the active site for many enzymes group of answer choices involves amino acids that are brought into close proximity by extensive protein folding and may require a prosthetic group such as a metal ion. usually depends on only one amino acid. involves amino acids that are brought into close proximity by extensive protein folding. contains amino acids that are contiguous to one another along the primary sequence of the protein. may require a prosthetic group such as a metal ion.

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Answer 1

The active site for many enzymes usually involves amino acids that are brought into close proximity by extensive protein folding and may require a prosthetic group such as a metal ion.

let's look at the answer in detail:

An enzyme is a macromolecule made up of amino acids that catalyzes a biochemical reaction by lowering the activation energy. A substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, which then catalyzes the conversion of the substrate into the product.

1. The structure of an enzyme can be divided into two parts: the apoenzyme and the cofactor. The apoenzyme is the protein part of an enzyme, while the cofactor is the nonprotein part.

2. In general, enzymes require cofactors to be fully functional. There are two primary types of cofactors: metal ions and coenzymes. The structure of an enzyme's active site is determined by the amino acid sequence of its protein component, and the active site's shape determines which substrates will bind. Because the active site is so precise, it is thought that enzymes have developed to have exactly the right size, shape, and charge distribution to bind to their specific substrate.

3. Enzymes can be activated or deactivated by other enzymes, and their activity can be influenced by a variety of environmental variables, such as temperature, pH, and concentration.

Therefore, The active site for many enzymes usually involves amino acids that are brought into close proximity by extensive protein folding and may require a prosthetic group such as a metal ion.

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Related Questions

Determine whether each structure is homologous or homoplastic.a. Long snout of egg-laying echidna and placental giant anteaterb. Cactus spine and tree leafc. Flippers of dolphins and fins of fishd. Tailbone of human and tail of dogse. webbed feet of ducks and ottersf. true roots and root-like stems of plantsg. wings of bats and flippers of whales

Answers

Answer:

I’m confused

Explanation:

What process do heterotrophs use to release energy?

Answers

Cellular respiration

which level of evidence relies on analyzing the physical traits common between organisms when developing from an embryo?

Answers

The level of evidence that relies on analyzing the physical traits common between organisms when developing from an embryo is embryology.

Embryology is the scientific study of embryos, which includes studying the early developmental stages of organisms. Embryology examines the physical characteristics that are common among organisms that develop from an embryo.

Embryos of different organisms often share many physical traits, such as the same order of developmental steps, the same basic body plan, and other similarities. By comparing the similarities between embryos of different organisms, researchers are able to gain insight into the evolutionary history of these organisms.


There are numerous fields in which embryology is useful. It is utilized in evolutionary biology, where the similarities and distinctions between organisms are used to determine evolutionary relationships between organisms. Embryology is utilized in clinical medicine to diagnose abnormalities in the early stages of pregnancy.

Embryology is the study of the development of embryos, particularly the first eight weeks after fertilization, from which point the term fetus is used. The study of embryology is useful in the medical field, particularly in the areas of anatomy and physiology, as well as developmental biology, comparative biology, and evolutionary biology.

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Reinforced, threadlike pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of _____.
A) forams
B) water molds
C) dinoflagellates
D) oomycetes

Answers

Reinforced, threadlike pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of Forams.

What are pseudopods?                                                                                                                                                       Pseudopodia, also known as pseudopods, are protrusions of the cell membrane, particularly used by amoeboid cells for motility and phagocytosis. Pseudopodia are commonly used to differentiate between unicellular and multicellular organisms; the former is distinguished by its lack of cell-to-cell contact and the presence of pseudopodia.

Certain types of multicellular organisms, such as slime molds, form multinucleated amoeboids during their life cycle, while other organisms, such as animals and fungi, primarily rely on cell-to-cell contact rather than pseudopodia.

Pseudopodia are classified into four types, based on their structure and function:

LobopodiaFilopodiaReticulopodiaAxopodia.

What is phagocytosis?                                                                                                                                                           Phagocytosis, a type of endocytosis, is the process by which cells engulf and ingest other cells, debris, or molecules. It is a major mechanism utilized by the body to get rid of foreign particles such as bacteria, viruses, and dead cells. Phagocytosis is utilized by white blood cells (WBCs) for detecting and eliminating foreign substances in the body.

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Help me i have to turn it in Tomorrow

Answers

Air pollution can be caused by air conditioners and refrigerators made before 1996 can release CFCS into the air.

What are the types of air pollution?

Air conditioners and refrigerators made before 1996 can release CFCS into the air. These compounds react with sunlight and destroy ozone molecules. This allows more harmful UV rays to reach Earth's surface, causing increased rates of skin cancer.

Another kind of air pollution caused by natural events such as volcanic eruptions or human activities such as burning fossil fuels is nitrogen compounds. Particulate matter is a mix of solid and liquid particles in the air. It can be caused by wood-burning stoves and forest fires. Indoor sources of this gas include burning fossil fuels to generate electricity or to run vehicles.

A third type of air pollution, photochemical smog, is a brownish haze in the sky when carbon compounds and sunlight react and form new substances. The last type of air pollution, acid precipitation, is rain or snow that has a lower pH than normal rainwater. It is also caused by burning fossil fuels.

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give an example of an internal stimuli response of a plant and of a human.

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Internal factors that influence an organism's response are known as internal stimuli. One or more examples are: A decline in water levels which would evoke a thirst response.

An elevated quantity of carbon dioxide in the blood which might lead to a yawn, A lowered blood sugar level which would lead to a hungry reaction. For example, sunlight acts as a stimulation for plants that encourages them develop or move towards it.

Another example of stimulation is high temperatures that activate (stimulate) the sweat system in our body as a result of which our bodies cool down. External or internal stimuli are both possible. Your body's reaction to a medication is an illustration of an external stimulus.

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75 POINTS AND BRAINIEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

1. Construct an entomology timeline illustrating the sequence of events and the bugs present from the case file you read.

2. What are some of your observations regarding the preparations a forensic entomologist makes and the evidence they must collect for law enforcement and the courts?

3. What are some tools and procedures forensic entomologists like Lee Goff use to collect evidence?

4. How conclusive do you believe entomology evidence can be? Support your statements with facts.

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How do you make a decomposition and entomology timeline?

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Answer:

1. To construct an entomology timeline, first, you will need to gather information about the case file you read, including the time and location of death, the species of insects present, and their developmental stages. Then, you can create a graphical representation of the sequence of events, including the arrival and departure of different insect species, and the corresponding stages of decomposition. Here's an example:

Day 0: Death occurs.

Day 1-2: Blowflies (Calliphoridae) lay eggs on the body.

Day 3-4: Eggs hatch into larvae (maggots) which feed on the body.

Day 5-6: Maggots continue to feed and grow, developing into the second instar.

Day 7-8: Maggots molt again, becoming the third instar.

Day 9-10: Maggots become fully grown and migrate away from the body to pupate.

Day 11-13: Pupae develop into adult blowflies which emerge and fly away.

Day 14-15: Beetles (Dermestidae) arrive and feed on the remaining tissue.

2. Forensic entomologists must make careful observations and collect accurate data to provide reliable evidence for law enforcement and the courts. This includes documenting the location, time, and environmental conditions of the body, as well as collecting specimens of insects and other arthropods present on and around the body. They must also maintain a chain of custody for the evidence and follow established protocols for analyzing and interpreting the data.

3. Forensic entomologists use a variety of tools and procedures to collect evidence, including:

- Entomological nets and traps to capture adult insects

- Pitfall traps to collect crawling insects

- Hand-held aspirators to collect specimens from hard-to-reach areas

- Trowels and shovels to collect soil samples

- Sterile vials and bags for storing specimens

- Cameras and GPS devices for documenting the location and context of the evidence

4. Entomology evidence can be highly conclusive in certain cases, particularly those involving the time of death or the location of a crime. For example, by analyzing the developmental stages of blowfly larvae found on a body, forensic entomologists can estimate the time of death with a high degree of accuracy. However, entomology evidence must be interpreted in conjunction with other types of evidence and may not always provide a definitive answer on its own. Additionally, there is always the possibility of contamination or other.

One piece of evidence for the endosymbiotic theory is that the mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotes _____.

self-replicate by binary fission, which is the way prokaryotes divide
have DNA similar to prokaryotes
synthesize proteins like prokaryotes
all of the above

Answers

The aforementioned facts support the endosymbiotic idea. Some of the organelles seen in eukaryotic cells may have originally been prokaryotic bacteria, according to the endosymbiotic theory or notion.

What support does the notion of endosymbiosis have in chloroplasts and mitochondria?

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have circular, single-stranded DNA in addition to not having histone proteins or histones which is a great similarity between them. Prokaryotes are the only organisms that have single-stranded, circular DNA.

What is the strongest proof that mitochondria are an endosymbiotic organism?

The best proof we currently have for the common ancestry of mitochondria and chloroplasts is protein import. That is most likely the most convincing evidence we have for categorizing the number and type of secondary endosymbiotic interactions that the red plastid lineage has experienced during evolution.

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which of the following pulmonary function study results indicate that bronchodilator therapy should be initiated? parameterpredictedprepost 1) fvc (l) 2.61.81.9 2) fev1 (l) 1.91.91.4 3) fev1% 73si% 4) peak flow (l/sec) 7.46.27.1

Answers

"FEV1 (L)," would indicate that bronchodilator therapy should be initiated. So, the second option is accurate.

FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one second) is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled in the first second of a forced expiration after a maximal inhalation. In this case, the pre-bronchodilator FEV1 is 1.9 L, and the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is 1.4 L, which is a significant decrease.

A decrease in FEV1 indicates a potential obstruction in the airways, which can be indicative of conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Bronchodilator therapy is a common treatment for these conditions, as it can help to open up the airways and improve lung function. Therefore, based on the provided information, bronchodilator therapy should be initiated in this case.

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why are traits such as human skin color and height not suitable for explaining the concept of simple dominance

Answers

Traits such as human skin color and height are not suitable for explaining the concept of simple dominance because they are controlled by multiple genes and are influenced by environmental factors. Simple dominance refers to the inheritance pattern of a single gene, where one allele completely masks the expression of the other allele. Skin color and height are polygenic traits, meaning they are controlled by multiple genes that interact with each other in complex ways. The expression of these traits is also influenced by environmental factors such as diet, exercise, and exposure to sunlight, which further complicates their inheritance pattern. Therefore, the concept of simple dominance does not apply to these traits.

Where is the location of translation

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Translation takes place in the ribosomes, which are the site of protein synthesis.

The process of translation involves the conversion of messenger RNA (mRNA) into a polypeptide chain. This is accomplished through the interaction of transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules with the mRNA sequence and with the ribosome's large and small subunits.Most of the proteins made by the cell are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and transported into the ER's interior, where they are folded, processed, and transported to their final destination inside or outside the cell.Translation is a process that occurs in two phases: initiation and elongation.

During initiation, the ribosome assembles onto the mRNA and selects the correct start codon to begin translation. Then, during elongation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA, matching each codon with the appropriate amino acid-bearing tRNA to build the growing polypeptide chain. Finally, termination signals end translation and release the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome.

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sexology: group of answer choices is a challenging branch of scientific study because it focuses on an aspect of life that many people prefer to keep private. is declining as a scientific discipline due to lack of interest. is one of the oldest branches of science. is not considered a valid scientific specialty.

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Sexology is a challenging branch of scientific study because it focuses on an aspect of life that many people prefer to keep private.

Sexology is the scientific study of human sexuality, including topics such as sexual behavior, sexual orientation, gender identity, sexual health, and sexual dysfunction. It is an interdisciplinary field that draws on research from biology, psychology, sociology, medicine, and other disciplines.

Because sexuality is often considered a private and sensitive topic, studying it can be challenging. Researchers must ensure that their studies are conducted in an ethical and sensitive manner, and they must take steps to protect the privacy and confidentiality of their participants.

In summary, sexology is an important and valid scientific specialty, but it can be challenging due to the sensitive nature of the topic it explores.

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olfactory axons of cranial nerve i pass through the anterior cranial fossa. what provides passage of this structure?

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The olfactory axons of cranial nerve I, also known as the olfactory nerve, pass through the anterior cranial fossa of the skull. The anterior cranial fossa is one of the three depressions in the floor of the cranial cavity that house the brain.

The passage of the olfactory axons through the anterior cranial fossa is provided by several bony structures. The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone forms a part of the anterior cranial fossa and contains small perforations that allow the olfactory axons to pass through. The olfactory epithelium, where the olfactory receptors are located, is located in the superior portion of the nasal cavity and is in close proximity to the cribriform plate.

The olfactory axons pass through the cribriform plate and enter the olfactory bulbs, where they synapse with other neurons before relaying sensory information to higher brain centers. The cribriform plate provides a protective barrier between the nasal cavity and the brain while still allowing for the transmission of olfactory information.

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Fill The Blank? an allosteric effector molecule binds to ______ and cause a change in ___________.

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An allosteric effector molecule binds to an enzyme and causes a change in its activity.

An allosteric effector molecule is a molecule that binds to an enzyme at a site different from the active site of the enzyme, altering the enzyme's shape and therefore its activity. An allosteric effector is a molecule that can bind to an allosteric site. An allosteric site is a region on the protein that is not the active site where effector molecules can bind. It changes the shape of the enzyme, which can either increase or decrease the enzyme's activity.

The molecule binds to a regulatory site other than the enzyme's active site in allosteric enzymes. The binding of the effector molecule results in a conformational change in the enzyme, which alters its shape, and the activity of the enzyme is affected in response to this change. Inhibitors are molecules that decrease an enzyme's activity, while activators are molecules that increase it

Allosteric inhibitors and activators have regulatory sites that differ from the active site of the enzyme. When the enzyme and the effector molecules bind, the activity of the enzyme is altered. Hence, an allosteric effector molecule binds to an enzyme and causes a change in its activity.

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which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells?

Answers

They express MHC class II (HLA-II) molecules and include macrophages.

The immune cells that convey an antigen to a T-cell are known as professional antigen presentation cells (APCs). Dendritic cells, macrophages, B-cells, and certain activated epithelial cells are the three main types of professional APCs. They phagocytose or endocytose the antigen via receptor-mediated endocytosis before displaying a part of it on their membrane bound to a class II MHC protein. The interaction between the T cell and the antigen-class II MHC molecule complex on the membrane of the APCs causes the release of a second co-stimulatory signal, which activates the T cell.

The body's nucleated cells that express MHC-I molecules and give helper T cells antigen are represented by non-professional APCs. Professional APCs display antigens to both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells and express both MHC-I (HLA-I) and MHC-II (HLA-II) molecules. The T-cell is often used by professional APCs to process foreign antigens. Their self-antigens are not visible. The endothelium and plasma both contain the von Willebrand factor (vWF), also known as factor VIII-related antigen. Maintaining hemostasis and playing a role in platelet adhesion.

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The tails of animals can serve many important functions. They are mainly used in balance and locomotion. Many lizards have a fragile, detachable tail that will come off when they are attacked by predators, allowing them to escape.Why is the presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail an advantage for some lizards?
A. They are more likely to attract mates.
B. Predators more likely grab them by the tail:
C. It helps them blend into natural environtment
D. Predator likely to be frightened away by a brightly collored tail

Answers

The presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail is an advantage for some lizards because predators are likely to be frightened away by a brightly colored tail.                                                                                                                                The correct option is D.

What is a detachable tail?

A detachable tail is a tail that can be disconnected from the body when under pressure from a predator or other threats. This adaptation is primarily seen in lizards, which have the ability to shed their tails as a form of self-defense.

Why is the presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail an advantage for some lizards?

Bright coloration is an evolutionary adaptation that may indicate danger to potential predators. In some cases, it may help predators to avoid attacking. When a lizard's tail is brightly colored and detachable, it can be used as a defense mechanism.

The lizard can use its tail as a decoy to attract predators to the tail, which can then be shed, allowing the lizard to escape. Predators, seeing the brightly colored tail, may be frightened away by the apparent danger it represents to them.  

Another potential advantage of a brightly colored, detachable tail is that it may make it easier for the lizard to attract mates. This is because bright colors are often associated with sexual selection, which means that males with bright, attractive colors are more likely to be chosen by females during the mating process.

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Maintaining Soil Health
Directions: You will imagine that you have just been called in as a consultant to a major agricultural company. The company is concerned about maintaining soil quality and preventing such problems as erosion. You will complete the following:

Create a presentation (PowerPoint, poster, informational brochure, magazine/newspaper article, comic strip, etc.) explaining some methods the company could use to help maintain soil fertility and prevent problems such as erosion. 4 informational methods must be included.

Answers

For healthy soil, production, and resistance against climate change, good drainage is crucial. Extending grazing seasons on grassland and improving the workability of arable land via prevention of waterlogging and compaction encourages successful crop establishment.

What are the four guiding principles for managing soil sustainably?

According to the National Research Council (2010), a sustainable agricultural system must achieve four objectives. They include attaining adequate production, improving the environment and base of natural resources, making farming profitable, and promoting the welfare of farmers and their communities.

Years of agricultural study have taught us that the timing and manner in which we use these techniques have a significant impact on the quality of our soils.

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by approximately what percentage of its original length is a free dna strand shortened by the coiling around a single histone? (note: a histone has a diameter of 11 nm and about 200 dna base pairs wrap around one histone; assume inter-histone length is negligible.)

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Approximately 7% of its original length is a free DNA strand shortened by coiling around a single histone.

Histones are protein molecules found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells that wrap DNA into tight coils. They have a positive charge and bind to negatively charged DNA molecules. In eukaryotes, DNA is packaged into a dense structure called chromatin, which includes DNA, histone, and other proteins. Histones are basic proteins that are rich in amino acids such as arginine and lysine. DNA is wrapped around histones to form nucleosomes. Each nucleosome contains DNA wrapped around eight histone proteins, forming a structure that looks like beads on a string.The width of the DNA double helix is around 2 nm, and the diameter of the histone is 11 nm. When DNA is coiled around histones to form a nucleosome, the DNA becomes shorter by approximately six times. About 200 DNA base pairs wrap around one histone, so this is approximately equal to the length of one nucleosome. The DNA molecule is therefore shorter by approximately 7% of its original length when it is coiled around a single histone.

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Recent scientific studies have documented variation in the alleles of Tibetan women. The alleles being studied are indicated as A and B below and represent alternative version of a trait that affects oxygen content in the blood of the women. High oxygen content is important for survival at high altitudes. describe two pieces of evidence from the table below that supports the claim that allele B is affected by selection pressure

Answers

The proportion of live babies that perished infancy is much greater in moms with genotype AA, which provides evidence that allele B is influenced by selection pressure.

Why, over many generations, have Tibetans' physiologies differed from those of people who live at lower elevations?

Compared to those who live at lower elevations, Tibetans have larger blood arteries today, which makes it easier for their blood to circulate and effectively carry oxygen to the body.

Which adaptations are there in Tibetans?

In comparison to lowlanders, Tibetans have larger lungs, higher lung function, and more lung diffusing capacity. They also have superior hypoxic and hypercapnic ventilatory response. Compared to lowlanders or Andeans living at comparable altitudes, Tibetans have lower blood hemoglobin concentrations.

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what is the function of a stabilizer in muscular performance? causes opposite action to one desired cooperates with other muscles prevents undesirable action of contracting muscles supports body segment against pull of contracting muscle

Answers

The function of a stabilizer in muscular performance is to support body segments against the pull of contracting muscles. This prevents undesirable actions of contracting muscles, as well as cooperating with other muscles to produce the opposite action to the one desired.


A stabilizer in muscular performance refers to a muscle that supports the body segment against the pull of the contracting muscle. It is a muscle that causes an opposite action to the one desired while cooperating with other muscles. It also prevents the undesirable action of contracting muscles.

The function of stabilizers in muscular performance is to stabilize the joint during movements and prevent injuries. Stabilizer muscles are essential in that they help maintain posture and balance while providing support to joints during movements. They prevent unnecessary movements or motions that could cause injury to the joints. For example, in the shoulder joint, the rotator cuff muscles function as stabilizers by preventing excessive motion of the humerus, preventing injury to the joint.

The muscles that stabilize the spine are known as core stabilizers. They stabilize the spine during movement and provide a solid base for the extremities to push off during various activities. Therefore, stabilizers play an essential role in maintaining stability and preventing injuries during movements.

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Which phrases describe examples of mass movement? Check all that apply.

sediments settling on a mountain

soil mixed with water sliding off a cliff

rocks and debris rolling down a steep slope

rocks breaking into sediments as they fall to the ground

loosely connected rock and debris traveling down a steep hill

Answers

All of the phrases except for "sediments settling on a mountain" describe examples of mass movement.

Mass movement, also known as mass wasting, refers to the downslope movement of rocks, soil, and other debris due to the force of gravity. "Soil mixed with water sliding off a cliff" describes a type of mass movement called a mudflow, which is a mixture of water, soil, and rock that moves down a slope due to the weight of the material and the force of gravity. "Rocks and debris rolling down a steep slope" describes rockfall, which is the rapid free fall of rock from a cliff or steep slope. "Rocks breaking into sediments as they fall to the ground" describes rockslide, which is the rapid sliding of rocks and debris down a steep slope. "Loosely connected rock and debris traveling down a steep hill" describes a landslide, which is the rapid sliding of a large mass of rock or soil down a slope.

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How would you classify a prokaryote that lives in hot springs that have a low pH at Yellowstone National Park? A. Extreme Halophiles B. Chemoautotroph C. Thermoacidophile D. Methanogen

Answers

The prokaryote that lives in hot springs that have a low pH at Yellowstone National Park is classified as a Thermoacidophile. The organisms that lack a distinct nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are known as prokaryotes.

Bacteria and Archaea are the two groups of prokaryotic cells. They are often the most numerous cells in most habitats, accounting for up to 90% of the cells in ocean water.

'What is a Thermoacidophile?'

Thermoacidophiles are organisms that can survive in extremely hot and acidic environments. Many of these organisms are unicellular prokaryotes, although some are multicellular eukaryotes. The optimum temperature for growth of these organisms is around 70°C, and they are found in acid mine drainage, geothermal springs, and hydrothermal vents.

C. Thermoacidophile is the correct answer.

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Which option is not a response to internal stimuil

Answers

The option that is not a response to an internal stimuli would be wearing sunglasses to protect eyes from UV rays.

In all the other options, the person who does a certain action also gets a feedback from his body which urges him to do that particular  action.

Option D is correct.

What is internal stimuli?

A stimulus is anything that can trigger a physical or behavioral change an example being the  vital signs changing due to a change in the body.

Other examples of internal stimuli includes:

a. eating when hungry

b. breathing hard when exercising because of a drop in oxygen levels

c. drinking when thirsty

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Complete question:

Which of these is not a response to internal stimuli?

a. eating when hungry

b. breathing hard when exercising because of a drop in oxygen levels

c. drinking when thirsty

d. wearing sunglasses to protect eyes from UV rays

a secondary structure motif in which regions of the polypeptide lie parallel to each other is called ____

Answers

The secondary structure motif in which regions of the polypeptide lie parallel to each other is called beta sheets.

In beta sheets, the polypeptide backbone forms a zigzag pattern, with adjacent strands held together by hydrogen bonds between the peptide bonds. This arrangement allows for a more rigid, extended structure than the alpha helix, which is another common secondary structure motif. Beta sheets are often found in the interior of globular proteins, and they can also form the basis for fibrous proteins like silk.

Beta sheets can be either parallel or anti-parallel, depending on the directionality of the polypeptide strands. In parallel beta sheets, the strands run in the same direction, while in anti-parallel beta sheets, the strands run in opposite directions. Anti-parallel beta sheets are generally more stable than parallel beta sheets, as the hydrogen bonds between adjacent strands are more linear.

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a ligand binds to a transmembrane protein, which causes a conformational change in the protein that is detected by an intracellular protein. the intracellular protein is an enzyme that adds phosphate groups to target proteins. the phosphorylated proteins cause a physiological change within the cell.this process is an example of .

Answers

The intracellular protein then adds phosphate groups to target proteins, leading to a physiological change within the cell. This process is known as signal transduction.

A ligand binds to a transmembrane protein, which leads to a conformational change in the protein that is detected by an intracellular protein. The intracellular protein then adds phosphate groups to target proteins, leading to a physiological change within the cell. This process is known as signal transduction.
This process is an example of signal transduction, specifically a receptor-mediated signal transduction pathway. Here's a step-by-step explanation:
1. A ligand binds to a transmembrane protein (receptor) on the cell surface.
2. The binding causes a conformational change in the protein structure.
3. This change is detected by an intracellular protein, which is an enzyme.
4. The enzyme, a kinase, adds phosphate groups to target proteins through phosphorylation.
5. The phosphorylated proteins cause a physiological change within the cell.
This entire sequence of events constitutes a signal transduction pathway.

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Based on these cell models, which of
the following observations about DNA is
correct?
DNA is not found in cells.
DNA is larger than cells.
DNA is smaller than cells.
DNA is found outside the cell.

Answers

Answer:

DNA is smaller than cells.

Which is bigger, DNA or a gene?

DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid. It is the chemical name of the molecule making up our genes. One entire DNA molecule is called a chromosome. A normal human cell has 46 chromosomes, therefore 46 DNA molecules. We have 46 DNA molecules, but thousands of genes. Therefore, every chromosome contains many, many genes.

Think of it this way: one chromosome (one DNA molecule) is like a book and one gene is one page in the book.

Help me

The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its

A Population growth rate
B Natality
C Mortality
D Limiting factors

Answers

The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its limiting factors. Limiting factors are the environmental factors that limit the growth, distribution, or abundance of a population.

These factors include availability of resources like food, water, and shelter, competition, predation, disease, and environmental factors like temperature, rainfall, and natural disasters.

As the population size increases, the limiting factors become more pronounced and restrict the growth of the population. The carrying capacity is the maximum population size that an environment can sustain with the available resources and limiting factors.

Therefore, the carrying capacity is determined by the balance between the population growth rate, natality, and mortality rates and the availability of resources and limiting factors.

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Put the events of ventilation in a mammalian lung in order, from first to last.

Answers

The correct order of ventilation is: Inhalation > Air Distribution > Gas Exchange > Exhalation

The events of ventilation in a mammalian lung in order, from first to last are:

Inhalation: The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs.Air Distribution: Air travels through the bronchi and bronchioles to the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.Gas Exchange: Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the capillaries surrounding the alveoli, while carbon dioxide diffuses from the capillaries into the alveoli.Exhalation: The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and causing air to flow out of the lungs.

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Which two statements best describe cell growth?
A.
The number of paramecium cells in a pond decreases after cell division.
B.
The size of a paramecium cell increases as it takes in and uses nutrients.
C.
The number of cells in an animal's body increases because of cell division.
D.
The size of an animal's body increases as its cells grow in size by taking in nutrients.

Answers

Option C & D. Cell growth means that a cell gets bigger (gains mass), while cell division means that a mother cell splits into two daughter cells.

Cell division is the process of making more cells, which is what cell proliferation is. So that our bodies can grow and change, they need to make new cells and let old ones die. Cell division is also an important part of healing wounds. If our cells couldn't divide and make new ones, our bodies couldn't make new skin cells to heal a road rash or grow a fingernail back.

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what are the the functions served by squeezing the fetus/newborn as it passes through the birth canal.

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The squeezing of the fetus/newborn as it passes through the birth canal serves the functions of aiding the compression of the skull bones and facilitating the production of hormones necessary for the initiation of lactation.

Squeezing the fetus/newborn as it passes through the birth canal serves several functions. Firstly, it helps to remove fluids from the respiratory system, preparing the newborn to take its first breath. Secondly, the pressure exerted on the newborn's chest helps to expel any remaining amniotic fluid from the lungs. Thirdly, the compression of the newborn's head during delivery allows it to pass through the narrow birth canal, facilitating delivery.

Fourthly, the pressure on the newborn's body helps to stimulate the production of stress hormones, which can assist with the transition to life outside of the womb. Finally, the physical contact between the mother and newborn during delivery can promote bonding and attachment between the two.

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