The method which the nurse would identify as best to control infections is to keep the baby warm and dry as wet diapers can attract bacteria which can cause illness.
The infant is the most susceptible person in the new environment because of lack of enough antibodies and ability to sustain in the new environment and so pre natal care is very important for the child. In this case, the parents must be asked to use antibiotic ointments near the eye of the infant to protect then from ophthalmia neonatorum, infection of umbilical cord etc. The parents must also wash their hands before taking the child as personal hygiene also affects the health of the baby.
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30. When applying towels around the incision a. It is important that the skin be dry b. Drape the area nearest you first c. Walk to the opposite side of the patient to place the last towel d. All of the above
When applying towels around the incision option d. All of the above is correct, as it it is important to have dry skin, nearest area is to be draped first and last towel should be placed on opposite side.
An incision is a cut through the skin that's made during surgery. It's also called a surgical crack. Some lacerations are small, others are long. The size of the gash depends on the kind of surgery you had.
Dry skin accompanies most surgical procedures as a result of the temporary towel swelling that takes place with any operation. This temporary stretch causes the skin to produce have further of the external skin than it needs and once the lump resolves, this skin sloughs off.
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what is the scientific method?
As you have been learning about both the skeletal and muscular system for this discussion you will talk about the difference between the two and also how they work together.
The skeletal system is the body's framework of bones, cartilage, and other tissues that support the body and help it move. It is made up of the bones of the body, as well as cartilage, a connective tissue that helps cushion and protect the bones. The skeletal system provides support and structure to the body and helps to protect the internal organs. It also plays a vital role in movement, as the bones provide a surface for the muscles to attach to and work against.
The muscular system is made up of muscles that are responsible for movement, posture, and stability. It is made up of three types of muscles: skeletal muscles, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles. Skeletal muscles are responsible for voluntary movement, such as moving the arms and legs. Smooth muscles are responsible for involuntary movement, such as the movement of food through the digestive system. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart and is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.
The skeletal and muscular systems work together to allow the body to move and function properly. The bones of the skeletal system provide a surface for the muscles to attach to and work against, while the muscles of the muscular system contract and relax to move the bones. This movement allows us to walk, run, jump, and perform other physical activities. The skeletal system also provides protection for the muscles, as the bones help to hold the muscles in place and prevent them from tearing or overextending.
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The healthcare provider prescribes theophylline to be given intravenously for the client experiencing an acute asthma attack. What does the nurse teach the client is the function of this medication
Healthcare providers prescribe intravenous theophylline to people who are having acute asthma attacks. The nurse tells the client that this drug's function is a bronchodilator.
Theophylline is a bronchodilator. This medicine relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and relieves bronchospasm. This improves air exchange. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. Antihistamines block the action of histamine. Expectorants are used to loosen mucus in the lungs. Antibiotics, antihistamines, or expectorants do not relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial airways in patients experiencing acute flares increase. These are the functions of this medication that can be explained by the healthcare provider to the client with an acute asthma attack
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Outpatient care accounts for what percent of gross patient revenue for all US hospitals?
a.10%
b.20%
c.40%
d.60%
Answer: 40%
Explanation:
b. A 24 year old newly diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. The client asks the nurse if she will still be able to take her oral contraceptive medication. How should the nurse respond?
The nurse must respond to the query of the women on oral contraceptive by responding that she must use a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin, which means option B is the right answer.
Oral Contraceptives are the pills which are taken by the women before and after intercourse to prevent the egg from fertilizing. It is one of the most commonly used method to avoid unwanted pregnancy. Phenytoin is the anti-seizure drug which is used to decreasing abnormal electrical activity in the brain. It has some side effects like flu, rashes etc. Phenytoin can reduce the effects of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) and so the women will have to extra dosage of contraceptives which can be harmful for the body and so she is advised to use another method of birth control.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A patient is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The patient tells the nurse that she is taking oral contraceptives. What will the nurse tell the patient?
a. She may need to increase her dose of phenytoin while taking oral contraceptives.
b. She should consider a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin.
c. She should remain on oral contraceptives, because phenytoin causes birth defects.
d. She should stop taking oral contraceptives, because they reduce the effectiveness of phenytoin.
39. The closed-glove technique is used: a. Only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs b. When re-gloving without assistance during the procedure c. To assist a surgeon in donning sterile attire d. As a method for correcting glove contamination
The closed-glove technique is used is only when the hands have never passed through the gown cuffs.
The correct answer is A.
The use of closed gloves is a method of putting on sterile gloves by placing the hand that has undergone scrubbing inside the cuff.
Wear gloves with a closed method:
With hands covered by the gown, remove the first glove from the package, not letting the hand come out of the cuff of the gown.Place the glove on the jacket and the thumb of the glove on the thumb with the fingers pointing toward the elbow.Grasp the bottom of the cuff with the protected fingers of the hand you will be wearing gloves onHold the top of the cuff with your other hand, which is also covered in the jacket.Raise the top cuff over the jacket cuff and the hand to be gloved. Grasp the glove cuff and suit cuff together and tuck your fingers into the glove and lay them out.To wear the second glove, repeat steps 1 to 6.Learn more about the closed-glove technique at https://brainly.com/question/2931784
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adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to _______________.
Adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, and feeding.
Adaptive equipment are gadgets that aid with washing, clothing, grooming, toileting, and eating, which are self-care tasks included in the spectrum of daily living activities (ADLs). Mobility vans are a rising market for adaptable equipment. In this scenario, adapted equipment, also known as assistive technology, can aid a person with a handicap in operating a motor vehicle when they would otherwise be unable to do so.
Mobility adaptive equipment is utilised when an illness or injury impairs or renders an individual's motor functions inoperable. If a person has limited motor functions, there is equipment and technology that can help them restore part or all of their movement.
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The mother of a 2-year-old child calls her neighbor, who is a nurse, exclaiming that her child just ate some automatic dishwasher powder. What should the nurse tell the mother to do first
The nurse tell the mother to do first call the Poison Control Center.
A poison control centre is a medical service that offers rapid, free, and professional treatment guidance and help over the phone in the event of toxic or hazardous material exposure. Poison control centres provide treatment management guidance for home items, medications, pesticides, plants, bites and stings, food poisoning, and odours, in addition to answering queries regarding suspected poisons. More than 72% of toxic exposure cases in the United States are handled over the phone, minimising the need for costly emergency room and doctor visits.
The American Association of Poison Control Centers has a 24-hour helpline (1-800-222-1222) that is constantly manned by pharmacists, doctors, nurses, and poison information experts who have received specific toxicology training. Calls to the number have been automatically routed to a poison control centre for the area from whence the call is made. It offers a TTY/TDD number for those who are deaf or hard of hearing. Poison educators around the country also provide community institutions with poison prevention training and teaching programmes, as well as instructional materials.
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A nurse manager is experiencing considerable conflict among staff members because of weekend staffing coverage. During a called staff meeting, the nurse manager asks the disgruntled staff to meet as a group and determine the best staffing practices. In doing this, the nurse manager is using the concept of collaboration to:
The nurse manager is utilizing collaboration to focus the energies of staff members on a win-win strategy.
Collaboration is the process of working together to achieve a common goal. By asking the staff to meet as a group and work together to determine the best staffing practices, the nurse manager is encouraging them to work together to come up with a solution that will benefit everyone. This encourages staff members to communicate and share ideas in order to find the best solution. It also helps to create a sense of teamwork and unity within the staff.
By doing this, the nurse manager is ensuring that all staff members have the opportunity to have their voices heard, and that all ideas are taken into consideration. Ultimately, this collaborative approach ensures that all staff members are working together towards a common goal, and that the outcome will be one that is favorable for everyone.
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An individual was admitted to the hospital after experiencing a mild tingling on the right side ofthe face and a sudden inability to speak. Using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a doctor would likely find
Using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a doctor would likely find any abnormality in the brain tissue of the left hemisphere.
Brain is responsible for all the actions in the human body. Any sudden change in the body movement is directly linked to the brain cells (nerves). The left hemisphere of the brain is responsible for all the language and speech and so it is important to check that part to identify the actual cause of the inability of normal speaking. MRI provides clear image of all the tissues and organs and the clinicians determines which part is affecting the regular speech of the patient. It is seen that if left part of the brain is damaged, the person may not be able to speak or hear properly. Reading will also become difficult in such patients.
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Why would being able to create technologies smaller than 100 nanometers be so significant to the medical community?
Being able to create technologies smaller than 100 nanometers would allow medical professionals to develop more precise, targeted treatments with fewer side effects.
What are the potential health benefits of having access to smaller medical technology?1. Increased accuracy: Smaller medical technology allows for more precise and accurate diagnoses and treatments, which can lead to better outcomes for patients.
2. Improved patient comfort: Smaller medical technology can be less intrusive and more comfortable for patients, leading to a better medical experience overall.
3. Increased mobility: Smaller medical technology can make it easier to move around, allowing for more flexibility and better access to care.
4. Reduced cost: Smaller medical technology can be more cost-effective than larger medical equipment, allowing for more affordable healthcare options.
5. Easier access to care: Smaller medical technology can be easier to transport and set up, making it more accessible to those in rural areas or those with limited access to care.
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How does a nurse determine which strategy would best enable the targeted individuals to gain more control over, and improve, their health
By evaluating available resources and the needs of the targeted individuals, a nurse can determine which strategy will be the best to enable the targeted individuals to gain more control over and improve their health.
What are the health promotion strategies?The basic health promotion strategies identified in the Ottawa Charter were: advocate (to increase the factors that promote health), enable (to allow all people to achieve health equity), and mediate (through collaboration across all sectors).Some well-known Health Promotion Strategies include: developing a healthy public policy.
Creating a welcoming environment.Increasing community cooperation.Developing and encouraging skill.Reorienting health-care delivery.Premature deaths are reduced through health promotion. Health promotion, by focusing on prevention, reduces the costs (both financial and human) that individuals, employers, families, insurance companies, medical facilities, communities, states, and nations would incur for medical treatment.Strategic planning in health care organizations entails outlining the specific steps required to achieve specific goals.To learn more about health promotion strategy refer to :
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A client suspected of having a hyperactive thyroid is scheduled for protein-bound iodine, T3, and T4 laboratory tests. Which question would the nurse ask the client to ensure accuracy of the test
The most probable question which the nurse would ask to the patient suffering from hyperactive thyroid is about the use of radiopaque dye in X-rays, which means option D is correct.
Hyper active thyroid or hyperthyroidism is the condition in which excess of thyroxine hormone is produced by the thyroid gland due to which the rate of metabolism increases abruptly and body suffers from low weight, weakness etc. In such patients, PBI (Protein bound iodine) test are preferred in which the main aim is to detect the thyroid function by measuring the concentration of iodine bound to proteins circulating in the bloodstream. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis and excess of iodine in the body causes the situation of hyperthyroidism to occur.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A client suspected of having a hyperactive thyroid is scheduled for protein-bound iodine, T3, and T4 laboratory tests. What should the nurse ask the client to ensure accuracy of the test?
A. Allergies to seafood
B. Consumed more protein than usual
C. Had anything to drink before the test
D. Had recent x-rays using radiopaque dye
A friend of patient arrives at the pharmacy to order a refill of a schedule Il controlled substance on the patient's behalf. What would be the pharmacist's best action?
Answer
they the pharmacist's best action would to not give the friend the refill. if nesscessary, they could call up the patient and see if the friend is there for what they say they are there for
Explanation:
Why are people encouraged to get a flu shot?
A A flu shot is a vaccine that prevents people from catching the flu.
B A flu shot is an antibiotic that kills bacteria in the human body.
с
A flu shot is an antiviral that slows down the multiplication of viru
in cells.
D
A flu shot is a chemical that kills parasites in the human body.
Electronic health records (EHRs) are being instituted at Pleasant Valley Hospital. Some of the staff on Unit 4 complain to the manager that acquiring the technologic skills required is too time consuming. They question its value in patient care. The manager responds that:
Electronic health records (EHRs) can increase the effectiveness of care by enhancing coordination and improving patient outcomes.
By having an electronic record that is accessible to all care providers, communication between providers is increased. This allows for more complete, timely, and accurate care.
Additionally, having data in an electronic format makes it easier to track patient progress. This can lead to better care decisions and reduced duplication of services. Furthermore, by having the data accessible in an electronic format, it also allows for better analysis of trends and patterns that can be used to improve patient outcomes. With EHRs, providers can more quickly identify areas of improvement and implement changes to improve patient care.
Finally, EHRs enable more efficient data sharing, allowing for better collaboration between providers, leading to improved outcomes for patients.
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A nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. What are the nurse's priority assessments of the child
a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema priority are
Wearing cotton clothes
Tolerance of new foods are the nurse's priority assessments of the child
Children's eczema, a common symptom of allergies, frequently has connections to meals and clothing. Cotton clothing is a sign that the parents are aware of their child's allergy and are making an effort to lessen it. The ability to tolerate new foods is a sign that a youngster has outgrown some food sensitivities. Eczema does not develop due to a lack of appetite. Eczema is a sign of allergies; it is not communicable.Dry, itchy, and irritated skin are symptoms of atopic dermatitis (eczema). Despite being age-neutral, it is frequently seen in young children. The chronic condition known as atopic dermatitis occasionally flares up. Although it may irritate you, it is not contagious.
The full question was :
A nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. What are the nurse's priority assessments of the child?
Increase in appetite
Wearing cotton clothes
Tolerance of new foods
Exposure to a viral infection
Recent contact with someone with eczema
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which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Therapeutic ultrasound is used to promote healing by increasing circulation to the affected area.
What type of treatment is used to increase blood circulation to a specific area?Vasodilation is a type of treatment used to increase blood circulation to a specific area. This is a process in which the blood vessels in an area are widened, allowing for increased blood flow to the area. Other treatments used to increase blood circulation to a specific area include massage, exercise, and ultrasound therapy.
Massage is a type of treatment that can increase blood circulation to a specific area by applying pressure and manipulating the soft tissue. Exercise is another type of treatment that can increase blood circulation to a specific area. Exercise helps to increase the heart rate, which in turn increases blood circulation to the entire body.
Which drug class causes blood vessels to swell?These medicines are used to treat several ailments, including high blood pressure. Vasodilators are drugs that allow blood arteries to expand (dilate). They have an impact on the muscles that line the arteries and veins, preventing tightness and narrowing of the walls.
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The client reports excessive bleeding during the menstruation. Which herbal therapies are unlikely to be prescribed by the primary healthcare provider
The client reports excessive bleeding during the menstruation. Chamomile and Chaste tree fruit are the herbal therapies which unlikely to be prescribed by the primary healthcare provider.
The antispasmodic property of chamomile helps to lessen breast pain. By lowering prolactin levels, the fruit of the chaste tree is used to ease breast discomfort. The uterotonic medications raspberry, lady's mantle, and shepherd's purse are used to treat menorrhagia.
A woman's monthly bleeding is known as menstruation, also referred to as her "period." When you menstruate, your body expels the monthly buildup of uterine lining (womb). Menstrual blood and tissue are ejected from your body through your private part through the tiny opening in your cervix.
Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is the day that a woman typically gets her menstruation. Women lose roughly 3 to 5 tablespoons of blood per period, according to Belfield, who estimates that periods span 2 to 7 days. There is assistance available if your periods are too heavy. Some women bleed more than this.
Complete question:
The client reports excessive bleeding during the menstruation. Which herbal therapies are unlikely to be prescribed by the primary healthcare provider? Select all that apply.
1. Raspberry
2. Chamomile
3. Lady's mantle
4. Chaste tree fruit
5. Shepherd's purse
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Dietary interventions, which include foods that shift the _____ balance, are a staple of Traditional Chinese Medicine.
Dietary interventions, which include foods that shift the yin-yang balance, are a staple of Traditional Chinese Medicine.
Dietary interventions are a staple of Traditional Chinese Medicine and are used to maintain balance between the yin and yang energies in the body. In this practice, different foods are believed to have different effects on the body's yin and yang balance. Yin foods are considered cooling and moistening, and are thought to nourish the body and calm the mind. Yang foods are considered warming and drying.
Explain the reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers
Answer:
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) and HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. The purpose of these modifiers is to help ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided for the services rendered, and to provide additional information about the services that may be important for the payer to know.
One of the main reasons for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, or that it was performed in a different way than the typical method. For example, if a patient receives two surgeries on the same day, a modifier would be used to indicate that both procedures were performed, and to indicate which procedure was the primary service and which was the secondary service. This allows the payer to bill for both procedures, rather than just one.
Another reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a service was performed in a location that is different from the usual site of service. For example, if a patient receives physical therapy in their home, a modifier would be used to indicate that the service was performed in a different location than the usual site of service. This is important because it affects the reimbursement rate, and it allows the payer to understand the reason for the different location.
Modifiers also used to indicate when a service was provided by a different provider than the one who typically performs the service. This is known as split/shared services and it is used when multiple providers working together on a same service.
In addition, CPT/HCPCS modifiers can be used to indicate that a service was provided to a patient under exceptional or unusual circumstances. This could include a service that is provided to a patient in the emergency room, or a service that is provided to a patient who has a unique medical condition. In these cases, the modifier would be used to indicate that the service was provided in a different way than the typical method, and to indicate the unique circumstances that required the service.
In conclusion, CPT/HCPCS modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. They are used to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, in a different way, at a different location or by a different provider. This additional information is important to ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided and that the payer has a full understanding of the services that were rendered.
Explanation:
During the newborn examination, the nurse notes that an infant who is appropriate for gestational age by birth weight has a head circumference below the 10th percentile and the fontanels (fontanelles) are not palpable. What action would the nurse take
The nurse take action ;Report the findings to the pediatric provider.
What is the newborn's inspection like?
Within 72 hours of giving birth, all parents are entitled to a full physical checkup for their newborn. The checkup involves screening tests to see whether your infant has any eye, heart, hip, or, in boys, testicular issues (testes).
What is a newborn's transitional assessment?4 to 6 hours after delivery is the newborn's transition phase, during which time they should begin to acclimate to life outside the womb. The infant should be checked for temperature, respiration rate, heart rate, color, and tone every 30 to 60 minutes throughout this period (Overview, 2020).
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8. Your organization has 5,000 mailboxes in an Exchange Server 2010 deployment. Which of the following migration methods is appropriate given this scenario
The migration method that fits this scenario is remote move migration in a hybrid deployment.
Exchange Server 2010 is one of the most widely used enterprise email server applications. The IT Department that is responsible for Exchange 2010 management is currently facing a big challenge. In just a few months, in January 2020, Exchange 2010 will officially become EOL or "End of Life" and Microsoft will stop supporting the service. This information has been officially released on Microsoft's official website.
Generally, after the information is released, people believe they only have 2 choices: Upgrade to Exchange 2016 or migrate to Office 365. But both of these options will be very expensive.
The hybrid migration applies to all hybrid environments with on-premises Exchange servers, Exchange Online deployed, and Active Directory synced. This type of migration assumes that some of the data is stored on-premises, and the rest is in the cloud.
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why would newborn baby mother whale large dog or a professional football player weigh about 8 pounds answer
Newborn baby, mother whale, large dog and professional football player do not weigh about 8 pounds. They differ greatly in their weight.
A newborn baby typically weighs between 5-10 pounds, some mother whale can weight up to 25,000 pounds, large dog breeds can weigh from 50-100 pounds and professional football players weigh from around 200-300 pounds.
A nurse identifies that a client may be dehydrated. Which clinical manifestations would the client exhibit
Answer:
Oliguria dyspnea
Explanation:
Clinical signs of the client include oliguria, hypotension, and Tenting tissue turgor.
Your body loses water on a regular basis through perspiration and urine. You get dehydrated if it is not replenished. Adults at risk include athletes, persons who work in hot environments, the elderly, and those with chronic illnesses.
Dehydration is not limited to athletes who are exposed to direct sunlight. Bodybuilders and swimmers, for example, are among the athletes who frequently get the illness. It is conceivable to sweat in water, as strange as it may appear. Swimmers sweat a lot while they swim.
Water makes up over 60% of a man's bodily weight. It accounts for around half of a woman's weight. Young and middle-aged individuals who drink when thirsty don't usually need to do anything else to keep their body's fluid balance in check. Children require more water because they use more energy, yet most children who drink when thirsty receive the amount of water their systems require. Adults over the age of 60 who drink solely when thirsty are likely to acquire only approximately 90% of the liquids they require.
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A client is admitted to the ambulatory care unit for an endoscopic procedure. The gastroenterologist administers midazolam 1 mg intravenously for sedation and titrates the dosage upward to 3.5 mg. The client becomes hypotensive (86/60 mm Hg), develops severe respiratory depression (SpO2 86%), and has periods of apnea. The nurse anticipates the administration of which antidote drug?
1.
Benztropine (10%)
2.
Flumazenil (36%)
3.
Naloxone (46%)
4.
Phentolamine (7%)
OmittedCorrect answer 2
36%Answered correctly
The nurse anticipates the administration of flumazenil antidote drug. Thus, the correct option is 2.
What is Antidote drug?Antidote drug are the agents which negate the effect of a poison or a toxin. Antidotes are used to mediate its effect either through preventing the absorption of the toxin, by binding and neutralizing the poison effect, antagonizing its end-organ effect, or by the inhibition of conversion of the toxin to more toxic metabolites.
Midazolam (Versed) is a benzodiazepine which is commonly used to induce conscious sedation in the clients undergoing endoscopic procedures. The initial dose of the drug is 1 mg and it is titrated up slowly until speech becomes slurred.
Generally no more than 3.5 mg is necessary to induce conscious sedation in the clients. It is commonly administered with an opioid analgesic because of their synergistic effects. Side effects of the drug can include airway occlusion, apnea, hypotension, and oxygen desaturation with resultant respiratory arrest.
Flumazenil (Romazicon) is an antidote drug which is used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Flumazenil is a drug which is used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as midazolam.
Therefore, the correct option is 2.
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Answer to the question in the picture
Answer:
the last one is the answer.
Explanation:
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nurse discovers her clients bed smoldering from a lit cigarette. describe the race mnemonic to guide the order of the nurses actions
The nurse should use the mnemonic RACE (Remove the client-Activate the alarm-Contain the fire - Extinguish the fire) to prioritize actions.
Fire safety refers to a collection of measures designed to limit the devastation caused by fire. Fire safety procedures include those used to prevent the initiation of an uncontrolled fire as well as those used to minimise the growth and impact of a fire after it has begun.
Fire safety measures include those that are designed during building construction or implemented in existing buildings, as well as those that are taught to building inhabitants.
Fire risks are widely used to describe threats to fire safety. A fire hazard is anything that raises the chance of a fire or makes escape difficult in the case of a fire.
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