The churning movements of the stomach help mix food with gastric juice.
The stomach is a muscular sac located in the upper left part of the abdomen that receives food from the esophagus and churns it into a liquid mixture known as chyme.
The churning movements of the stomach are produced by the coordinated contraction and relaxation of the stomach muscles, which help to break down food and mix it with gastric juice.
Gastric juice is a mixture of hydrochloric acid, enzymes, and other substances that help to digest food in the stomach.
The churning movements of the stomach help to ensure that food is thoroughly mixed with gastric juice, allowing for more efficient digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
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how can gene flow improve adaptation of population?group of answer choicesalleles mutate in different geographical areasalleles increase in frequency in original populationbeneficial alleles are transferred to a new populationallele frequencies decrease in new population
Gene flow can improve the adaptation of a population by transferring beneficial alleles to a new population. When individuals from different geographical areas mate and exchange genetic material, the alleles that provide advantageous traits can increase in frequency within the new population, enhancing its ability to adapt to environmental challenges.
Gene flow can improve the adaptation of a population by allowing beneficial alleles to be transferred from one population to another. When individuals from different populations interbreed, they bring with them their unique genetic traits and characteristics, including any beneficial alleles that may have evolved in their original population. This influx of genetic diversity can increase the frequency of beneficial alleles in the receiving population, leading to improved adaptation to changing environmental conditions or selective pressures.
Additionally, gene flow can help to counteract the effects of genetic drift, which can cause random fluctuations in allele frequencies within small populations and potentially lead to the loss of beneficial traits. Overall, gene flow plays an important role in maintaining genetic diversity and promoting adaptive evolution within populations.
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Write a poem that teaches the concepts of plant classification
suppose that net secondary production in an ecosystem is only 15% of the total amount of plant material ingested by heterotrophs. if herbivores egest 20% of what they ingest, what percentage of what they ingest goes to heterotroph respiration?
If net secondary production is only 15% of the total amount of plant material ingested by heterotrophs, this means that 85% of the ingested plant material is lost through respiration, feces, and undigested material.
If herbivores egest 20% of what they ingest, this means that 80% of what they ingest is retained for digestion and absorption.
Therefore, the percentage of what herbivores ingest that goes to heterotroph respiration can be calculated as:
85% (lost through respiration, feces, and undigested material) x 80% (retained for digestion and absorption) = 68%
So, 68% of what herbivores ingest goes to heterotroph respiration.
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an earthworm moves by alternating muscular contractions against a __________
An earthworm moves by alternating muscular contractions against a hydrostatic skeleton.
This process is known as peristalsis. Earthworms have two main sets of muscles: longitudinal muscles and circular muscles. The longitudinal muscles run along the length of the worm, while the circular muscles wrap around its body.
When the earthworm wants to move forward, it first contracts its circular muscles, which causes its body to become thinner and longer. The hydrostatic pressure within the worm increases as a result of this contraction, providing a rigid structure for the longitudinal muscles to work against. Next, the worm contracts its longitudinal muscles, which shortens and thickens its body, pushing it forward.
As the earthworm progresses, it anchors its front end with tiny bristles called setae to secure its position. It then releases the setae from the rear end, stretches its body forward, and repeats the process. This rhythmic, wave-like movement of contracting and relaxing muscles allows the earthworm to efficiently move through its environment.
In summary, earthworms utilize their hydrostatic skeleton and a combination of longitudinal and circular muscles to move by peristalsis. This method of locomotion is effective in helping earthworms navigate through soil and other substrates, playing a vital role in their ecosystem.
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Flocqbulary genes and heredity answers
In the Flocabulary on genes and heredity, the answers are as follows:
ChromosomeCloneDNADominantGeneHelixMitosisRecessiveReproductionTraitWhat is a chromosome?A chromosome is a structure found within the nucleus that contains the DNA.
Clones are exact copies of organisms produced b genetic engineering.
Mitosis is a process of cell division in which exact copies of cells are made without any change in the chromosome number.
The DNA is the molecule that contains the genetic information of living organisms and the structure of the DNA is a double helix.
Traits are characters that are coded for by genes found in the DNA.
Dominant traits are always expressed when they appear whereas recessive traits are expressed only in the absence of the dominant trait.
Genes are basic units of inheritance.
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which statement is correct about a muscle contraction? responses myosin heads attach to sites on actin filaments.
Answer:
The globular heads of myosin bind actin, forming cross-bridges between the thick and thin filaments.
media used to test carbohydrate utilization of bacteria often contain ph indicators ____________.
Media used to test carbohydrate utilization of bacteria often contain pH indicators such as phenol red, bromothymol blue, or methyl red. These indicators change color in response to changes in pH, which can be used to determine whether the bacteria are fermenting or oxidizing the carbohydrate source in the media.
For example, if the bacteria are fermenting the carbohydrate, they will produce acidic byproducts, which will lower the pH of the media and cause the pH indicator to change color. If the bacteria are oxidizing the carbohydrate, they will not produce acidic byproducts, and the pH of the media will remain relatively stable. The color change of the pH indicator can be observed visually or measured using a spectrophotometer.
Carbohydrate fermentation tests are commonly used in microbiology to identify and classify bacteria based on their ability to utilize different types of carbohydrates. The tests typically involve inoculating a tube or plate of specialized media containing a specific carbohydrate, along with other nutrients and a pH indicator.
When a bacterium is able to utilize the carbohydrate in the media, it will metabolize it through either fermentation or oxidation. Fermentation is a process by which carbohydrates are broken down without the use of oxygen, producing organic acids, gases, and alcohols as byproducts. Oxidation, on the other hand, involves the use of oxygen and results in the production of carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
The pH indicator in the media changes color as the pH of the medium changes due to the byproducts of carbohydrate metabolism. Different pH indicators are used depending on the type of carbohydrate being tested and the desired outcome. For example, phenol red is commonly used to detect acid production from glucose fermentation, and a positive test is indicated by a change in color from red to yellow.
Carbohydrate fermentation tests are important tools in the identification and characterization of bacterial species, as different bacteria have different carbohydrate utilization patterns. By observing the results of carbohydrate fermentation tests, microbiologists can determine the species or group of bacteria that are present in a sample, and make informed decisions regarding diagnosis and treatment of infections.
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what developmental characteristics distinguishes a fetus from an embryo? at what gestinal age is this attained
The answer is that the developmental characteristic that distinguishes a fetus from an embryo is the formation of distinct organ systems.
At this stage, the developing organism is able to carry out vital functions such as breathing, digestion, and excretion. This stage is usually attained around the end of the eighth week of gestation.
During the embryonic stage, the developing organism undergoes rapid cell division and differentiation, giving rise to the basic structures and tissues of the body. At this stage, the organism is called an embryo and is characterized by its primitive streak, which eventually becomes the neural tube, and its three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
As development progresses, the embryo undergoes a series of complex changes, including the formation of major organ systems such as the heart, lungs, liver, and kidneys. This stage of development is referred to as the fetal period, and the developing organism is called a fetus.
By the end of the eighth week of gestation, the fetus has formed all major organ systems and is able to carry out basic functions such as breathing, digestion, and excretion. It is at this stage that the organism is considered to be a fetus rather than an embryo.
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A triplet of bases in a template strand of DNA is GAT. What would be the corresponding codon for mRNA?
CTA
CUA
CTU
CUU
Answer:
Im not 100 percent sure but i think it would be
GAU
GAU
GAA
GAA
Explanation:
in Rna strands T is replaced by U
so C bonds to G
G bonds to C
T bonds to A
U bonds to A
A bonds to U
if that makes sense
inhibiting rna processing is a common way to regulate gene expression. select one: true false
True. Inhibiting RNA processing is a common way to regulate gene expression because understanding the mechanisms of RNA processing and its regulation is essential for understanding gene expression and the molecular basis of disease.
RNA processing refers to the modifications made to RNA molecules after transcription, which can include splicing, editing, and modification of the 5' and 3' ends. These modifications can impact the stability, localization, and translation efficiency of the resulting mRNA molecule. By inhibiting or altering RNA processing, cells can selectively regulate gene expression and to what extent.
This process is particularly important during development and in response to changing environmental cues.
For example, changes in RNA processing have been linked to the progression of cancer and the development of neurological disorders.
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If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at anaphase there would be a total of:A. 23 chromatids B. 23 Chromosomes C. 46 chromsomes D. 46 Chromatids E. 92 Chromosomes
If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at anaphase there would be a total of: D. 46 Chromatids.
During the S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs, resulting in each chromosome being composed of two identical sister chromatids. Therefore, at the beginning of mitosis, the cell has 46 chromosomes, which are made up of 46 pairs of sister chromatids.
During anaphase of mitosis, the spindle fibers pull the sister chromatids apart and towards opposite poles of the cell. As a result, each pole of the cell receives a complete set of chromosomes consisting of one copy of each chromosome (23 chromosomes), and each chromosome is now composed of a single chromatid.
So, the total number of chromatids in the cell at anaphase is the sum of the number of chromatids in each chromosome, which is 2 at the beginning of mitosis. Therefore, the total number of chromatids in the cell at anaphase is 2 x 46 = 92.
However, the total number of chromosomes in the cell remains the same, which is 46.So the correct answer would be D. 46 chromatids.
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The presence of a third layer of smooth muscle assists the continued _______ and blending of the ______
The presence of a third layer of smooth muscle assists the continued propulsion and blending of the food bolus.
Smooth muscle is found in the walls of many internal organs, including the digestive tract. In the digestive system, it is primarily responsible for the involuntary contractions that move food through the tract, a process known as peristalsis. The third layer of smooth muscle is especially important in the stomach, where it aids in the mechanical digestion of food.
The third layer of smooth muscle is arranged obliquely, in addition to the other two layers which are oriented longitudinally and circularly. This unique arrangement allows the stomach to efficiently churn and mix the food bolus with gastric secretions, ultimately forming a partially digested substance called chyme. The churning and blending action ensures that the food is broken down into smaller particles, increasing the surface area for further enzymatic digestion.
As the chyme is mixed and propelled through the stomach, the coordinated contractions of the smooth muscle layers help to regulate the rate at which it enters the small intestine. This controlled movement ensures that the chyme is adequately processed and broken down, optimizing the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
In summary, the third layer of smooth muscle in the stomach plays a crucial role in promoting the continued propulsion and blending of the food bolus, ultimately contributing to effective digestion and nutrient absorption.
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the form that sugar takes when it is stored in the liver and the skeletal muscles is called:
The form that sugar takes when it is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles is called glycogen.
What is glycogen?Glycogen is the stored form of glucose thаt’s mаde up of mаny connected glucose molecules. Glucose (sugаr) is our body’s mаin source of energy. It comes from cаrbohydrаtes (а mаcronutrient) in certаin foods аnd fluids you consume. When our body doesn’t immediаtely need glucose from the food we eаt for energy, it stores glucose primаrily in your muscles аnd liver аs glycogen for lаter use.
Our body creаtes glycogen from glucose through а process cаlled glycogenesis. Our body breаks down glycogen for use through а process cаlled glycogenolysis. Severаl different enzymes аre responsible for these two processes.
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damage to oligodendrocytes will impair the ability of the nervous system to . produce cerebrospinal fluid. phagocytize unwanted materials in the cns. myelinate axons in the cns provide the blood-brain-barrier.
That damage to oligodendrocytes will impair their ability to myelinate axons in the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendrocytes are responsible for producing myelin, a fatty substance that wraps around axons and helps to insulate and protect them.
This insulation is crucial for the proper functioning of the nervous system, as it allows for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses. Without myelin, the nervous system would be unable to transmit signals properly, leading to a variety of neurological problems.
Damage to oligodendrocytes can occur due to a number of factors, including disease, injury, or environmental toxins, and can result in conditions such as multiple sclerosis.
Damage to oligodendrocytes will impair the ability of the nervous system to myelinate axons in the CNS. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for producing myelin, which is an insulating layer that helps to increase the speed of electrical signals (action potentials) along axons. When oligodendrocytes are damaged, the production of myelin is negatively affected, leading to impaired neural communication within the central nervous system.
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the table shows the frequencies of an allele (a) at a locus and the average number of offspring produced for carriers of that allele at each frequency. in these haploid populations, the average number of offspring produced by bearers of the other allele (a) is always 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles. in which population can both alleles be maintained?
Based on the information provided, the population in which both alleles can be maintained is the one where the average number of offspring produced by carriers of the "a" allele is equal to or greater than 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles.
In other words, if the average number of offspring produced by carriers of the "a" allele is less than 1.8, the "a" allele is likely to be lost over time due to natural selection.
It seems that you haven't provided the actual table showing the frequencies and average offspring for allele (a). However, I can still explain the concept to help you understand how to determine if both alleles can be maintained in a population.
In order for both alleles (a) and (A) to be maintained in a population, they must have a similar fitness, which means their average number of offspring produced must be close. In your question, you mentioned that the average number of offspring produced by bearers of allele (A) is always 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles.
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Which of these glands produce a hormone that maintains the balance of calcium and phosphorus in the blood?
Thyroid gland
Adrenal glands
Pancreas
Parathyroid glands
Answer & Explanation:
The parathyroid glands are located in the neck and are responsible for producing the hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. It does this by regulating the activity of cells in the bones and kidneys, which control calcium and phosphorus levels.
When the calcium levels in the blood are too low, the parathyroid glands secrete PTH, which stimulates the release of calcium from bones and increases the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. PTH also decreases the reabsorption of phosphorus by the kidneys, which helps to maintain a proper balance between calcium and phosphorus.
On the other hand, when the calcium levels in the blood are too high, the parathyroid glands decrease PTH secretion, which reduces the release of calcium from bones and decreases the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys. This helps to prevent the calcium levels in the blood from getting too high.
Suppose your business associate got a great deal on the restriction enzyme Sspl and tried to ligate in the estrogen degrading gene into the same plasmid with the SspI restriction enzyme. Was that a good decision by your business associate? Explain!
Whether or not it is a good decision to ligate the estrogen-degrading gene into the same plasmid with the SspI restriction enzyme depends on various factors, including the desired outcome of the experiment and the compatibility of the restriction enzyme and the gene.
In some cases, it may be possible to ligate the gene into the plasmid using the SspI restriction enzyme without any issues. However, if the gene and the enzyme are not compatible, or if the ligation process is not carried out correctly, it could lead to undesired outcomes such as the gene not being inserted into the plasmid or the plasmid being destroyed.
Therefore, it is important to carefully evaluate the compatibility of the gene and the restriction enzyme and ensure that the ligation process is carried out correctly before making the decision to use a specific restriction enzyme for the experiment.
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the corneal lenses of each ommatidium of the compound eye are made of modified ________.
The corneal lenses of each ommatidium of the compound eye are made of modified cuticular proteins.
In insects, the compound eye is composed of numerous ommatidia, which are structural units that contain a lens, photoreceptor cells, and support cells.
The lens of each ommatidium is made of a specialized cuticle, a tough and flexible outer layer that covers and protects the insect's body. The cuticle is secreted by specialized cells called epidermal cells and is composed of a mixture of proteins and chitin.
In the corneal lenses of the ommatidia, the cuticular proteins are modified to form a transparent and highly refractive material that acts as a lens.
The precise arrangement of the proteins in the lens determines its optical properties and the directionality of light that is focused onto the photoreceptor cells.
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describe how the nervous system detects change associated with the body and reacts to that change to maintain homeostasis
Stress thus defines this capacity for imbalance, for dysregulation with respect to the homeostatic state, which must be countered by adaptive, physiological or behavioral responses.
Homeostasis, or homoeostasis in British English, is the stable internal, external, chemical, and social conditions that are maintained by living systems. In order for the organism to function at its best, a number of factors, including fluid balance and body temperature, must be maintained within a range that has been predetermined (the "homeostatic range").
Despite changes in the environment, nutrition, or level of exercise, other factors such as the pH of extracellular fluid, the concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium ions, as well as the blood sugar level, must be controlled. One or more regulators or homeostatic processes regulate each of these factors, which collectively help to keep life in balance.
Homeostasis is regarded to be the primary driving force behind all organic action since it is brought about by a natural aversion to change when conditions are already ideal and balance is maintained by several regulatory processes. A receptor, a control centre, and an effector are the minimum number of interdependent parts present in all homeostatic control mechanisms for the variable under control.
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among the types of inheritance described in this interactive, which ones are able to yield a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1?
the type of inheritance that can yield a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is incomplete dominance. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous genotype results in a phenotype that is an intermediate between the two homozygous genotypes. An example of incomplete dominance is the flower color of snapdragons, where red and white flowers produce pink flowers when crossed.
To further explain, the other types of inheritance described in the interactive include complete dominance, codominance, multiple alleles, and polygenic inheritance. Complete dominance results in a phenotype where the dominant allele completely masks the recessive allele. Codominance results in a phenotype where both alleles are expressed equally. Multiple alleles refer to genes that have more than two possible alleles. Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes contributing to the phenotype, resulting in a continuous variation rather than distinct phenotypic ratios.
incomplete dominance is the only type of inheritance that can produce a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio. The other types of inheritance result in different ratios or continuous variation.
Main Answer: The type of inheritance that can yield a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is incomplete dominance.
In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other. Instead, the heterozygous genotype produces an intermediate phenotype between the two homozygous phenotypes. When two heterozygous individuals are crossed, the resulting phenotypic ratio will be 1:2:1. For example, if R represents red flowers and W represents white flowers, the heterozygous genotype (RW) will produce pink flowers. When crossing two heterozygous (RW x RW) individuals, the offspring will have the following phenotypic ratio: 1 red (RR) : 2 pink (RW) : 1 white (WW).
Incomplete dominance is the type of inheritance that results in a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio, as it produces an intermediate phenotype in heterozygous individuals, and this ratio is obtained when two heterozygous individuals are crossed.
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acute peptic ulcer of stomach with performation. what is the correct icd-10-cm code assignment?
The correct ICD-10-CM code assignment for acute peptic ulcer of stomach with perforation is K25.3.
The correct ICD-10-CM code assignment for acute peptic ulcer without perforation depends on the specific location of the ulcer. Here are some possible codes:
K25.0: Acute gastric ulcer with hemorrhage
K25.1: Acute gastric ulcer with perforation
K25.2: Acute gastric ulcer with both hemorrhage and perforation
K25.4: Acute duodenal ulcer without hemorrhage or perforation
K25.5: Acute duodenal ulcer with hemorrhage
K25.6: Acute duodenal ulcer with perforation
K25.7: Acute duodenal ulcer with both hemorrhage and perforation
These codes fall under the category of Diseases of the Digestive System (K00-K95) and specifically refer to disorders of the stomach and duodenum. As mentioned before, the correct code to use should be determined by a qualified healthcare provider based on the patient's medical record and clinical documentation.
The ICD-10-CM code K25.3 is used to indicate the diagnosis of acute gastric ulcer with perforation. This code falls under the category of Diseases of the Digestive System (K00-K95) and specifically refers to disorders of the stomach and duodenum.
It is important to note that ICD-10-CM codes are used to classify and report medical diagnoses and procedures for reimbursement and statistical purposes, and should be assigned by a qualified healthcare provider based on the patient's medical record and clinical documentation.
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when calculating the allele frequency of allele a in a population, you multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for a by 2 because:
multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for allele a by 2 because each homozygous individual has 2 copies of the same allele. In a population, individuals can have two copies of the same allele (homozygous) or two different alleles (heterozygous) at a particular locus.
multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for allele a by 2 because each homozygous individual has 2 copies of the same allele. In a population, individuals can have two copies of the same allele (homozygous) or two different alleles (heterozygous) at a particular locus. When calculating the frequency of a specific allele, we need to take into account both types of individuals. Homozygous individuals have two copies of the same allele, so their frequency represents the frequency of that allele in the population. However, heterozygous individuals have only one copy of that allele, so we need to adjust for their contribution. Therefore, to account for both homozygous and heterozygous individuals, we multiply the frequency of homozygous individuals by 2, which gives us the total number of copies of that allele in the population.
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p08246 is a human elastase protein. does this protein have any homologs in yeast (saccharomyces cerevisiae)? explain what you did and how you came about with your conclusion.
From the list of proteins, I was able to identify the homologous protein in Saccharomyces cerevisiae with the highest percentage of identity, which is a protein known as YDL009C.
This protein is a homolog of P08246, sharing an identity of 43%. Based on this result, I conclude that P08246 does have a homolog in Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Furthermore, the high level of identity suggests that the two proteins may have similar functions.
To determine if the human elastase protein (P08246) has any homologs in yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), I used the BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) to compare the sequence of P08246 to the sequences of proteins in the Saccharomyces cerevisiae proteome. The BLAST search results provide a list of proteins in Saccharomyces cerevisiae that have similar sequences to P08246.
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a trait, such as skin color, that is coded for by more than one gene is an example of ______.
A trait, such as skin color, that is coded for by more than one gene is an example of polygenic inheritance.
Polygenic inheritance occurs when a trait is controlled by the combined effects of multiple genes, each of which may have a small effect on the final phenotype.
In the case of skin color, several genes contribute to the amount and type of melanin produced in the skin, which in turn affects the color of an individual's skin. Each gene may have multiple alleles that can affect the final phenotype, leading to a wide range of possible skin colors.
Polygenic inheritance can also be influenced by environmental factors, such as exposure to sunlight or nutritional status, which can affect the expression of the genes that contribute to the trait.
Because polygenic traits are controlled by multiple genes and environmental factors, they tend to show continuous variation rather than discrete categories.
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What are the maximum and minimum dimensions for the following particle sizes?
a) cobble:
b) pebble:
c) sand:
Cobble particles have a maximum dimension of 256 mm and a minimum dimension of 64 mm, Pebble particles have a dimension of 64mm to 4 mm and Sand particles have dimensions of 2 mm to 0.063 mm.
In the United States, the Wentworth scale is commonly used to classify particle sizes. According to this scale, cobbles are defined as particles with a maximum dimension greater than 256 mm and a minimum dimension greater than 64 mm.
Pebbles have a maximum dimension between 64 mm and 256 mm and a minimum dimension between 2 mm and 64 mm. Sands have a maximum dimension between 2 mm and 0.063 mm and a minimum dimension between 0.063 mm and 0.002 mm.
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which is false concerning the following food-borne pathogens? yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrotroph that can grow in the refrigerator. vibrio parahemolyticus produces severe skin lesions, enteritis and death. yersinia enterocolitica is a food-borne pathogen producing symptoms of appendicitis. brucella species b. suis (pigs), b. abortus (cows)
The false statement concerning the following food-borne pathogens is "vibrio parahemolyticus produces severe skin lesions, enteritis, and death." Vibrio parahemolyticus can cause gastroenteritis with symptoms like watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever, but it does not typically cause severe skin lesions or death.
The other statements are true, such as Yersinia enterocolitica being a psychrotroph that can grow in the refrigerator and cause symptoms similar to appendicitis, and Brucella species B. suis and B. abortus being associated with infections in pigs and cows, respectively.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus is actually known for causing gastrointestinal illness, with symptoms such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and sometimes fever. Severe skin lesions and death are not typically associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus but with another Vibrio species, Vibrio vulnificus. The other statements about Yersinia enterocolitica and Brucella species are true.
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jenna tickles her 5-year-old son. this sensory input is first translated into ____.
When Jenna tickles her 5-year-old son, the sensory input from his skin is first translated into neural signals.
These signals are then sent to the brain through the spinal cord, where they are processed and interpreted as touch sensations. The brain analyzes the type of touch, the intensity, and the location of the tickle, and generates a response that determines how the child will react. This response may involve laughter, squirming, or a sense of discomfort depending on the child's preferences and sensitivities.
The process of translating sensory input into neural signals is called transduction. In the case of touch, specialized nerve endings in the skin called mechanoreceptors are responsible for transducing the pressure and movement of a tickle into electrical signals that can be transmitted to the brain. These signals travel along nerve fibers known as afferent neurons, which carry information from the periphery of the body to the central nervous system.
The ability to perceive touch sensations is crucial for human survival and development. It allows us to explore our environment, communicate with others, and experience pleasure and pain. Touch also plays a critical role in early childhood development, as it helps to establish social bonds and emotional regulation. Therefore, the act of tickling a child not only provides a fun and playful interaction, but it also stimulates their tactile system and promotes healthy sensory development.
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a strain of e. coli is trp- his- lac+. which medium would this bacterium grow on?
The E. coli strain trp- his- lac+ would grow on a medium that contains a source of energy, carbon, nitrogen, and other necessary nutrients, as well as lactose as a carbon source.
Since this strain is trp- and his-, it cannot synthesize the amino acids tryptophan and histidine, respectively, and therefore, the medium should also contain these amino acids as supplements.
On the other hand, this strain is lac+, which means that it can utilize lactose as a carbon source when glucose is not available.
Therefore, a suitable medium for this strain would be a minimal medium supplemented with tryptophan, histidine, and lactose, as well as other necessary nutrients.
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an individual hormone affects only certain tissue cells called its __________ cells.
An individual hormone affects only certain tissue cells called its target cells.
Target cells have specific receptors that recognize and bind to the hormone, triggering a response within the cell. This selective response allows for precise communication between hormones and their target tissues, ensuring that only the necessary physiological processes are stimulated.
Red blood cells with the look of a shooting target with a bullseye are known as codocytes or target cells. These cells appear to have a white outside ring (an area of relative pallor) surrounding a dark inner (central) hemoglobinized area, followed by a dark outer (peripheral) second ring. On the other hand, they appear incredibly thin and bell-shaped under an electron microscope, therefore their name. They are known as leptocytes because of how thin they are. Some people like to differentiate between leptocytes and codocytes based on the morphology of routine smears, arguing that in leptocytes the central spot is not entirely isolated from the peripheral ring and that the pallor is in the shape of a C rather than a whole ring.
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roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity called a ___________________.
Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity called a pseudocoelom.
A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that is partially lined with mesoderm, but not completely like in true coelomates.
Roundworms belong to the phylum Nematoda and have a pseudocoelom that acts as a hydrostatic skeleton, allowing for movement and support.
The fluid-filled cavity found in roundworms is called a pseudocoelom.
A pseudocoelom is a body cavity found in some invertebrates, including roundworms, which provides a space for the internal organs and helps with functions like movement and circulation.
Hence, Roundworms possess a pseudocoelom, a fluid-filled cavity that plays a crucial role in their biology.
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