number of workers mrp per day 1 $350 2 $400 3 $350 4 $300 5 $200 6 $0 the table above shows the short run marginal revenue product of labor per day for a perfectly competitive firm. the firm is selling its product at the market price of $10. a) calculate the marginal product of the second laborer. b) define the law of diminishing marginal returns and explain why it occurs. c) diminishing marginal returns first occurs with the hiring of which unit of labor? d) what is the highest daily wage the firm is willing to pay to hire the fourth laborer? e) what will happen to the demand for labor is the market price of the product decreases? explain.

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Answer 1

The marginal product of the second laborer can be calculated by finding the difference between the marginal revenue product of the second laborer and the first laborer. Therefore, the marginal product of the second laborer would be $400 - $350 = $50.

The law of diminishing marginal returns states that as more units of a variable input (such as labor) are added to a fixed input (such as capital), the marginal product of the variable input will eventually decrease. This occurs because the fixed input becomes a bottleneck, limiting the productivity gains from adding more of the variable input.Diminishing marginal returns first occur with the hiring of the fifth unit of labor. This is because the marginal revenue product of the fifth laborer is $200, which is less than the marginal revenue product of the fourth laborer ($300).To determine the highest daily wage the firm is willing to pay to hire the fourth laborer, we need to find the point where the marginal revenue product of the fourth laborer equals the wage rate. In this case, the marginal revenue product of the fourth laborer is $300 and the firm is selling its product at the market price of $10. Therefore, the highest daily wage the firm is willing to pay to hire the fourth laborer is $30 ($300/4).If the market price of the product decreases, the demand for labor will decrease because the firm's revenue will decrease, reducing its ability to pay for labor. This could lead to a decrease in employment and potentially lower wages for workers.

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Related Questions

Capacity Problems Fat Charlie's Restaurants is building a new burger place and needs to determine how big to make the various parts of its facility. It wants to be able to accommodate a maximum of 500 customers per hour at its peak times. Fat Charlie's has collected the following information: the average time to place and receive an order is 1.1 minutes, the average time spent in the restroom is 0.4 minutes (50 percent of customers are men and 50 percent women). 20 percent of the customers have cars (1 customer per car) and require parking spots, and the average length of time at the restaurant is 20 minutes per customer O 1. Determine the number of cash registers required. 2. Determine the number of parking spaces needed.

Answers

To accommodate a maximum of 500 customers per hour with an average time of 1.1 minutes per order, Fat Charlie's Restaurants would need at least 8 cash registers.

Since 20% of the customers have cars and require parking spots, and each car needs one parking spot, Fat Charlie's would need at least 100 parking spaces.

To determine the number of cash registers required, we can use the formula:

Number of registers = (Total number of customers) x (Time spent per customer) / (Time to place and receive an order)

Plugging in the values given, we get:

Number of registers = (500 customers/hr) x (20 min/customer) / (1.1 min/order) = 8.18

Since we can't have a fraction of a register, we round up to 8 registers.

To determine the number of parking spaces needed, we need to first find the number of customers who require parking spots. Since 20% of the customers have cars, we can calculate the number of cars as:

Number of cars = 500 customers/hr x 0.20 = 100 cars/hr

Assuming each car stays for 20 minutes, we can calculate the maximum number of cars at any given time as:

Maximum number of cars = 100 cars/hr x (20 min/customer / 60 min/hr) = 33.33 cars

Since we can't have a fraction of a car, we round up to 34 cars, which means we need at least 34 parking spots.

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to facilitate a bribery scheme, a fraudster might divert company funds to a non-company account from which the illegal payments can be made. this account is called a:

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The account that is used by a fraudster to divert company funds and facilitate a bribery scheme is commonly referred to as a "slush fund."

This is an off-the-books account that is used to hold illicit funds that can be used for bribery, kickbacks, or other illegal activities.

A slush fund is an account where the illegal payments can be made discreetly and without raising suspicion within the main company accounts.

Slush funds can be difficult to trace and can be used to hide the true source of the funds, making it easier for fraudsters to evade detection.

It is important for companies to have robust internal controls and monitoring mechanisms in place to prevent the creation and use of slush funds.

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a successful influencer program should outline agreements and expectations between your brand and the influencer, including compensation. when it comes to deciding on compensation, what are the most important considerations? (choose three answers)

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When it comes to deciding on compensation for an influencer, the most important considerations are the influencer's reach and engagement, the type of content they create, their niche, and their level of expertise.

The compensation should be commensurate with the influencer's value to your brand and the level of effort required to create the content.

It's important to note that compensation can take many forms, such as monetary payment, free products or services, or exposure to the influencer's audience. Additionally, it's crucial to have a clear understanding of the goals and objectives of the influencer campaign and to ensure that the compensation aligns with those goals.

Overall, the key is to find a balance between compensating the influencer fairly and ensuring a positive return on investment for your brand.

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a category manager: group of answer choices does not have any profit responsibility. is a position that is only found in industrial products firms. attempts to maximize each individual brand's successes, even at the expense of another, to maximize the overall profitability of the product line. has profit-and-loss responsibility for an entire product line, across two or more brands. is accurately described by none of the above.

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The statement "has profit-and-loss responsibility for an entire product line, across two or more brands" best describes a category manager.

A category manager is responsible for overseeing a specific category of products, which may include multiple brands, and ensuring that the product line is profitable. This includes managing the product life cycle, optimizing pricing and promotion strategies, and identifying new growth opportunities. The category manager is responsible for the profit and loss of the entire product line, not just individual brands, and must balance the success of each brand to maximize overall profitability.

The other statements are inaccurate. A category manager can be found in a variety of industries, not just industrial product firms, and they do have profit responsibility for the product line they oversee. Additionally, a category manager does not simply maximize the success of individual brands at the expense of others but seeks to balance the performance of each brand for overall profitability.

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what is the excise tax rate the irs imposes on individuals aged 70 1/2 or older who do not take the required minimum distributions from their qualified retirement plan

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The IRS imposes a hefty 50% excise tax on individuals aged 70 1/2 or older who do not take the required minimum distributions (RMDs) from their qualified retirement plan.

The RMD rules were put in place to ensure that retirees do not indefinitely defer paying taxes on their retirement savings. The amount of the RMD is calculated based on the account balance and life expectancy, and retirees must withdraw at least this amount annually starting in the year they turn 70 1/2.

The IRS requires individuals to start taking RMDs from their qualified retirement plans (such as 401(k)s and traditional IRAs) once they reach age 70 1/2. If an individual fails to withdraw the RMD or withdraws less than the required amount, they will be subject to an excise tax.

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Final answer:

The IRS imposes a 50% excise tax on the amount not distributed as required by individuals aged 70 1/2 or older on their retirement savings. This excise tax is part of a larger tax system designed to fund Social Security and Medicare.

Explanation:

The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) imposes a 50% excise tax on the amount not distributed as required for individuals aged 70 1/2 or older who do not take the required minimum distributions from their qualified retirement plan. This tax is imposed to encourage retirees to withdraw their savings from the retirement account and thus able to be taxed, helping to fund Social Security and Medicare programs.

The IRS's tax burden on retirement distributions is just one aspect of a complex system intended to balance the needs of retirees, the costs of Social Security and Medicare, and the impact of these costs on different income groups. Payroll taxes that support Social Security and Medicare have caps on the percentage of income, impacting wealthier individuals less than lower-income earners on a percentage basis. Plans to modify this system, be it by increasing the tax rate, increasing the wage cap, or altering benefits, have yet to gain political traction.

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which statement best describes a possible advantage of a behavior-based scale of performance appraisal compared to a trait-based scale?

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A possible advantage of a behavior-based scale of performance appraisal compared to a trait-based scale is that it focuses on specific actions and behaviors rather than vague personality traits, which allows for more objective evaluation and feedback.

A behavior-based scale focuses on specific, observable job-related actions and tasks, which makes the appraisal more objective, fair, and easy to provide constructive feedback, while a trait-based scale evaluates personal characteristics, which may lead to biased judgments and be less helpful for employee improvement.

This can lead to more targeted training and development opportunities for employees to improve their skills and performance in measurable ways.

Additionally, behavior-based scales can reduce bias and discrimination in the appraisal process as they are based on observable and measurable actions rather than subjective opinions.

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_____________, fill in the blank,ads are general advertisements about your restaurant, the type of restaurant you are, your location, and photos of your popular menu items.

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Brand awareness ads are general advertisements about your restaurant, the type of restaurant you are, your location, and photos of your popular menu items.

Brand awareness ads aims at promoting the restaurant's brand image, location, type, and popular menu items. These types of ads are meant to increase brand recognition and make the restaurant more visible to potential customers.

Brand awareness ads may include photos of the restaurant's interior and exterior, images of its most popular dishes, and information about its location and hours of operation.

They are typically distributed through a variety of channels, including social media, search engines, and local publications.

The goal of brand awareness ads is to create a positive impression of the restaurant in the minds of consumers, even if they are not currently in the market for dining out.

By building brand recognition, restaurants can create a strong foundation for future marketing efforts and encourage repeat business from existing customers.

Overall, brand awareness ads are an important component of restaurant marketing, helping to create a strong brand image and attract new customers to the restaurant.

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what is the term for a market that is set up only on certain days of the week?

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The term for a market that is set up only on certain days of the week is called a weekly market.

Because it takes place on a set day of the week, a market is known as weekly. During weekly markets, there isn't a continuous retail presence. The shops of traders are open in the morning and closed in the evening. The following day, they might relocate their business. In India, there are a lot of these markets. People congregate here to fulfill their daily needs.

The prices of many items during weekly markets are reduced. This is due to the high costs associated with maintaining permanent structures, such as rent, energy, and government taxes. The wages of their employees must also be paid. These business owners store the goods they sell at weekly marketplaces in their homes.  

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The term for a market that is set up only on certain days of the week is a "periodic market".

Periodic markets are a form of conventional market that is open only once a week or once a month, rather than every day. These markets are frequently found in rural or distant areas and serve as a gathering place for local populations to buy and sell items.

Fresh vegetables, animals, homemade crafts, apparel, and household items can all be found at periodic markets. Local farmers, craftspeople, and other small enterprises can benefit greatly from them.

Periodic markets have a long history and are a significant element of local culture and traditions in many cases.

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a company is in the business of managing corporate business jets, providing aircraft, crew, and maintenance- scheduling services, along with flight crew and insurance-selection advice. under the agreement between the company and aircraft owner, the company is completely responsible for operational control of the aircraft and all pilots and maintenance personnel or employees of the aircraft owner. no aircraft in the program may be used for common carriage by air. assuming the company has no other source of income, what federal agency has jurisdiction over its labor relations? explain

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The National Mediation Board would have jurisdiction over the labor relations of the company described, due to its involvement in the aviation industry and the fact that it has no other source of income.

Based on the information provided, the company described is primarily engaged in the management of corporate business jets and provides various services related to aircraft operations. Since the company has no other source of income, it can be assumed that all of its employees are involved in these activities.

In terms of labor relations, the federal agency that would have jurisdiction over this company would be the National Mediation Board (NMB). The NMB is responsible for administering the Railway Labor Act (RLA), which governs labor relations in the aviation industry as well as the railroad and airline industries.

Under the RLA, employees of air carriers and their related companies are covered by the Act's provisions regarding collective bargaining, mediation, and arbitration. Since the company described manages corporate business jets and provides related services, its employees would fall under the RLA's definition of an "air carrier" and would therefore be covered by the Act's provisions.

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a country has domestic investment of $200 billion. its citizens purchase $600 billion of foreign assets and foreign citizens purchase $300 billion of its assets. what is national saving?

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the national saving of the country is $500 billion. National saving is the total amount of savings made by the citizens and government of a country.

In this scenario, the domestic investment is $200 billion, and the citizens of the country purchase $600 billion of foreign assets while foreign citizens purchase $300 billion of its assets. Therefore, the net purchase of foreign assets is $300 billion ($600 billion - $300 billion). The national saving can be calculated by adding the net purchase of foreign assets to the domestic investment:

National saving = Domestic investment + Net purchase of foreign assets
National saving = $200 billion + $300 billion
National saving = $500 billion

Therefore, the national saving of the country is $500 billion.

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suppose that blossom depot developed the following information about its inventories in applying the lower-of-cost-or-net-realizable-value (lcnrv) basis in valuing inventories: product cost nrv a $137000 $144000 b 96000 91000 c 192000 194000 after blossom depot applies the lcnrv rule, the value of the inventory reported on the balance sheet will be

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The total value of the inventory reported on the balance sheet will be $420,000.

According to the lower-of-cost-or-net-realizable-value (LCNRV) basis, the inventory value reported on the balance sheet will be the lower of the product cost or net realizable value (NRV) for each product.
For product A, the cost is $137,000 and the NRV is $144,000. Since the cost is lower than the NRV, the value reported on the balance sheet will be $137,000.
For product B, the cost is $96,000 and the NRV is $91,000. Since the NRV is lower than the cost, the value reported on the balance sheet will be $91,000.
For product C, the cost is $192,000 and the NRV is $194,000. Since the cost is lower than the NRV, the value reported on the balance sheet will be $192,000.
$137,000 + $91,000 + $192,000 = $420,000.

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Check my work Problem 4-22 Schedule of cash payments (L04-2] Wright Lighting Fixtures forecasts its sales in units for the next four months as follows: March April May June 30,00 32,000 29,500 28,000 Wright maintains an ending inventory for each month in the amount of two and one-half times the expected sales in the following month. The ending inventory for February (March's beginning inventory reflects this policy, Materials cost $7 per unit and are paid for in the month after production. Labor cost is sit per unit and is paid for in the month incurred. Fixed overhead is $24,000 per month Dividends of $22,400 are to be paid in May. The firm produced 29.000 units in February Complete a production schedule and a summary of cash payments for March April, and May. Remember that production in any one month is equal to sales plus desired ending Inventory minus beginning inventory

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The firm produced 29.000 units in February Complete a production schedule and a summary of cash payments for March April, and May is as follows.

Information on the production budget

                                 April                May                   June                   March

Units sold:              22000             24000                21500                 20000

(+) 1 times in the next month:

desired closing stock24000          21500                20000

(-) Opening Stock:   22,000,            24, 000,             1500

Units of Production 24000              21500              20000

Cash Payments

Details             Febuarary               March              April                  May

Units Made         21000                 24000             21500              20000

Cost of materials:                           84000             96000             86000

Cost of labour:                               192000,           172000,            160000

fixed overhead                               20000               20000            20000

Dividend number                                                                              21600

Total amount paid                         296,000            288,000          2876,000

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you own 160 shares of stock in halestorm, incorporated, that currently sells for $82.15 per share. the company has announced a dividend of $2.95 per share with an ex-dividend date of february 4. assuming no taxes, what is the value of the stock on february 4?

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Based on the information provided, the value of the stock on February 4th, assuming no taxes, would be $79.20 per share.

We can calculate the value of the stock on February 4th by subtracting the dividend amount from the current stock price. To do this, we first need to calculate the total amount of the dividend payout.
160 shares x $2.95 per share = $472 total dividend payout
Next, we subtract this amount from the current stock price:
$82.15 per share - $2.95 per share = $79.20 per share

Common and preferred stocks are the two categories of stocks. The key distinction between the two is that although the owner of the former has voting rights that can be used to influence business decisions, the latter does not.

Prior to any dividends being paid to other shareholders, preferred shareholders are mandated by law to receive a specific amount of dividend payments.


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Which of the following is the primary source of cross-country differences in the real earnings of workers?
a. differences in natural resource endowments
b. differences in the share of workers that are members of a labor union
c. differences in output per worker
d. access to modern technology
e. differences in the average number of hours worked

Answers

The primary source of cross-country differences in the real earnings of workers c. differences in output per worker as this is because higher output per worker translates to greater productivity, which allows businesses to generate higher revenues and profits.

This means that workers in countries where the output per worker is higher generally earn higher wages.

This is because higher output per worker translates to greater productivity, which allows businesses to generate higher revenues and profits. In turn, this allows businesses to pay higher wages to their workers.

Other factors such as natural resource endowments, the share of workers that are members of a labor union, access to modern technology, and the average number of hours worked can also influence earnings, but they are not as significant as differences in output per worker.

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if businesses feel more optimistic about the state of the economy, this change is likely to selected answer will be automatically saved. for keyboard navigation, press up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a shift the investment demand curve to the right. b shift the investment demand curve to the left. c cause a movement down the investment demand curve. d cause a movement up the investment demand curve.

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If businesses feel more optimistic about the state of the economy, this change is likely to shift the investment demand curve to the right. This is because when businesses are more optimistic about the economy, they are more likely to invest in expanding their operations and taking on new projects.

This increase in investment demand leads to a higher demand for loanable funds, causing interest rates to rise. As interest rates rise, the cost of borrowing increases, leading to a decrease in investment demand. As a result, businesses are likely to invest more in the short-term, which would lead to an increase in the demand for loanable funds, pushing the investment demand curve to the right. The shift in the investment demand curve indicates a higher level of investment at any given interest rate, reflecting an increase in overall investment spending. This shift would result in an increase in the equilibrium level of investment and output, leading to a potential economic expansion. Therefore, the answer is A- shift the investment demand curve to the right.

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Find the net present value (NPV) for the following series of future cash flows, assuming the company's cost of capital is 8.10 percent. The initial outlay is $455,102. Year 1: 151,782

Year 2: 152,908

Year 3: 173,713

Year 4: 139,628

Year 5: 127,498

Answers

The net present value (NPV) of the cash flows is $41,853.

To calculate the NPV, we need to discount each cash flow to its present value and then add them up.

Using a discount rate of 8.10%, we can calculate the present value of each cash flow as follows:

Year 1: $151,782 / (1 + 0.0810)¹ = $140,321.73

Year 2: $152,908 / (1 + 0.0810)² = $126,297.68

Year 3: $173,713 / (1 + 0.0810)³ = $134,018.44

Year 4: $139,628 / (1 + 0.0810)⁴ = $98,893.02

Year 5: $127,498 / (1 + 0.0810)⁵ = $86,804.48

To calculate the NPV, we then subtract the initial outlay of $455,102 from the sum of the present values:

NPV = $140,321.73 + $126,297.68 + $134,018.44 + $98,893.02 + $86,804.48 - $455,102

= $41,853.35

Therefore, the NPV of the cash flows is $41,853.35, which is positive, indicating that the investment is expected to be profitable and the company should proceed with it.

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A service provider and a manufacturer both use job order costing. Which of the following entries would only be found on the books of the manufacturer?
a.a debit to Work in Process and a credit to Wages Payable
b.a debit to Work in Process and a credit to Materials
c.a debit to Cost of Services and a credit to Work in Process
d.a debit to Work in Process and a credit to Overhead

Answers

The correct answer would be option b. A debit to Work in Process and a credit to Materials would only be found on the books of a manufacturer using job order costing.

This is because manufacturers use raw materials to produce their products and the cost of those materials is tracked in the Work in Process account.

The debit to Work in Process reflects the increase in the price of the materials used in the production process, while the credit to Materials reflects the decrease in the inventory of raw materials.

Option a would be found on the books of a service provider as they do not use raw materials in their services. Option c would be found on the books of a service provider as the Cost of Services account is used to track the cost of providing the service.

Option d would be found on the books of both a service provider and a manufacturer as Overhead is a cost incurred by both types of businesses. However, manufacturers specifically deal with materials, which are not typically found in a service provider's books.

So, the entry that would only be found in the manufacturer's books is the one involving Materials.

In this case, a debit to Work in Process increases the value of the product being manufactured, and a credit to Materials represents the consumption of those materials in the manufacturing process.

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cross-hedging with treasury bond futures is primarily intended to protect against credit (default) risk of securities. group of answer choices true false

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The statement "cross-hedging with treasury bond futures is primarily intended to protect against credit (default) risk of securities" is FALSE. Cross-hedging is a risk management strategy that involves taking a position in a futures contract that is different from the underlying asset that the investor wants to hedge against.

In other words, cross-hedging involves using a futures contract for an asset that is similar, but not identical, to the asset that the investor holds. In the case of treasury bond futures, they are commonly used as a hedge against interest rate risk, rather than credit risk. Treasury bond futures are considered a benchmark for interest rates, and their prices tend to move in the opposite direction to interest rates.

Therefore, by taking a position in treasury bond futures, investors can protect themselves against fluctuations in interest rates, which can affect the value of their fixed-income securities. While treasury bond futures can provide some protection against credit risk, this is not their primary function. Credit risk refers to the risk that a borrower will default on its debt obligations, leading to a decline in the value of its securities. While treasury bonds are considered a safe investment, they are not immune to credit risk. However, credit risk can be more effectively managed through diversification and other strategies, rather than cross-hedging with treasury bond futures.

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Which of the following areas are addressed in the study of economics?A. Financial marketsB. PricesC. Pollution reduction policiesD. The benefits associated with a decision

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Answer: A,D

Explanation: Economics deals with production , ditribution and consumption of goods and services and analyzes the choices that individuals ,bussinesses ,governaments make to allocate resources.

when making a decision to either buy a movie ticket or rent a dvd, the cost of the movie ticket is an example of a(n) blank cost. multiple select question. sunk irrelevant avoidable incremental

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The cost of the movie ticket is an example of an avoidable cost, as it is a cost that can be avoided by choosing to rent a DVD instead.

A sunk cost, on the other hand, is a cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered, such as the cost of a previous movie ticket or the cost of driving to the movie theater. An irrelevant cost is one that is not relevant to the decision-making process, while an incremental cost is the additional cost incurred by choosing one option over another.

Therefore, in this case, the cost of the movie ticket is an avoidable cost that can be weighed against the cost of renting a DVD to make a decision on which option to choose.

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b co. has a normal budgeted capacity of 200 machine hours. b produced 600 units. each unit requires a standard 0.2 machine hour to complete. the standard fixed factory overhead is $12 per hour. the fixed factory overhead volume variance is:

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The fixed factory overhead volume variance for b co. is zero. The fixed factory overhead volume variance measures the difference between the budgeted fixed factory overhead and the actual fixed factory overhead incurred due to the difference in the level of production activity.

To calculate the fixed factory overhead volume variance, we need to first determine the budgeted fixed factory overhead for the actual level of production activity. The budgeted fixed factory overhead for 600 units can be calculated as follows:
Budgeted fixed factory overhead = Budgeted fixed factory overhead rate x Budgeted machine hours
The budgeted fixed factory overhead rate is given as $12 per hour. The budgeted machine hours can be calculated by multiplying the standard machine hour per unit (0.2) by the actual units produced (600). Therefore,
Budgeted machine hours = Standard machine hours per unit x Actual units produced
= 0.2 x 600
= 120
Substituting these values in the above formula, we get:
Budgeted fixed factory overhead = $12 x 120
= $1,440
The actual fixed factory overhead incurred is assumed to be equal to the budgeted fixed factory overhead, as the production level is within the normal budgeted capacity of 200 machine hours. Hence, the fixed factory overhead volume variance is zero.

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which is an example of bid rigging? responses a group of music companies agrees to charge $20 for cds. a group of music companies agrees to charge $20 for cds. a defense contractor gets its competitors to agree not to seek government work. a defense contractor gets its competitors to agree not to seek government work. a large furniture maker charges a price below production cost in order to eliminate small competitors.

Answers

A defense contractor gets its competitors to agree not to seek government work.

Bid rigging refers to an illegal practice in which competitors collude to manipulate the bidding process to their advantage. In this example, a defense contractor is engaging in bid rigging by convincing its competitors to not bid on government work, thereby limiting competition and potentially allowing the contractor to secure government contracts at inflated prices. This is a violation of antitrust laws, which exist to promote fair competition and prevent monopolies or other anti-competitive behavior. Bid rigging can take various forms, such as price fixing, market allocation, or bid suppression, and can occur in a wide range of industries. Penalties for bid rigging can include fines, imprisonment, and damages for affected parties.

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which of the following would not be considered an acceptable option in managing capacity when demand exceeds available service capacity? a. utilizing technological tools like computers and automated systems b. cross-training and sharing employees c. using customers to provide services d. utilizing fewer facilitating products

Answers

Out of the options listed, using customers to provide services would not be considered an acceptable option in managing capacity when demand exceeds available service capacity.

This approach can result in a subpar customer experience, as customers may not have the necessary skills or knowledge to perform the services. Additionally, it can create liability concerns if customers are injured or damage is caused during the service.
Ultimately, the most effective approach to managing capacity will depend on the specific needs and goals of the business, as well as the nature of the services being provided. It may be necessary to experiment with different strategies and adapt over time to ensure that capacity is being managed effectively.

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How does the classical position on saving differ from Keynes's position? Classical position:

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The classical position on saving is that individuals save based on their current income and expected future income, and that saving leads to investment and economic growth.

They believe that savings are the primary source of investment and that individuals will save when they have an incentive to do so, such as higher interest rates.

In contrast, Keynes's position is that saving may not necessarily lead to investment and economic growth. He argued that savings can lead to a decrease in demand and a decrease in economic activity, which can lead to a recession.

He believed that government intervention in the form of fiscal policy, such as increased spending and lower taxes, can stimulate demand and prevent economic downturns. Therefore, Keynes believed that savings should not be the primary source of investment, and that government intervention is necessary to ensure economic growth.

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Please answer the questions referring to the CASE STUDY ATTACHED.

please answer the questions fully and with elaborations and examples referring to the case study!

thank you! its urgent.

Referring to attached article "Worst Case Scenario": a) How could a CMP help Quick Chek Food Stores Inc. in handling a crisis? b) of Ricker Oil Inc.?" How can we claim that exercise is important for improving a CMP from the case Worst Case Scenario By: Francella, Barbara Grondin. Convenience Store News, 8/7/2006, Vol 42 Issue 9, 235-39 , Preparation is key when faced with violent crime In August 2004, two gunmen shot their way through the locked door of a New Jersey Quick Chek store, which had closed for the night in compliance with local ordinance.

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a) A CMP, or Crisis Management Plan, could help Quick Chek Food Stores Inc. in handling a crisis by providing a clear and comprehensive plan of action for responding to emergencies.

This would involve identifying potential crisis scenarios and outlining the steps that should be taken in each situation, such as how to communicate with employees and customers, how to secure the premises, and how to work with law enforcement and other emergency responders. In the case of the Quick Chek shooting, a CMP could have helped the company to quickly and effectively respond to the incident, potentially minimizing the harm caused and facilitating a faster recovery.

b) The case study "Worst Case Scenario" emphasizes the importance of exercise in preparing for and improving a CMP.

Specifically, the article highlights the training exercises conducted by Ricker Oil Inc., which involved mock crisis scenarios and allowed employees to practice their response strategies in a simulated environment. By participating in these exercises, employees were able to better understand their roles and responsibilities during a crisis, identify potential weaknesses in the company's response plan, and develop the skills and confidence needed to effectively handle emergency situations. This type of exercise can be crucial in improving a CMP, as it provides opportunities for testing and refinement, and helps to ensure that all employees are prepared to respond quickly and appropriately when faced with a crisis.

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if saving equals $200 when real disposable income equals $1,000, the break-even income is

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The break-even income for this individual is $1,000

The break-even income is the income level at which an individual's expenses are equal to their income. In this scenario, if saving equals $200 when real disposable income equals $1,000, it means that the individual's expenses are $800.

To calculate the break-even income, we need to determine the income level at which the individual's expenses equal their income, and thus there is no savings or deficit. We can do this by using a simple formula:

Break-even income = expenses + savings

In this case, we know that expenses are $800 and savings are $200. Therefore,

Break-even income = $800 + $200 = $1,000

Thus, the break-even income for this individual is $1,000. Any income level below this amount would result in a deficit, while any income level above this amount would result in savings.

It's worth noting that this calculation assumes that expenses remain constant regardless of income level. However, in reality, expenses often increase as income increases, particularly for items such as housing and transportation. As such, this calculation provides a rough estimate and may not be accurate for all individuals.

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Consider the following cash flows of two mutually exclusive projects for Spartan Rubber Company, Assume the discount rate for both projects is 10 percent. a. What is the payback period for each project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decinal places, e.g. 32.16.) b. What is the NPV for each project? (Do not rouna intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) c. What is the IRR for each project? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) d. Calculate the incremental IRR between the projects. (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g.. 32.16.)

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Finally, the incremental IRR between the projects is 2.51%, indicating that Project B generates an additional 2.51% return over Project A.

Project A

Year Cash Flow

0 −$50,000

1 $20,000

2 $20,000

3 $20,000

Project B

Year Cash Flow

0 −$50,000

1 $30,000

2 $20,000

a. The payback period for Project A is 2.5 years and the payback period for Project B is 2.33 years.

b. The NPV for Project A is $2,150.27 and the NPV for Project B is $2,877.93.

c. The IRR for Project A is 22.93% and the IRR for Project B is 25.44%.

d. The incremental IRR between the projects is 2.51%.

The payback period is a measure of the time it takes for a project to return its initial investment. Project B has a shorter payback period of 2.33 years, indicating it will return its initial investment faster than Project A.

Net present value is a measure of the profitability of a project. Project B has a higher NPV of $2,877.93, indicating it is more profitable than Project A.

The internal rate of return is a measure of the rate of return a project generates. Project B has a higher IRR of 25.44%, indicating it generates a higher rate of return than Project A.

Finally, the incremental IRR between the projects is 2.51%, indicating that Project B generates an additional 2.51% return over Project A.

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the point on a business cycle when real gdp stops falling and begins rising is a(n) ____

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The point on a business cycle when real GDP stops falling and begins rising is a trough.

A trough is the lowest point in the business cycle, signalling the end of a period of contraction or recession and the start of a period of expansion. The economy has reached a bottom and is beginning to revive at the trough.

Real GDP is a significant indicator of economic activity and is used to track changes in the business cycle since it shows the entire value of goods and services generated in a country adjusted for inflation.

When real GDP begins to climb after a period of decline, it indicates that the economy is recovering and that businesses and consumers are increasing their spending and investment.

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unless otherwise expressly stated, an auction is considered a(n) _____.

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Unless otherwise expressly stated, an auction is considered a(n) implied reserve auction.

The reasoning behind this classification is that, in an implied reserve auction, there is an undisclosed minimum price (reserve) set by the seller, which must be met for the item to be sold. If bidding does not reach the reserve price, the seller is not obligated to sell the item. In an auction, the seller is not typically required to disclose the reserve price to potential buyers.

This is the default assumption for most auctions unless they are specifically stated as absolute or no-reserve auctions, where the item is sold to the highest bidder regardless of the price.

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in their 2004 experiment, bertrand and mullainathan sent fictionalresumes to employment ads. they randomly assigned resumes to haveeither black-sounding names or white-sounding names. employers weremuch more likely to respond to resumes with white-sounding names. inthis case, choosing a resume with a white-sounding name over a resumewith a black-sounding name is an example of

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The act of choosing a resume with a white-sounding name over a resume with a black-sounding name is an example of implicit bias.  

In their 2004 experiment, Bertrand and Mullainathan were examining the impact of racial bias on hiring decisions. The experiment involved sending fictional resumes with either black-sounding or white-sounding names to employment ads. The results of the experiment showed that employers were much more likely to respond to resumes with white-sounding names than those with black-sounding names. This finding suggests that racial bias is a significant factor in hiring decisions.
Implicit bias refers to unconscious attitudes or stereotypes that affect our judgments and actions. In this case, employers may not be consciously aware that they are choosing resumes with white-sounding names over those with black-sounding names due to implicit biases that have been shaped by cultural and societal factors.
This experiment highlights the need for organizations to address implicit biases in their hiring processes. It is essential to have diverse hiring committees and implement strategies to reduce bias, such as blind resume review, to ensure that all applicants have an equal chance of being considered. Organizations that prioritize diversity and inclusion are more likely to attract top talent and benefit from a variety of perspectives and experiences.

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