Observing neutrinos from the Sun is an important way to check the fusion rate, but it can be very tough to build a machine that can detect these particles. What trouble did the most recent experiment, Borexino, have to overcome

Answer:

A.The rabbits in the new habitat will have lower genetic variation than the rabbits in the original habitat.

Explanation:

If two animals of opposite sex are isolated from a larger group of animal, and made to reproduce. They will produce offspring with similar genetic makeup. If this offspring still remain isolated, and continue to interbreed within themselves for a number of consecutive generations, their offspring will all be very closely related genetically. Situations like this just as with the two rabbits in the question leads to a lower genetic variation within the offspring of the two animals.

Animals need to reproduce within a larger group in order to increase genetic variation. Increasing genetic variation reduces the risk of been sucked into a gene pool. A lower genetic variation reduces the fitness of the animals involved. It is only an advantage in cases in which the the original pair are resistant to a deadly disease. In this case all the offspring also develop this immunity. Mostly the effects of a lower genetic variation leaves negative impacts, and animals try to avoid this by preferring to interbreed with unrelated partner

Answer:

I got this and got the answer correct.

Explanation:

Hope it helps :)

Answer:

52 g was lost as carbon dioxide to the atmosphere

Explanation:

When lead carbonate is heated, it decomposes into two components:

1. Lead oxide

2. carbon dioxide

While the lead oxide remains a yellow solid in the heating container, the carbon dioxide escapes into the atmosphere as a gas. The equation of the reaction is as below:

[tex]PbCO_3_{(s)} --> PbO_{(s)} + CO_2_{(g)}[/tex]

Hence, if a 150 g lead oxide is heated in a container and the final mass is 98 g, it means 52 g (150 - 98) of the total mass has been lost as carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

I would suggest an easier route. So for example, I would research light energy, where it comes from, and what causes it. I won't be able to do the work for you though.

Answer:

24.1 m/s

Explanation:

Work = change in KE = [tex]KE_{f} - KE_{i}[/tex]

KE initial is 0 because the initial velocity is 0. Therefore, work is equal to final kinetic energy. With that:

[tex]W = KE_{f} = \frac{1}{2}mv_{f}^{2}[/tex]

With some algebraic manipulations,

[tex]v_{f} = \sqrt{\frac{2W}{m} } = \sqrt{\frac{2*450000 J}{1550 kg} } = 24.1 m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Q = 1.404 × 10^(5) KJ

Explanation:

We are given:

Mass;m = 500 g = 0.5kg

Temperature 1;T1 = 28 °C

Temperature:T2 = 150 °C

Specific heat capacity;c_p = 4183 J/Kg °C

Latent heat of vaporization;L = 2.26 × 10^(6) J/Kg.

The heat energy needed is given by;

Q = sensible heat energy + Latent heat

Formula for sensible heat is;

Sensible heat energy = mc(t2 - t1)

Formula for Latent heat is ;

Latent heat = mL

Thus:

Q = mc(t2 - t1) + mL

Q = m[c(t2 - t1) + L]

Q = 0.5((4183(159 - 28) + (2.26 × 10^(6)))

Q = 1.404 × 10^(8) J = 1.404 × 10^(5) KJ

Answer: Upthrust = Weight - Apparent weight

= 0.250 kgf - 0. 150 kgf

= 0.100 kgf

Density = mass / volume

volume = mass / density

= 0.100 kg / (1000 kg / m³)

= 0.0001 m³

density of object  = mass / volume

= 0.250 kg / 0.0001 m³

= 2500 kg / m³

upthrust of oil = Weight - Apparent weight

= 0.250 kgf - 0.125 kgf

= 0.125 kgf

density = mass / volume

= 0.125 kg / 0.0001 m³

= 1250 kg/m³

density of the object = 2500 kg / m³

density of oil = 1250 kg / m³

Answer:

2 hrs

Explanation:

time = distance ÷ speed

The electric potential at the geometric center of this rectangle is determined as 43.2 V.

Potential at the center of the rectangle is calculated as follows;

Distance from each corner to the center is calculated as follows;

[tex]x = \sqrt{(a/2)^2 + (b/2)^2}[/tex]

Potential due to four point charges is calculated

[tex]V = \frac{kq}{x} \\\\V =4 (\frac{kq}{x} )\\\\V = 4(\frac{kq}{\sqrt{(a/2)^2 + (b/2)^2} } )\\\\V = \frac{4 \times 9\times 10^{9}\times 6\times 10^{-9}}{\sqrt{(6/2)^2 + (8/2)^2} } \\\\V = \frac{4 \times 9\times 10^{9}\times 6\times 10^{-9}}{5} \\\\V = 43.2 \ Volts[/tex]

Learn more about electric potential here: https://brainly.com/question/14306881

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

This problem bothers on the simple harmonic motion of a loaded spring

Given data

mass attached, m= 0-.675 kg

spring constant, k= 72.4 N/m

the period of oscillation can be solved for using the formula bellow

[tex]T= 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k} }[/tex]

Substituting the given data into the expression above we have

[tex]T= 2*3.142\sqrt{\frac{0.675}{72.4} }\\T= 6.284*\sqrt{0.0093 }\\T= 0.6[/tex]

T= 0.6 sec

Answer:

0.607

Explanation:

Trust me

Explanation:

Power = work / time

Power = force × distance / time

P = (650 kg) (10 m/s²) (20 m) / (15 s)

P = 8667 W

Answer:

210 m

Explanation:

The speed of train 2 relative to train 1 is 15 m/s + 20 m/s = 35 m/s.

It takes 6 seconds for the train to pass, so the length of the train is:

(35 m/s) (6 s) = 210 m

Answer:

The answer to your question is given below.

Explanation:

Mechanical advantage (MA) = Load (L)/Effort (E)

MA = L/E

Velocity ratio (VR) = Distance moved by load (l) / Distance moved by effort (e)

VR = l/e

Efficiency = work done by machine (Wd) /work put into the machine (Wp) x 100

Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100

Recall:

Work = Force x distance

Therefore,

Work done by machine (wd) = load (L) x distance (l)

Wd = L x l

Work put into the machine (Wp) = effort (E) x distance (e)

Wp = E x e

Note: the load and effort are measured in Newton (N), while the distance is measured in metre (m)

Efficiency = Wd/Wp x100

Efficiency = (L x l) / (E x e) x 100

Rearrange

Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100

But:

MA = L/E

VR = l/e

Therefore,

Efficiency = L/E ÷ l/e x 100

Efficiency = MA ÷ VR x 100

Efficiency = MA / VR x 100

Answer:

The correct option is (a) "Changing".

Explanation:

If a coil is placed in the magnetic field, due to the change in its magnetic flux an emf will induce in it. EMF is like voltage. So, due to the induced emf and current is induced in it. Hence, we can say that changing the magnetic field can create an electric current.

Answer:

The magnitude and direction of the force per unit length of one wire on the other is 2 x 10⁻⁵ N/m, attractive force.

Explanation:

Given;

distance between the two parallel wires, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m

current in the first wire, I₁ = 2A

current in the second wire, I₂ = 5 A

The force per unit length on each wire can be calculated as;

[tex]\frac{F}{L} = \frac{\mu_oI_1I_2}{2\pi r}[/tex]

where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A

[tex]\frac{F}{L} = \frac{\mu_oI_1I_2}{2\pi r} \\\\\frac{F}{L} = \frac{4\pi*10^{-7}*2*5}{2\pi *0.1} \\\\\frac{F}{L} = 2 *10^{-5} \ N[/tex]/ m

The direction of the force between the two wires is attractive since the current in the two wires are in opposite direction.

Therefore, the magnitude and direction of the force per unit length of one wire on the other is 2 x 10⁻⁵ N/m, attractive force.

Answer:

The unit of current is defined as the flow of 1 coulomb of charge in one second

Answer:

5702.88 J or 5.7mJ

Explanation:

Given that :

C 1 = 6.0-μF

C 2 = 4.0-μF

V 1 = 50V

V 2 = 34V

Note that : Q = CV

Q 1 = C1 * V1

Q 1 = 50×6 = 300μC

Q 2 = 34×4 = 136μC

Parallel connection = C 1 + C 2

= 6+4 = 10μC

V = Qt/C

Where Qt = Q1+Q2

V = Q1+Q2/C

V = 300+136/10

V = 437/10

V = 43.6volts

Uc1 = 1/2×C1V^2

= 1/2 × 6μF × 43.6^2

= 1/2 × 6μF × 1900.96

= 3μF × 1900.96volts

= 5702.88J

= 5702.88J/1000

= 5.7mJ

Answer:

Electric flux;

Φ = 30.095 × 10⁴ N.m²/C

Explanation:

We are given;

Charge on plate; q = 17 µC = 17 × 10^(-6) C

Area of the plates; A_p = 180 cm² = 180 × 10^(-4) m²

Angle between the normal of the area and electric field; θ = 4°

Radius;r = 3 cm = 3 × 10^(-2) m = 0.03 m

Permittivity of free space;ε_o = 8.85 × 10^(-12) C²/N.m²

The charge density on the plate is given by the formula;

σ = q/A_p

Thus;

σ = (17 × 10^(-6))/(180 × 10^(-4))

σ = 0.944 × 10^(-3) C/m²

Also, the electric field is given by the formula;

E = σ/ε_o

E = (0.944 × 10^(-3))/(8.85 × 10^(-12))

E = 1.067 × 10^(8) N/C

Now, the formula for electric flux for uniform electric field is given as;

Φ = EAcos θ

Where A = πr² = π × 0.03² = 9π × 10^(-4) m²

Thus;

Φ = 1.067 × 10^(8) × 9π × 10^(-4) × cos 4

Φ = 30.095 × 10⁴ N.m²/C

Answer:

t = 6

Explanation:

Displacement is equal to the area under a velocity vs time graph.

In this case, the area is a triangle.  At time t, the base of the triangle is t.  The height of the triangle can be found with similar triangles:

h / t = 8 / 12

h = ⅔ t

So the distance traveled at time t is:

d = ½ (t) (⅔ t)

d = ⅓ t²

The distance traveled at time 12 is:

D = ½ (12) (8)

D = 48

We want to find when d = D/4.

d = D/4

⅓ t² = 48/4

⅓ t² = 12

t² = 36

t = 6

Alternatively, since the acceleration is constant here, we could use a constant acceleration equation.

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

Given v₀ = 0 m/s and a = ⅔ m/s²:

Δx = (0) t + ½ (⅔) t²

Δx = ⅓ t²

When t = 12, Δx = 48.

⅓ t² = 48/4

t = 6

Answer and Explanation:

For computing the displacement at point B and D we need to determine the following calculations

[tex]P_Net = P_C + P_E + P_B[/tex]

= 250 + 350 - 50

= 550 N

Now the deflection for bar AB is

[tex]\delta_{AB} = \frac{PL_{AB}}{AE} \\\\ = \frac{550 \times 500}{6,000 \times 200 \times 10^{3}}[/tex]

Now for bar BC it is

[tex]\delta_{BC} = \frac{PL_{BC}}{AE} \\\\ = \frac{(550 + 50) \times 250}{5,000 \times 200 \times 10^{3}} \\\\ = 1.5 \times 10^{-04} mm[/tex]

And for bar CD it is

[tex]\delta_{CD} = \frac{PL_{CD}}{AE} \\\\ = \frac{(550 -250 + 50) \times 250}{5,000 \times 200 \times 10^{3}} \\\\ = 0.875 \times 10^{-4} mm[/tex]

Now the displacement is as follows

For B

2.292 × 10^{-4} mm

For D, it is

[tex]= 2.292 \times 10^{-4} + 1.5 \times 10^{-4} + 0.875 \times 10^{-4} mm \\\\ = 4.667 \times 10^{-4} mm[/tex]

We simply applied the above formulas for determining the  displacements at points B, D and the same is to be considered  

Answer:

Nanotechnology means working with materials at the scale of one billionth of a metre.

Explanation:

The prefix “nano” refers to one billionth: it’s part of the scientific scale of measurement. Its science, engineering, and technology are conducted at the nanoscale, which is about 1 to 100 nanometers. Nanoscience and nanotechnology are the study and application of extremely small things. Thus, this describes why the term nano is used to describe nanotechnology.

I hope this helps :)

Answer:

Nanotechnology is technology that is about a nanometer in size, or between 1 nm and 100 nm.

Explanation:

its the sample response on edge 2021

Answer:

0.08

Explanation:

this problem assume that both of whale and submarine are in rest position or in constant linier motion in same direction and same speed.

The sound will travel from Submarine to the whale and back again to submarine. so the time will be like this

t = 2d/v

t = 2*58.8/1520

t = 117.6/1520

t = 0.077368 s

t ≈ 0.08 s (less then 1 s)

Answer:

0.0774s

Explanation:

The formula to find the time of an echo is time = (2)(distance) / (velocity)

So plug in the numbers to the formula

(2)(58.8) / (1520)

= 0.0774s

Answer:

Explanation:

Reddening of sun's rays at sunset and sunrise is due to scattering of light . The white light consisting of seven colours coming from the sun are scattered in different directions when they fall on the air particles present in atmosphere . Red coloured light scatters least and it travels straight forward to the viewer on the earth . On the other hand other colours scatter most and therefore they go out of area of vision for the viewer on the earth . Since only red colour reaches the eye of the viewer , sun's ray appear red . This happens during sunrise and sunset . It is so because during this period , sun rays travel far greater distance through  atmosphere , so scattering is most pronounced .

Answer:

Ammonia, [tex](NH_{3})[/tex]

Explanation:

If a Rac variant, in which the residue at position 61 was replaced with an alanine (Rac-61A), was synthesized. Also, Wild-type Rac and Rac-61A were incubated separately with VopC.

In order to obtain data to support that VopC modifies Rac at residue 61, the samples should be analyzed for the presence of Ammonia ([tex]NH_{3}[\tex]) compound.

In chemistry, the Vanadyl Phthalocyanine (VopC) comprises of a catalytic domain that activates host cells GTPase Rac irreversibly, through the deamide side chain of the residue existing at position 61.

Also, we know that a deamidation reaction gives off Ammonia, [tex](NH_{3})[/tex] and as such when ammonia is present in the sample containing Wild-type Rac but not in Rac-61A, this simply proves or provide the data to support that VopC modifies Rac at residue 61.

Additionally, deamidation can be defined as the chemical conversion (hydrolysis) of an amide functional group such as glutamine, asparagine, in a polypeptide to another functional group such as glutamic acid or isoaspartic acid respectively by treating it with a strong acid (deamidate, transamidase).

Answer:

The neutron is a subatomic particle, symbol 

n

 or 

n0

, with no electric charge and a mass slightly greater than that of a proton. Protons and neutrons constitute the nuclei of atoms. Since protons and neutrons behave similarly within the nucleus, and each has a mass of approximately one atomic mass unit, they are both referred to as nucleons.[6] Their properties and interactions are described by nuclear physics.

Explanation:

pls mark me as BRAINLIEST

Answer:

According to super hero logic , nothing will happen to him.

But according to science , yes he will get current shock but good news is that he wouldn't get elected until he is in contact with the wires.

He may / may not be affected but his suit will be damaged for sure as it is made of metal.

HOPE THIS HLEP AND PLSSSSS MARK AS BRAINLIEST AND THNXX :)

Answer:

2980 N

Explanation:

The fundamental frequency of a string is:

f₁ = √(T/µ) / (2L)

78 Hz = √(T / (0.03 kg/m)) / (2 (2.02 m))

315.12 m/s = √(T / (0.03 kg/m))

99,300 m²/s² = T / (0.03 kg/m)

T = 2980 N

Answer:

6 m/s

Explanation:

s=2*3

=6

So, the speed of trqnsverse wave is 6 m/s.

Answer:

6 m/s

Explanation:

2 x 3=6

Answer:

Explanation:

Given,

Force ( f ) = 30 N

Acceleration(a) = 7.6 m/s

Now, Let's find the mass of the ball

Using the Newton's second law of motion:

We get:

[tex]force \: = mass \: \times acceleration[/tex]

plug the value

[tex]30 \: = m \: \times 7.6[/tex]

Use the commutative property to reorder the terms

[tex] 30 = 7.6 \: m[/tex]

Swap the sides of the equation

[tex]7.6m = 30[/tex]

Divide both sides of the equation by 7.6

[tex] \frac{7.6 \: m}{7.6} = \frac{30}{7.6} [/tex]

Calculate

[tex]m = 3.94 \: kg[/tex]

Hope this helps..

Best regards!!

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle \boxed{\mathrm{3.95 \: kg }}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex]\mathrm{force \: (N) = mass \: (kg) \times acceleration \: (m/s^2)}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{force = 30N}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{acceleration = 7.6 \: m/s^2 }[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Find \: the \: mass.}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{30 = m \times 7.6}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \mathrm{m =\frac{30}{7.6} }[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \mathrm{m = 3.947... }[/tex]

Answer: 5.075Ns

Explanation:

Given the following :

Mass of ball = 145g

Initial Speed of ball = 15m/s

Final speed of ball when hit by the batter = - 20m/s ( Opposite direction)

The impulse of a body is represented using the relation:

Force(f) * time(t) = mass (m) * (final Velocity(V) - initial velocity(u))

Therefore, using:

m(v - u) = impulse

Mass of ball = 145 / 1000 = 0.145kg

Impulse = 0.145(- 20 - 15)

Impulse = 0.145(-35)

Impulse = 5.075Ns

[tex]\mathfrak{\huge{\pink{\underline{\underline{AnSwEr:-}}}}}[/tex]

Actually Welcome to the Concept of the Mechanics.

So basically here, we know the fact that,

A Generator is opposite of the motor that Converts the Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy.

C. Concerts Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy.