solve please!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

The value of the algebraic expression when n is given as 6 will be 38.

An algebraic expression is when we use numbers and words in solving a particular mathematical question.

Based on the information given in the question, the expression will be:

= 1 + 7n - 5

Note that the value of n = 6

Therefore, 1 + 7n - 5 will be:

= 1 + 7n - 5

= 1 + 7(6) - 5

= 1 + 42 - 5

= 38

Step-by-step explanation:Therefore, the value of the algebraic expression when n is given as 6 is 38.

Answer:

=-2(5/11)-7(1/11)

=-10/11-7/11

=(-10-7)/11

=-3/11

Answer:

5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

It goes up 5 and over 12.

Solving the quadratic equation, it is found that the number of teams is greater than 1000 after 3.1 years.

The number of teams after x years is given by:

[tex]T(x) = 17.155x^2 + 193.68x + 235.81[/tex]

Initially, there are T(0) = 236 teams. If will 1000 be when T(x) = 1000, thus:

[tex]17.155x^2 + 193.68x + 235.81 = 1000[/tex]

[tex]17.155x^2 + 193.68x - 764.19 = 0[/tex]

Which has coefficients [tex]a = 17.155, b = 193.68, c = -764.19[/tex], then:

[tex]\Delta = (193.68)^2 - 4(17.155)(-764.19) = 89950.66[/tex]

[tex]x_{1} = \frac{-193.68 + \sqrt{89950.66}}{2(17.155)} = 3.1[/tex]

[tex]x_{2} = \frac{-193.68 - \sqrt{89950.66}}{2(17.155)} = -14.3[/tex]  

We want the positive root, so the number of teams is greater than 1000 after 3.1 years.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/10489198

Answer:

Excact Form

Decimal Form

Mixed Number

Step-by-step explanation:

To add fractions, find the least common denominator and then combine

Answer:

100,000,000,000,000

Answer:

3/2 or 1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + c

m = the slope

2y = 3x + 4

y = 3x + 4 / 2

y = 1.5x + 2

slope = 1.5

2 CUPS OF WATER FOR 3 CUPS OF FLOUR

SO 1 CUP = 1.5 water

SO MULTIPLY AND FIND THE ANSWER

Answer:

(B/h)(1/2) - k = s

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{64}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rule of exponents

[tex]a^{-m}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{a^{m} }[/tex]

and 4³ = 4 × 4 × 4 = 16 × 4 = 64

Then

[tex]4^{-3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{4^{3} }[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{64}[/tex]

Answer:

0.015625

uokcdjnjhxfukbgy

Answer:

the Day falls one day after every year which means that this one will fall on a

Step-by-step explanation:

wedsnday

Answer:

distributive property of multiplication.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5/9t-27-(1/9t+21)=0

Answer:

u = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

-4 = 3 - 7

Answer:

(36.4+18.7)x22.3/2 = 614.365

Step-by-step explanation:

up+downxheight/2

Answer: Horizontal Line

Step-by-step explanation:

Joy is correct. This is a horizontal line. It has the same y coordinates so it will be a horizontal line.

Joy is saying correct by saying it is a horizontal line.

Coordinates are a set of values which helps to show the exact position of a point in the coordinate plane.

Given:

coordinates (-9, 4) and (6,4)

If we plot these point on the graph it will have the y- coordinates same for both coordinates.

Also, if the graph have same y- coordinates then the line joining these points are horizontal in nature.

Hence, Joy is saying correct by saying it is a horizontal line.

Learn more about coordinates here:

https://brainly.com/question/28338266

#SPJ5

Answer:

Mr. Jones would have 21 total pencils.

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 14 times 3

Answer:

How do you find a quadratic regression from points?

Image result for using quadratic regression what parabola uses the points (4,80), (-3,-11), (-1,-15)?

Quadratic regression is the process of determining the equation of a parabola that best fits a set of data. This set of data is a given set of graph points that make up the shape of a parabola. The equation of the parabola is y = ax2 + bx + c, where a can never equal zero

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  Definition of midpoint

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement you're trying to justify is one that relates two line segments. (It says they're congruent.) This does not involve angles or triangles, and no addition of length is involved. The only reasonable choice on the list (and the correct one) is ...

  Definition of midpoint

__

A midpoint is a point that divides a line segment into two congruent parts. Since W is said to be the midpoint (given), it must divide UV such that UW ≅ VW, the statement we're trying to justify.

The correct answer is B/the second option.

The reason is that you can find slope by doing y2-y1/x2-x1, however x1 was put before x2 and therefore the slope was wrong. Good luck !! :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of it this way what if an exponent had 1 so like 10^1

that still equals 10, and does not change anything, so you need to add one more to the exponent as the first number does not change how many types the number is multiplied. Hope this helps

Answer:

c lines

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The distributive property.

The two triangles have a pair of corresponding sides as well as the

included angles between them that are equal.

Justin could prove that ΔDEH ≅ ΔFGH by A. SAS

Reason:

The known information are;

DF bisects GE, therefore; GH = EH

GE bisects DF, therefore; DH = FH

∠DHE = ∠FHG by vertical opposite angle theorem

Therefore;

DH and EH in triangle ΔDEH = FH and GH in triangle ΔFGH

∠DHE in triangle ΔDEH = ∠FHG in triangle ΔFGH

Therefore, two sides and an included angle triangle in ΔDEH are equal to (congruent) to the corresponding two sides and an included angle in ΔFGH.

Therefore;

ΔDEH ≅ ΔFGH by SAS, Side-Angle-Side congruency theorem

Learn more here:

https://brainly.com/question/14418374

The answer would be SAS

Step-by-step explanation: SAS

Comparing the equivalent cost of Milk in Euro in the two countries, then we can conclude that Milk is a better value for money in Paris.

In other to make accurate comparison of the cost ; we need to using the same unit or milk and same currency value :

Cost of 1 pint of Milk in London :

1 pint = 0.58 pounds

The equivalent value of 1 pint of Milk in terms of Euro in London will be :

1 pound = 1.17 euro

0.58 pound = x

Cross multiply :

x = 1.17 × 0.58

x = 0.6786 euro

x = 0.68 euro

Hence, 1 pint of Milk cost 0.68 euro in London

Cost of 1 pint of Milk in Paris :

1 Litre = 1.76 pint

Hence,

1.76 pint = 1.05 euro

1 pint = c

1.76c = 1.05

c = 1.05 / 1.76

c = 0.597 euro

Hence, cost of 1 pint of Milk cost 0.60 euro in Paris

Therefore, since the cost of Milk in Paris cost less in Paris than in London, then Milk is a better value for money in Paris.

Learn more :https://brainly.com/question/18109354