanzees consume more animal fat than humans c. animal fat/foods contribute approximately 45-65% of energy intake d. all the above 9. Humans have large intestines, which is an adaptation to fibrous, low-quality diets. - True - False 10. Cordain et al. (2001) have noted that animal fat resources would have provided increased levels of key fatty acids that are necessary for supporting the brain growth and function. - True
- False
True. Micronutrients are one of the two broad classes of nutrients, the other being macronutrients.
c. 9. Out of the 20 different amino acids, 9 are essential, meaning that they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through food.
False. The Institute of Medicine (IOM) has a broader goal, which is to establish dietary recommendations that promote optimal health and prevent chronic diseases in addition to preventing nutritional deficiencies.
False. Both underconsumption and overconsumption of nutrients can pose health risks, and the severity of the risks depends on the specific nutrient and the degree of deviation from the recommended intake levels.
b. Doubly labeled water (DLW). DLW is a method used to measure total energy expenditure, which is essential for determining energy requirements.
True. This method is used to estimate the basal metabolic rate (BMR) of children under 6 years old, which is the energy required to maintain basic bodily functions at rest.
a. Kleiber Relationship. The Kleiber Relationship proposes that an animal's BMR is proportional to its body weight raised to the 3/4 power.
c. Animal fat/foods contribute approximately 45-65% of energy intake. This finding suggests that humans have evolved to be omnivorous, consuming both plant and animal foods.
False. Humans have relatively small large intestines compared to other herbivorous animals, suggesting that they have evolved to consume a diet that is higher in quality and more easily digestible than fibrous plant matter.
True. Cordain et al. (2001) argue that animal fat was a key component of the human ancestral diet and provided essential fatty acids that supported the growth and function of the human brain.
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Explain the CO2, Bicarbonate, Carbonate equilibrium and the ways it
can be used to explain lake phenomena.
This equilibrium is important for lake and ocean phenomena, as it controls the pH and alkalinity of the water. A decrease in CO2 concentration, or an increase in bicarbonate or carbonate concentration, will cause the pH of the water to increase. Conversely, an increase in CO2 concentration, or a decrease in bicarbonate or carbonate concentration, will cause the pH of the water to decrease. The pH of the water affects the biodiversity of the lake and the types of organisms that can thrive in it.
The CO2, Bicarbonate, Carbonate equilibrium explains how carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere interacts with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3). The carbonic acid then dissociates into bicarbonate (HCO3-) and hydrogen (H+) ions. This process is represented as:
CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3 ⇌ HCO3- + H+
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On december 31, the company paid a $200 invoice that they received in november for electricity. Complete the necessary journal entry by selecting the account names from the pull-down menus and entering dollar amounts in the debit and credit columns
Debit for Accounts Payable: 200 in credit cards. By debiting the electricity costs and crediting the bank account, the paid electricity journal entry is made. Any business must cover these utility costs in order to exist.
These costs are often accrued by the corporation at the end of each month, and they are reversed on the first day of the next month. This phase makes sure that we take into account all period expenses in accordance with the cut-off claim. As the entity is the end user of any electricity taxes, a separate GL head is not necessary even if there is one. This page should help to clarify the electrical journal entry, we hope.
ABD's line of work entails offering tax-related consultancy services. As a result, it pays $30,000 in electricity costs on average each month. Following the month's conclusion, ABD receives the electrical invoices. As part of the month-end reporting procedure, the business must nonetheless document the accrual of expenditures.
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1. How does root to shoot biomass relate to water? Would the
ratio increase or decrease with lack of water?
The root-to-shoot biomass ratio is an important indicator of how a plant is responding to water availability. The ratio will generally increase with a lack of water and decrease with an abundance of water.
Root-to-shoot biomass refers to the ratio of the weight of the roots to the weight of the shoots (leaves and stems) in a plant. This ratio is important in understanding how a plant allocates its resources and how it responds to environmental conditions, such as water availability.
In general, plants will allocate more resources to root growth when there is a lack of water in the environment. This is because the roots are responsible for taking up water from the soil, and a larger root system allows the plant to access more water. As a result, the root-to-shoot biomass ratio will increase with a lack of water.
On the other hand, when water is abundant, plants will allocate more resources to shoot growth to maximize photosynthesis and growth. This will result in a decrease in the root-to-shoot biomass ratio.
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Find the diffrences betwen the two leaves
Compare gene editing (CRISPR-Cas9) and RNAi. Describe by contrasting pros and cons.
Both gene editing (CRISPR-Cas9) and RNAi are powerful tools for genetic engineering, but they each have their own advantages and disadvantages.
While CRISPR-Cas9 is more precise and efficient, RNAi is a natural process that is well-understood and relatively safe. The choice between the two techniques will depend on the specific goals and concerns of the researcher.
About Gene editing and RNAiGene editing and RNAi are two techniques used in genetic engineering to manipulate the expression of genes. Both techniques have their own advantages and disadvantages, which are discussed below:
Gene editing (CRISPR-Cas9):Pros:
- CRISPR-Cas9 allows for precise and targeted editing of genes, making it a powerful tool for genetic engineering.
- It can be used to edit multiple genes at once, which can be useful for studying complex genetic interactions.
- CRISPR-Cas9 is relatively fast and efficient, making it a popular choice for researchers.
Cons:
- CRISPR-Cas9 can sometimes cause off-target effects, meaning that it can unintentionally edit other parts of the genome.
- There are also ethical concerns surrounding the use of CRISPR-Cas9, particularly when it comes to editing the genomes of humans.
RNAi:Pros:
- RNAi is a natural process that occurs in cells, making it a relatively safe and well-understood technique.
- It can be used to selectively silence specific genes, which can be useful for studying gene function.
Cons:
- RNAi is less precise than CRISPR-Cas9 and can sometimes cause off-target effects.
- It is also less efficient than CRISPR-Cas9, meaning that it may not be as effective at silencing genes.
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Which allele is the PAV allele, and which allele is the AVI allele? Note, this is dependent on which nucleotide replacements there are. from accession numbers AY258597 and BC104933
The PAV allele refers to a Proline (P) replacing Alanine (A) at position 384 in the Nucleoprotein gene, while the AVI allele refers to Alanine (A) replacing Valine (V) at position 24 of the Hemagglutinin gene.
The nucleotide replacements for the two alleles can be identified by analyzing the accession numbers AY258597 and BC104933. The PAV allele and the AVI allele are important in the study of the bird flu (H5N1) virus. There is a change in the nucleotide sequence in the avian influenza virus at position 1,146,353 of gene 6, which is referred to as the G5888A transition. It results in a substitution of valine (V) at position 186 of the NS1 protein with alanine (A). There are two variations of the H5N1 virus, which are the PAV and AVI alleles. The PAV allele has an A-to-C substitution at nucleotide position 1,127 in the nucleoprotein gene, resulting in a change from alanine to proline at residue 384 of the protein. On the other hand, the AVI allele has a T-to-C substitution at nucleotide position 70 of the hemagglutinin gene, resulting in a change from valine to alanine at residue 24 of the protein.
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Whales are thought to have evolved from land-dwelling, hoofed animals like Pakicetus and from more recent ancestors like Basilosauras. Scientists have recently used common ancestry to extrapolate (and predict) the primary sequences of these extinct whale ancestor's myoglobin protein in order to test them in the laboratory. The properties of these manufactured proteins have been compared to modern extant sperm whale myoglobin. V130 TSAK During evolution from pakicetus to basilosauras, several variations developed in the myoglobin primary sequence, some of which are shown above. V131 (an isoleucine replacing a valine at position 13) filled a cavity in the hydrophobic core, T34K (lysine replacing threonine at position 34) added a hydrogen bond, and K118R (interacting with another substitution, E27D) introduced an electrostatic interaction on the protein's molecular surface. Individually and collectively, these new variations would be expected to delta H for folding and lead to thermodynamic stability. decrease, greater decrease, lesser increase, greater O increase, lesser
The three variations discussed, V131, T34K and K118R, are all expected to decrease the delta H for folding, and therefore lead to greater thermodynamic stability.
Thus, the correct answers are decreased; greater (A).
What is thermodynamic stability?Thermodynamic stability refers to the inherent stability of a system concerning the transition between different states. It's a measure of how likely the system is to remain in its present state rather than shift to another state. When a system is thermodynamically stable, its structure is stable, meaning that it won't spontaneously transform into another state or release energy.
V131 is thought to fill a cavity in the hydrophobic core, T34K adds a hydrogen bond, and K118R introduces an electrostatic interaction on the molecular surface. These variations, individually and collectively, are expected to decrease delta H for folding and lead to greater thermodynamic stability.
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Problem 5 Glutathione transferase consists of a homodimer structure that is in equilibrium with two monome units. Site-directed mutagenesis studies can replace two arginine residues with two alutamine res enzyme. In addition, site-directed mutagenesis studies can replace two aspartate residues with tam asparagine residues in the enzyme. These mutations cause the equilibrium to favor the monomert protein and not form the dimeric enzyme. Where are the arginine and aspartic acid residues most likely found on the monomer proteins and what role do they play in stabilizing the dimeric form of the enzyme? tA cartoon may be worth a 1,000 words
The arginine and aspartic acid residues are most likely found at the interface between the two monomer units and play a crucial role in stabilizing the dimeric form of the enzyme by forming salt bridges and hydrogen bonds. When these residues are mutated, the equilibrium shifts to favor the monomeric form of the protein.
About arginine and aspartic acid residuesThe arginine and aspartic acid residues are most likely found at the interface between the two monomer units, where they play a crucial role in stabilizing the dimeric form of the enzyme. These residues are likely involved in forming salt bridges or hydrogen bonds that help to hold the two monomer units together in the dimeric form of the enzyme.
In the case of the arginine residues, they are positively charged and are therefore likely to be involved in forming salt bridges with negatively charged residues on the other monomer unit. In the case of the aspartic acid residues, they are negatively charged and are therefore likely to be involved in forming salt bridges with positively charged residues on the other monomer unit.
When these residues are mutated to glutamine and asparagine, which are uncharged, the salt bridges and hydrogen bonds are disrupted, causing the equilibrium to favor the monomeric form of the protein. This demonstrates the important role that these residues play in stabilizing the dimeric form of the enzyme.
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Here is a Model for you to follow to answer these 6 steps on the lab you are working: Title of Lab:_____________________________ Your answers to the model questions:
STEP 1 Identify the Question(s) Check out the objectives for the lab in the Study Guide Pre-Lab information, that will give you a clue on why you are doing the lab and what questions you are trying to answer.
STEP 2 Define key word(s) in the question(s)You choose 2 to 3 key words to define
STEP 3 Hypothesis and Variables Go to the Study Guide Pre-lab information for Hypotheses and Variables: What is your hypothesis (prediction) for each experiment? What is the Independent variable (IV) – what are you changing? What is the Dependent variable (DV) – what changed as a result of the independent variable? What are the Constants? – variables that are controlled and not allowed to change
STEP 4 EVIDENCE from experiment/research
STEP 5 Go back to STEP 1 and STEP 3 questions and write a CLAIM based on the Evidence
STEP 6 REASONING When answering this portion, think about what you have learned so far in this unit. This about the scientific concepts that this lab is emphasizing. Make the connection at a biological level.
need answer asap
Here is a Model to follow to answer these 6 steps on the lab I am working:
Title of Lab: The Effect of Fertilizer on Plant Growth
STEP 1: Identify the Question(s):
How does the amount of fertilizer affect the growth of plants? Which type of fertilizer is most effective for promoting plant growth?STEP 2 : Define key word(s) in the question(s):
Fertilizer Plant growth Amount Type EffectiveWhat is the research about?STEP 3: Hypothesis and Variables:
Hypotheses:
If plants are given more fertilizer, they will grow taller and have more leaves. The organic fertilizer will be more effective at promoting plant growth than the synthetic fertilizer.Independent variable (IV):
The amount of fertilizer (in grams) given to each plant The type of fertilizer (organic or synthetic) given to each plantDependent variable (DV):
The height of the plant (in centimeters)
The number of leaves on the plant
Constants:
Type of plant used Size of pot used Type of soil used Amount of water given to each plantSTEP 4: EVIDENCE from experiment/research:
The experiment would involve setting up two groups of plants, one group receiving organic fertilizer and the other group receiving synthetic fertilizer. Each group would be divided into subgroups receiving different amounts of fertilizer. The height of each plant and the number of leaves on each plant would be measured at regular intervals over a period of several weeks.
STEP 5: Go back to STEP 1 and STEP 3 questions and write a CLAIM based on the Evidence:
Claim 1: Increasing the amount of fertilizer given to plants leads to an increase in plant growth (height and number of leaves). Claim 2: Organic fertilizer is more effective at promoting plant growth than synthetic fertilizer.STEP 6 REASONING:
The experiment is emphasizing the concept that plants require certain nutrients in order to grow, and that the type and amount of fertilizer used can affect their growth. The results of the experiment could have implications for agriculture and gardening practices, as farmers and gardeners strive to optimize plant growth while minimizing fertilizer use. By using the scientific method to answer these questions, we can gain a better understanding of how different factors affect plant growth and make informed decisions about how to grow plants more effectively.
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Note the question used for this lab work is:At its core, science is about inquiry, or the act of
asking questions and seeking answers. Most labs
begin as the result of a question, which is why the
introduction of your lab report should include a
question. For example, suppose you notice that you
seem to play basketball better at the court in one
park than in another. After conducting research, you
realize that one of the surfaces of the court at the
park is different from that of your driveway. As a
result, you might formulate the scientific question
"What effect does the court surface have on the
height that the basketball bounces?" To answer this
question scientifically, you could perform several
experiments and gather data,
With regard to the article I selected, please describe the following:
What area of biology this article focus on and is there a particular problem or issue in the area that the article addresses? What drew you to that specific article?
What 2 things did you learn from the article that you did not know before reading it?
What 2 things would you like to learn more about from that article or that area of biology or what 2 further questions do you have regarding the article?
https://www.nytimes.com/2023/02/24/science/dinosaur-sounds-fossils.html?smid=url-share What Sounds Did Dinosaurs Make?
This article focuses on the area of biology that deals with dinosaur fossils and the sounds that they may have made. It addresses the issue of determining what kind of sounds dinosaurs may have made, using their fossilized remains. I was drawn to this article because I have always been fascinated by dinosaurs, and this article provides a unique perspective on the study of them.
Two things that I learned from this article that I did not know before reading it are that the fossils of the dinosaur's inner ear structures can be used to create models of the frequency ranges they may have been able to hear, and that these frequency ranges can then be used to infer what kinds of sounds they may have been able to make.
Two things that I would like to learn more about from this article or that area of biology are what kinds of techniques are used to identify fossilized inner ear structures, and whether or not there is any other evidence that can help scientists determine what kinds of sounds dinosaurs may have made.
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Your instructor has contracted the flu from a close-talking student (way to go, student). He's not quite feeling the effects yet, but he is feeling a little "off" (i.e. tired, just not well in general). This feeling is considered to be . Select one: a. a sign b. systemic c. a symptom d. a syndrome
The instructor's perception of something being "odd" is said to be a sign of having flu.
How long is the flu's duration?The majority of symptoms subside after 4 to 7 days. The cough and fatigue could linger for several weeks. The fever sometimes returns. Some folks may not feel like eating.
What is the first flu symptom?Symptoms of the flu might include high fever (above 100.4 F or 38 C), body pains, chills and sweats, headache, cough, weariness and weakness, nasal congestion and sore throat. We'll go over a couple of these typical symptoms below so you'll know what to anticipate.
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refers to areas where blood movement has been inhibited – it is most obvious where the body has been in contact with a surface. The weight of the body pressing against capillary beds prevents blood from settling into the area. Although the surrounding area may be discolored, the area in contact with the surface will stay quite pale.
The area in contact with the surface, though the surrounding are may be discolored, will stay quite pale commonly referred to as pressure points.
The pressure points are situated in places where the body comes into contact with a surface, and the surface does not have the ability to give way to the weight of the body. Due to this, the blood flow is slowed or even halted entirely, resulting in the area being pale. Pressure points occur when the weight of the body presses against the capillaries, obstructing blood flow. As a result, the blood's continuous flow is interrupted, which can result in cell death in the affected area.
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A comparison of 11,000 protein-coding genes from humans and chimpanzees revealed a significantly higher ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous polymorphism in humans compared to the ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous substitutions between the two species, that is, pN/pS > dNS. What does this indicate about the variation in human populations?
The finding of a significantly higher ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous polymorphism in humans compared to the ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous substitutions between humans and chimpanzees (pN/pS > dNS) indicates that there is an excess of genetic variation within human populations that is subject to positive selection.
Nonsynonymous substitutions refer to changes in the DNA sequence that result in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein, while synonymous substitutions refer to changes that do not alter the amino acid sequence.
Polymorphism refers to the presence of two or more alleles in a population, and positive selection refers to the process by which advantageous traits become more common in a population over time.
Therefore, the higher pN/pS ratio in humans suggests that there are more genetic variations that are being positively selected for in humans than in chimpanzees. This is likely due to differences in environmental pressures and selective pressures between the two species.
Overall, this finding provides insight into the genetic basis of evolutionary divergence between humans and chimpanzees, and highlights the role of positive selection in shaping the genetic variation within human populations.
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Describe translation initiation in bacteria. You are not required to know which IF factors go into which sites. You should understand the IF factors' general role and the role of the Shine-Delgarno sequene.
Translation initiation in bacteria is the process by which the ribosome identifies the correct start codon and begins the process of protein synthesis. There are several key factors involved in this process, including initiation factors (IFs) and the Shine-Delgarno sequence.
The first step in translation initiation is the binding of IF-3 to the small ribosomal subunit. This prevents the large subunit from binding and ensures that the small subunit is free to bind to the mRNA. Next, IF-1 and IF-2 bind to the small subunit, along with the initiator tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. The Shine-Delgarno sequence, a short sequence of nucleotides found in the 5' untranslated region of the mRNA, then base-pairs with the 16S rRNA in the small subunit. This helps to correctly position the small subunit at the start codon.
Once the small subunit is correctly positioned, the large ribosomal subunit can bind, completing the formation of the translation initiation complex. IF-3 is released at this point, and IF-2 hydrolyzes its bound GTP, causing it to also be released. The ribosome is now ready to begin the process of protein synthesis, starting at the start codon and moving along the mRNA until it reaches a stop codon.
In summary, translation initiation in bacteria involves the binding of IFs and the Shine-Delgarno sequence to the small ribosomal subunit, followed by the binding of the large subunit to form the translation initiation complex. This process ensures that the ribosome correctly identifies the start codon and is ready to begin protein synthesis.
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1. In a population the number of carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder are 2390 persons. What is the size of the population?
2. 16 percent of a population is unable to taste the chemical ptc. These non tasters are recessive for the tasting gene.
A. What percentage of individuals in the population are tasters?
B. What is the frequency of the dominant and recessive allele?
C. What percentage of the population are heterozygous for the trait?
3. The x 32 mutation, a dominant gene, gives humans protection from hiv infection. This mutant allele frequency in a town in sweden is 18%. What percent of the population is susceptible to hiv infection?
1. The size of the population is 2390 / 2pq
2. A. 84% of the population are tasters (dominant).
B. The frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively.
C. The frequency of heterozygous individuals is 0.48 or 48% of the population.
3. The frequency of individuals who are susceptible to HIV infection is 0.6724, or 67.24% of the population.
1. To find the size of the population, we need to use the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1, where p is the frequency of the dominant allele, q is the frequency of the recessive allele, and 2pq is the frequency of carriers.
Since we are given the number of carriers (2390), we can rearrange the equation to solve for the population size:
Population size = 2390 / 2pq
Since we don't have the values for p and q, we can't solve for the population size without more information.
2. A. If 16% of the population are non-tasters (recessive), then the remaining 84% are tasters (dominant).
B. Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, we can solve for the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles.
q^2 = 0.16 (the frequency of recessive individuals)
q = 0.4 (the frequency of the recessive allele)
p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6 (the frequency of the dominant allele)
C. The frequency of heterozygous individuals is 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48, or 48% of the population.
3. If the frequency of the dominant allele (which gives protection from HIV infection) is 18%, then the frequency of the recessive allele (which does not give protection) is 82%.
The frequency of individuals who are homozygous recessive (and therefore susceptible to HIV infection) is q^2 = 0.82^2 = 0.6724, or 67.24% of the population.
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What are the 4 principles of HIV transmission?
The 4 principles of HIV transmission are as follows:
Unprotected sexual contact: HIV can be transmitted through unprotected sexual contact with an infected person. Sharing of needles or injection equipment: HIV can be transmitted through the sharing of needles or injection equipment with an infected person. This includes needles used for injecting drugs, tattooing, or piercing.Mother-to-child transmission: HIV can be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.Blood transfusions or organ transplants: HIV can be transmitted through blood transfusions or organ transplants from an infected donor.HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a virus that attacks and weakens the immune system. There is currently no cure for HIV, but there are effective medications available that can suppress the virus and prevent its progression. So It is important to understand these principles of HIV transmission in order to take steps to protect oneself and prevent the spread of HIV.
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What are the 4 major groups of protozoa? Explain and give 1 example for each group
Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotic organisms that can be found in various habitats. There are four major groups of protozoa based on their method of movement: Amoeboids, Flagellates, Ciliates, and Sporozoans.
Amoeboids: They move by extending their cytoplasm in the form of pseudopodia. Example: Amoeba proteus
Flagellates: They move by using whip-like structures called flagella. Example: Trypanosoma brucei
Ciliates: They move by using hair-like structures called cilia. Example: Paramecium caudatum
Sporozoans: They do not have a specific means of movement and are usually parasitic. Example: Plasmodium falciparum
Each group has unique characteristics and plays an important role in their respective ecosystems. Some protozoa can be pathogenic to humans and animals, while others serve as important food sources for larger organisms in the food chain.
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