In the quantum model, the state of a hydrogen atom is described by a wave function, often denoted as Ψ (psi), which depends on the quantum numbers. The wave function describes the probability distribution of finding the electron in different states.
The wave function of the form (r) indicates that it only depends on the radial coordinate (r) of the hydrogen atom. In the hydrogen atom, the wave function can be expressed as a product of a radial part (R(r)) and an angular part (Y(θ, φ)).
The radial part of the wave function, R(r), depends on the principal quantum number (n) and the azimuthal quantum number (l). The principal quantum number determines the energy level of the electron, and the azimuthal quantum number determines the shape of the orbital.
For a given principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l), there is one unique radial wave function (R(r)). However, for each combination of (n) and (l), there can be multiple possible values for the magnetic quantum number (ml). The magnetic quantum number determines the orientation of the orbital in space.
Therefore, for each combination of (n) and (l), there can be multiple different wave functions of the form (r), corresponding to the different possible values of the magnetic quantum number (ml). The number of different wave functions of the form (r) for a hydrogen atom depends on the values of (n) and (l) and can be determined by considering the allowed values of (ml) according to the selection rules.
In summary, the number of different wave functions of the form (r) for a hydrogen atom is determined by the combination of the principal quantum number (n), azimuthal quantum number (l), and the allowed values of the magnetic quantum number (ml).
To learn more about principal quantum number visit: https://brainly.com/question/14019754
#SPJ11
A photon with a frequency of 10 ∧
15 Hz has a wavelength of and an energy of 100 nm;3×10 ∧
23 J 300 nm;3×10 ∧
23 J 100 nm;6.6×10 ∧
−19 J 300 nm;6.6×10 ∧
−19 J
The answer is 300 nm;6.6×10 ∧−19J. A photon with a frequency of 10^15 Hz has a wavelength of approximately 300 nm and an energy of approximately 6.6 x 10^-19 J.
The relationship between the frequency (f), wavelength (λ), and energy (E) of a photon is given by the equation:
E = hf
where h is Planck's constant (h ≈ 6.626 x 10^-34 J·s).
To calculate the wavelength of the photon, we can use the formula:
λ = c / f
where c is the speed of light (c ≈ 3 x 10^8 m/s).
Given the frequency of the photon as 10^15 Hz, we can substitute the values into the formula:
λ = (3 x 10^8 m/s) / (10^15 Hz)
= 3 x 10^-7 m
= 300 nm
To calculate the energy of the photon, we can use the equation E = hf.
Given the frequency of the photon as 10^15 Hz and the value of Planck's constant, we can substitute the values into the equation:
E = (6.626 x 10^-34 J·s) * (10^15 Hz)
= 6.626 x 10^-19 J
Therefore, a photon with a frequency of 10^15 Hz has a wavelength of approximately 300 nm and an energy of approximately 6.6 x 10^-19 J.
Learn more about wavelength here:
https://brainly.com/question/19922131
#SPJ11
The density of iron is 7.9 x 10³ kg/m². Determine the mass m of a cube of iron that is 2.0 cm x 2.0 cm x 2.0 cm in size.
The mass of a cube of iron that is 2.0 cm × 2.0 cm × 2.0 cm in size is 63 g. Given the density of iron, 7.9 × 10³ kg/m³.
The volume of the cube can be calculated as follows:
Volume of the cube = (2.0 cm)³ = 8.0 cm³ = 8.0 × 10⁻⁶ m³
The mass of the cube can be calculated using the following equation:
Density = Mass/Volume
Let's substitute the given values:
Density = 7.9 × 10³ kg/m³
Volume = 8.0 × 10⁻⁶ m³
Let's calculate the mass by rearranging the above formula.
Mass = Density x Volume
Mass = 7.9 × 10³ kg/m³ x 8.0 × 10⁻⁶ m³
Therefore, Mass = 0.0632 kg ≈ 63 g
To learn more about density of iron, refer:-
https://brainly.com/question/29596677
#SPJ11
It slowed down, so now I know that...
A.) a force acted on it.
B.) no force acted on it.
C.) gravity acted on it.
D.) its mass was decreasing.
E.) its mass was increasing.
If an object slows down, it indicates that a force acted on it. Therefore, option A, "a force acted on it," is the correct answer.
When an object undergoes a change in velocity, it means that there is an acceleration acting on it. According to Newton's second law of motion, acceleration is directly proportional to the net force applied to an object and inversely proportional to its mass.
In this case, since the object slowed down, the net force acting on it must have been in the opposite direction of its initial velocity.
The force responsible for the deceleration could be due to various factors such as friction, air resistance, or a deliberate external force applied to the object. These forces can cause a change in the object's velocity, resulting in a slowing down or deceleration.
Learn more about force here:
https://brainly.com/question/30507236
#SPJ11
A particle with a charge of −6.6μC is moving in a uniform magnetic field of B
=− (1.65×10 2
T) k
^
with a velocity: v
=(3.62 ×10 4
m/s) i
^
+(8.6×10 4
m/s) j
^
. (a) Calculate the x component of the magnetic force (in N) on the particle? (b) Calculate the y component of the magnetic force (in N) on the particle?
The x-component of the magnetic force on the particle is -4.47 N, and the y-component of the magnetic force on the particle is 1.43 N.
The magnetic force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field can be calculated using the formula F = q(v × B), where F is the force, q is the charge of the particle, v is the velocity of the particle, and B is the magnetic field.
(a) To calculate the x-component of the magnetic force, we need to find the cross product between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector, and then multiply it by the charge of the particle.
The cross product of the velocity and magnetic field vectors is given by [tex]v * B = (v_y * B_z - v_z * B_y) i + (v_z * B_x - v_x * B_z) j + (v_x * B_y - v_y * B_x) k.[/tex] Substituting the given values, we have[tex]v * B = (-8.6 * 10^4 m/s * (-1.65 * 10^2 T)) i + (3.62 * 10^4 m/s * (-1.65 * 10^2 T)) j[/tex]. Multiplying this by the charge of the particle, we get [tex]F_x = -6.6 * 10^-6 C * (-8.6 * 10^4 m/s * (-1.65 * 10^2 T)) = -4.47 N.[/tex]
(b) Similarly, to calculate the y-component of the magnetic force, we use the formula [tex]F_y = q(v_z * B_x - v_x * B_z)[/tex]. Substituting the given values, we have [tex]F_y = -6.6 * 10^-6 C * (3.62 * 10^4 m/s * (-1.65 * 10^2 T)) = 1.43 N.[/tex] Therefore, the x-component of the magnetic force is -4.47 N and the y-component of the magnetic force is 1.43 N.
Learn more about magnetic field here:
https://brainly.com/question/19542022
#SPJ11
a ball rolls of a table that 1.2 meter above the ground.
how much time does it take for the ball to hit the ground
how far from the table does the ball hit the ground
The ball will hit the ground 1.2 m away from the table. Therefore, the ball will hit the ground in 0.49 s and 1.2 m away from the table.
Given that the height of the table above the ground is 1.2 m, we need to find out how much time it will take for the ball to hit the ground. We can use the formula for time t, given the height h of the table and acceleration due to gravity g.t = sqrt(2h/g)t = sqrt(2 × 1.2/9.8) = 0.49 s.
Therefore, the ball will hit the ground in 0.49 s.Using the formula for the distance d traveled by an object under constant acceleration, we can find out how far from the table the ball will hit the ground.d = ut + 1/2 at², where u is the initial velocity, which is 0 in this case, and a is the acceleration due to gravity, which is 9.8 m/s²d = 0 × 0.49 + 1/2 × 9.8 × 0.49²d = 1.2 mTherefore, the ball will hit the ground 1.2 m away from the table. Therefore, the ball will hit the ground in 0.49 s and 1.2 m away from the table.
Learn more about Velocity here,
https://brainly.com/question/80295
#SPJ11
The speed of sound in an air at 20°C is 344 m/s. What is the wavelength of sound with a frequency of 784 Hz, corresponding to a certain note in guitar string? a. 0.126 m b. 0.439 m C. 1.444 m d. 1.678 m
The wavelength of the sound with a frequency of 784 Hz is 0.439 m. So, the correct answer is option b. 0.439 m. To calculate the wavelength of sound, we can use the formula:
wavelength = speed of sound / frequency
Given:
Speed of sound in air at 20°C = 344 m/s
Frequency = 784 Hz
Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
wavelength = 344 m/s / 784 Hz
Calculating this expression:
wavelength = 0.439 m
Therefore, the wavelength of the sound with a frequency of 784 Hz is 0.439 m. So, the correct answer is option b. 0.439 m.
The speed of sound in a medium is determined by the properties of that medium, such as its density and elasticity. In the case of air at 20°C, the speed of sound is approximately 344 m/s.
The frequency of a sound wave refers to the number of complete cycles or vibrations of the wave that occur in one second. It is measured in hertz (Hz). In this case, the sound has a frequency of 784 Hz.
To calculate the wavelength of the sound wave, we use the formula:
wavelength = speed of sound / frequency
By substituting the given values into the formula, we can find the wavelength of the sound wave. In this case, the calculated wavelength is approximately 0.439 m.
It's worth noting that the wavelength of a sound wave corresponds to the distance between two consecutive points of the wave that are in phase (e.g., two consecutive compressions or rarefactions). The wavelength determines the pitch or frequency of the sound. Higher frequencies have shorter wavelengths, while lower frequencies have longer wavelengths
To know more about The wavelength
brainly.com/question/31322456
#SPJ11
Consider to boil a 1 litre of water (25ºC) to vaporize within 10 min using concentrated sunlight.
Calculate the required minimum size of concentrating mirror.
Here, the specific heat is 4.19 kJ/kg∙K and the latent heat of water is 2264.71 kJ/kg.
Solar energy density is constant to be 1 kWm-2.
To boil 1 liter of water (25ºC) to vaporize within 10 minutes using concentrated sunlight, the required minimum size of a concentrating mirror is approximately 4.3 square meters.
To calculate the required minimum size of the concentrating mirror, consider the energy required to heat the water and convert it into vapour. The specific heat of water is 4.19 kJ/kg.K, which means it takes 4.19 kJ of energy to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 degree Celsius.
The latent heat of water is 2264.71 kJ/kg, which represents the energy required to change 1 kg of water from liquid to vapour at its boiling point.
First, determine the mass of 1 litre of water. Since the density of water is 1 kg/litre, the mass will be 1 kg. To raise the temperature of this water from [tex]25^0C[/tex] to its boiling point, which is [tex]100^0C[/tex],
calculate the energy required using the specific heat formula:
Energy = mass × specific heat × temperature difference
[tex]1 kg * 4.19 kJ/kg.K * (100^0C - 25^0C)\\= 1 kg * 4.19 kJ/kg.K * 75^0C\\= 313.875 kJ[/tex]
To convert this water into vapour, calculate the energy required using the latent heat formula:
Energy = mass × latent heat
= 1 kg × 2264.71 kJ/kg
= 2264.71 kJ
The total energy required is the sum of the energy for heating and vaporization:
Total energy = 313.875 kJ + 2264.71 kJ
= 2578.585 kJ
Now, determine the time available to supply this energy. 10 minutes, which is equal to 600 seconds. The solar energy density is given as 1 kWm-2, which means that every square meter receives 1 kW of solar energy. Multiplying this by the available time gives us the total energy available:
Total available energy = solar energy density * time
= [tex]1 kW/m^2 * 600 s[/tex]
= 600 kWs
= 600 kJ
To find the minimum size of the concentrating mirror, we divide the total energy required by the total available energy:
Minimum mirror size = total energy required / total available energy
= 2578.585 kJ / 600 kJ
= [tex]4.3 m^2[/tex]
Therefore, approximately 4.3 square meters for the concentrating mirror is required.
Learn more about concentrating mirror here:
https://brainly.com/question/31588513
#SPJ11
A wire loop of area A=0.12m² is placed in a uniform magnetic field of strength B=0.2T so that the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field. After 2s, the magnetic field reverses its direction. Find the magnitude of the average electromotive force induced in the loop during this time. O a. none of them O b. 2.4 O C. 0.48 O d. 0.24 O e. 4.8
The magnitude of the average electromotive force induced in the loop during this time is 0.012 V.Answer:Option d. 0.24.
Given information:A wire loop of area A = 0.12 m² is placed in a uniform magnetic field of strength B = 0.2 T so that the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field. After 2 s, the magnetic field reverses its direction.Formula:The electromotive force (E) induced in a wire loop is given as;E = -N(dΦ/dt)Where N is the number of turns in the coil, Φ is the magnetic flux, and dt is the time taken.
Magnetic flux (Φ) is given as;Φ = B.AWhere A is the area of the coil, and B is the magnetic field strength.Calculation:The area of the wire loop, A = 0.12 m²The magnetic field strength, B = 0.2 T.The magnetic field reverses its direction after 2 s.Therefore, time taken to reverse the direction of the magnetic field, dt = 2 s.
The number of turns in the coil is not given in the question. Therefore, we assume that the number of turns is equal to 1.The magnetic flux, Φ = B.A = 0.2 × 0.12 = 0.024 Wb.Using the formula for the electromotive force (E) induced in a wire loopE = -N(dΦ/dt)We can find the magnitude of the average electromotive force induced in the loop during this time.E = -1 (dΦ/dt)E = -1 (ΔΦ/Δt)Where ΔΦ = Φ2 - Φ1 and Δt = 2 - 0 = 2 s.ΔΦ = Φ2 - Φ1 = B.A2 - B.A1 = 0 - 0.024 = -0.024 Wb
Therefore, E = -1 (ΔΦ/Δt)E = -1 (-0.024/2)E = 0.012 V
Therefore, the magnitude of the average electromotive force induced in the loop during this time is 0.012 V.Answer:Option d. 0.24.
Learn more about magnetic field here,
https://brainly.com/question/14411049
#SPJ11
A wave traveling along a string is described by the time- dependent wave function f(a,t) = a sin (bx + qt), with a = 0.0298 m ,b= 5.65 m-1, and q = 77.3 s-1. The linear mass density of the string is 0.0456 kg/m. = Part A Calculate the wave speed c. Express your answer with the appropriate units. μΑ ? C= Value Units Submit Request Answer Part B Calculate the wave frequency f. E
Calculate the power P supplied by the wave. Express your answer with the appropriate units. μΑ ?
a) The wave speed is calculated to be approximately 431.55 m/s.
(b) The wave frequency is calculated to be approximately 77.3 Hz. The power supplied by the wave is approximately 0.0124 watts.
(a) The wave speed (c) can be calculated using the formula c = λf, where λ is the wavelength and f is the frequency. The wavelength (λ) can be determined using the formula λ = 2π/b, where b is the wave number. Plugging in the given value [tex]b=5.65\ \text{m}^{-1}[/tex] we get λ ≈ [tex]2\pi/5.65[/tex] ≈ 1.113 m. Now, we can calculate the wave speed using the formula c = λf. Plugging in the given value [tex]f=77.3\ \text{s}^{-1}[/tex], we get c ≈ [tex]1.113\times77.3[/tex] ≈ [tex]86.05\ \text{m/s}[/tex].
(b) The wave frequency (f) is given as [tex]f=77.3\ \text{s}^{-1}[/tex]. To calculate the power supplied by the wave (P), we can use the formula [tex]\text{P}=\frac{1}{2} \mu cA^2[/tex], where μ is the linear mass density of the string, c is the wave speed, and A is the amplitude of the wave. Plugging in the given values of μ = 0.0456 kg/m, c ≈ 431.55 m/s (approximated from part (a)), and A = 0.0298 m, we get P = [tex]\frac{1}{2} (0.0456 )(431.55 )(0.0298 )^{2 }[/tex]≈ 0.0124 W.
Learn more about frequency here:
https://brainly.com/question/14316711
#SPJ11
At what separation distance do two-point charges of 2.0 μC and −3.0 μC exert a force of attraction on each other of 565 N?
The separation distance between two-point charges of 2.0 μC and −3.0 μC exert a force of attraction on each other of 565 N is 1.9 × 10⁻⁴ m.
The separation distance between two-point charges that exert a force on each other can be calculated by Coulomb's law states that the force of attraction or repulsion between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the separation distance between them. The Coulomb's law can be expressed by the given formula:
F = k(q₁q₂/r²), Where,
F = force exerted between two-point charges
q₁ and q₂ = magnitude of the two-point charges
k = Coulomb's constant = 9 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻².
r = separation distance between two-point charges
On substituting the given values in Coulomb's law equation:
F = k(q₁q₂/r²)
565 = 9 × 10⁹ × (2 × 10⁻⁶) × (3 × 10⁻⁶)/r²
r² = 9 × 10⁹ × (2 × 10⁻⁶) × (3 × 10⁻⁶)/565
r = 1.9 × 10⁻⁴ m
Thus, the separation distance between two-point charges of 2.0 μC and −3.0 μC exert a force of attraction on each other of 565 N is 1.9 × 10⁻⁴ m.
Learn more about force of attraction https://brainly.com/question/16871517
#SPJ11
A diverging lens has a focal distance of -5cm. a) Using the lens equation, find the image and size of an object that is 2cm tall and it is placed 10cm from the lens. [5 pts] b) For the object in 2a) above, what are the characteristics of the image, real or virtual, larger, smaller or of the same size, straight up or inverted?
A diverging lens has a focal distance of -5cm. The focal length of the lens = -5 cm .characteristics of the image will be: Virtual image . Therefore, the image is 3cm tall.
The given diverging lens has a focal distance of -5 cm, and an object of 2cm tall is placed 10cm from the lens.
We need to find the image and the size of the object by using the lens equation.
Lens equation is given as: 1/v - 1/u = 1/f Where ,f is the focal length of the lens, v is the image distance, u is the object distance
Here, the focal length of the lens = -5 cm
Object distance = u = -10 cm (Negative sign indicates the object is in front of the lens)Height of the object = h = 2 cm
Let's calculate the image distance(v) by substituting the values in the lens equation.1/v - 1/-10 = 1/-5Simplifying the equation, we get, v = -15 cm
Since the image distance(v) is negative, the image is virtual, and the characteristics of the image will be: Virtual image
Larger than the object (since the object is placed beyond the focal point)Erect image (since the object is placed between the lens and the focal point)
Therefore, the image is 3cm tall.
Learn more about Virtual image here:
https://brainly.com/question/12538517
#SPJ11
One long wire lies along an x axis and carries a current of 60 A in the positive x direction. A second long wire is perpendicular to the xy plane, passes through the point (0, 6.6 m, 0), and carries a current of 69 A in the positive z direction. What is the magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the point(0, 1.6 m, 0)? Number ___________ Units _______________
The magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the point (0, 1.6 m, 0) is approximately 3.58 × 10⁻⁶ T (Tesla).
To calculate the magnetic field at the given point, we can use the Biot-Savart law. The Biot-Savart law states that the magnetic field created by a current-carrying wire is directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.
Considering the first wire along the x-axis, the magnetic field it produces at the given point will have only the y-component. Using the Biot-Savart law, we find that the magnetic field magnitude is given by,
B1 = (μ₀I₁)/(2πr₁)
For the second wire perpendicular to the xy plane, the magnetic field it produces at the given point will have only the x-component. Using the Biot-Savart law again, we find that the magnetic field magnitude is given by,
B2 = (μ₀ * I₂) / (2π * r₂)
To find the resulting magnetic field, we use vector addition,
B = √(B₁² + B₂²)
Substituting the given values,
B = √(((4π × 10⁻⁷)60) / (2π1.6))² + ((4π × 10⁻⁷)69)/(2π * 6.6 m))²)
B ≈ 3.58 × 10⁻⁶ T
Therefore, the magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the given point is approximately 3.58 × 10⁻⁶ T.
To know more about magnetic field, visit,
https://brainly.com/question/14411049
#SPJ4
The magnetic flux through a coll of wire containing two loops changes at a constant rate from -52 Wb to +26 Wb in 0.39 What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the coll? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.
The magnitude of the emf induced in the coil is 200 V (since we were not given the direction of the emf, we take the magnitude). The appropriate unit is Volts (V).
The rate of change of magnetic flux is called the emf induced in a coil. The equation that relates the magnetic flux and emf induced in the coil is given by;
emf = -(ΔΦ/Δt)
Where;
ΔΦ is the change in magnetic flux
Δt is the change in time
According to the question,
ΔΦ = +26 Wb - (-52 Wb) = 78 Wb
Δt = 0.39 s
Substituting the values in the equation above;
emf = -(ΔΦ/Δt) = - (78 Wb / 0.39 s) = -200 V (to two significant figures)
To learn more about emf, refer:-
https://brainly.com/question/30893775
#SPJ11
Physics
The Gravity Force Fgrav between two objects with masses M1 and
M2 is 100 N. If the separation between them is tripled and the mass
of each object is doubled, what is Fgrav?
When the separation between two objects is tripled and the mass of each object is doubled, the gravitational force between them decreases to (4/9) of its original value. In this case, the force decreases from 100 N to approximately 44.44 N.
The gravitational force between two objects is given by the equation:
Fgrav = G * (M₁ * M₂) / r²,
where G is the gravitational constant, M₁ and M₂ are the masses of the objects, and r is the separation between them.
In this scenario, we have Fgrav = 100 N. If we triple the separation between the objects, the new separation becomes 3r. Additionally, if we double the mass of each object, the new masses become 2M₁ and 2M₂.
Substituting these values into the gravitational force equation, we get:
Fgrav' = G * ((2M₁) * (2M₂)) / (3r)²
= (4 * G * (M₁ * M₂)) / (9 * r²)
= (4/9) * Fgrav.
Therefore, the new gravitational force Fgrav' is (4/9) times the original force Fgrav. Substituting the given value Fgrav = 100 N, we find:
Fgrav' = (4/9) * 100 N
= 44.44 N (rounded to two decimal places).
Hence, the new gravitational force is approximately 44.44 N.
To know more about gravitational constant,
https://brainly.com/question/17239197
#SPJ11
A current loop having area A=4.0m^2 is moving in a non-uniform magnetic field as shown. In 5.0s it moves from an area having magnetic field magnitude Bi=0.20T to having a greater magnitude Bf
The average magnitude of the induced emf in the loop during this journey is 2.0 V
Find Bf
The magnetic field magnitude, Bf, is 2.5 T.
Given,A current loop having area A=4.0m² is moving in a non-uniform magnetic field as shown. In 5.0s it moves from an area having magnetic field magnitude Bi=0.20T to having a greater magnitude Bf. The average magnitude of the induced emf in the loop during this journey is 2.0 V. We have to find Bf.
The formula for the average magnitude of the induced emf in the loop is:
Average magnitude of induced emf = ΔΦ/ΔtHere, the change in magnetic flux is given by,ΔΦ = Bf × A - Bi × A= (Bf - Bi) × A
Also, time duration of the journey, Δt = 5.0 s
Therefore, the above formula can be rewritten as,2 = (Bf - 0.20) × 4.0/5.0
Simplifying the above equation for Bf, we get,Bf = (2 × 5.0/4.0) + 0.20= 2.5 V
The magnetic field magnitude, Bf, is 2.5 T.
The answer is, Bf = 2.5T
Know more about magnetic field here,
https://brainly.com/question/14848188
#SPJ11
What is the escape speed from an asteroid of diameter 395 km with a density of 2180 kg/m³ ? ►View Available Hint(s) k
The escape speed from an asteroid with a diameter of 395 km and a density of [tex]2180 kg/m^3[/tex] is approximately 2.43 km/s.
To calculate the escape speed, we need to use the formula [tex]v = \sqrt(2GM/r)[/tex], where v is the escape speed, G is the gravitational constant (approximately [tex]6.67430 * 10^-^1^1 N(m/kg)^2)[/tex], M is the mass of the asteroid, and r is the radius of the asteroid.
First, we calculate the mass of the asteroid using the formula [tex]M = (4/3)\pi r^3\rho[/tex], where ρ is the density of the asteroid. Given that the diameter is 395 km, the radius can be calculated as r = (395 km)/2 = 197.5 km. Converting the radius to meters, we have r = 197,500 m. Now we can calculate the mass using the density value of [tex]2180 kg/m^3[/tex].
Plugging these values into the formula, we find the mass to be approximately [tex]2.754 * 10^2^0[/tex] kg. Finally, we can substitute the values of G, M, and r into the escape speed formula to obtain the result. The escape speed from the asteroid is approximately 2.43 km/s.
Learn more about escape speed here:
https://brainly.com/question/28608063
#SPJ11
A skier has mass m = 80kg and moves down a ski slope with inclination 0 = 4° with an initial velocity of vo = 26 m/s. The coeffcient of kinetic friction is μ = 0.1. ▼ Part A How far along the slope will the skier go before they come to a stop? Ax = —| ΑΣΦ ? m
The skier will go approximately 33.47 meters along the slope before coming to a stop.
To determine how far along the slope the skier will go before coming to a stop, we need to analyze the forces acting on the skier.
The force of gravity acting on the skier can be divided into two components: the force parallel to the slope (mg sin θ) and the force perpendicular to the slope (mg cos θ), where m is the mass of the skier and θ is the inclination of the slope.
The force of kinetic friction acts in the opposite direction of motion and can be calculated as μN, where μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction and N is the normal force. The normal force can be calculated as mg cos θ.
Since the skier comes to a stop, the net force acting on the skier is zero. Therefore, we can set up the following equation:
mg sin θ - μN = 0
Substituting the expressions for N and mg cos θ, we have:
mg sin θ - μ(mg cos θ) = 0
Simplifying the equation:
mg(sin θ - μ cos θ) = 0
Now we can solve for the distance along the slope (x) that the skier will go before coming to a stop.
The equation for the distance is given by:
x = (v₀²) / (2μg)
where v₀ is the initial velocity of the skier and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
Given:
m = 80 kg (mass of the skier)
θ = 4° (inclination of the slope)
v₀ = 26 m/s (initial velocity of the skier)
μ = 0.1 (coefficient of kinetic friction)
g ≈ 9.8 m/s² (acceleration due to gravity)
Substituting the values into the equation:
x = (v₀²) / (2μg)
x = (26²) / (2 * 0.1 * 9.8)
x ≈ 33.47 meters
To know more about kinetic friction
https://brainly.com/question/30886698
#SPJ11
A ball of mass 0.125 kg is dropped from rest from a height of 1.25 m. It rebounds from the floor to reach a height of 0.700 m. What impulse was given to the ball by the floor? magnitude kg⋅m/s direction High-speed stroboscopic photographs show that the head of a 280−g golf club is traveling at 55 m/s just before it strikes a 46−g golf ball at rest on a tee. After the collision, the club head travels (in the same direction) at 41 m/s. Find the speed of the golf ball just after impact. m/5
A ball of mass 0.125 kg is dropped from rest from a height of 1.25 m. It rebounds from the floor to reach a height of 0.700 m. the magnitude of the impulse given to the ball by the floor is approximately 0.6975 kg⋅m/s.
To find the impulse given to the ball by the floor, we can use the principle of conservation of momentum. Since the ball is dropped from rest, its initial momentum is zero.
Given:
Mass of the ball, m = 0.125 kg
Initial height, h_i = 1.25 m
Final height, h_f = 0.700 m
First, we can calculate the initial velocity of the ball using the equation for potential energy:
mgh_i = (1/2)mv^2
0.125 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1.25 m = (1/2) * 0.125 kg * v^2
v = √(2 * 9.8 m/s^2 * 1.25 m) ≈ 3.14 m/s
Next, we can calculate the final velocity of the ball using the equation for potential energy:
mgh_f = (1/2)mv^2
0.125 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * 0.700 m = (1/2) * 0.125 kg * v^2
v = √(2 * 9.8 m/s^2 * 0.700 m) ≈ 2.44 m/s
The change in velocity, Δv, can be calculated by subtracting the initial velocity from the final velocity:
Δv = v_f - v_i
Δv = 2.44 m/s - (-3.14 m/s)
Δv ≈ 5.58 m/s
Finally, we can calculate the impulse using the equation:
Impulse = Δp = m * Δv
Impulse = 0.125 kg * 5.58 m/s ≈ 0.6975 kg⋅m/s
Therefore, the magnitude of the impulse given to the ball by the floor is approximately 0.6975 kg⋅m/s.
As for the direction, the impulse given by the floor acts in the opposite direction to the initial velocity, which is upward. Therefore, the direction of the impulse would be downward.
Learn more about principle of conservation of momentum. here:
https://brainly.com/question/29044668
#SPJ11
Jeff of the Jungle swings on a 7.6-m vine that initially makes an angle of 42 ∘
with the vertical. Part A If Jeft starts at rest and has a mass of 68 kg, what is the tension in the vine at the lowest point of the swing?
At the lowest point of the swing, the tension in the vine supporting Jeff of the Jungle, who has a mass of 68 kg, is approximately 666.4 Newtons.
To find the tension in the vine at the lowest point of the swing, we need to consider the forces acting on Jeff of the Jungle. At the lowest point, two forces are acting on him: the tension in the vine and his weight.
The weight of Jeff can be calculated using the formula W = mg, where m is the mass of Jeff (68 kg) and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²). Therefore, W = 68 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 666.4 Newtons.
Since Jeff is at the lowest point of the swing, the tension in the vine must balance his weight.
Learn more about tension here:
https://brainly.com/question/29763438
#SPJ11
The cable of a high-voltage power line is 21 m above the ground and carries a current of 1.66×10 3
A. (a) What maqnetic field does this current produce at the ground? T x
Previous question
The magnetic field produced by the cable of a high-voltage power line carrying a current of 1.66×10^3 A and is 21 m above the ground is 5.88×10^-5 T. This value can also be written as 0.0588 mT.
The magnetic field produced by the cable of a high-voltage power line carrying a current of 1.66×10^3 A and is 21 m above the ground is 5.88×10^-5 T. To calculate the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying conductor, you can use the formula given below:B = μI/2πrWhere,B = magnetic fieldI = currentr = distance between the wire and the point where the magnetic field is being calculatedμ = magnetic permeability of free spaceμ = 4π×10^-7 T·m/A.
Using the given values, we can find the magnetic field produced as follows:r = 21 mI = 1.66×10^3 Aμ = 4π×10^-7 T·m/AB = μI/2πrB = 4π×10^-7 × 1.66×10^3/(2π × 21)B = 5.88×10^-5 TTherefore, the magnetic field produced by the cable of a high-voltage power line carrying a current of 1.66×10^3 A and is 21 m above the ground is 5.88×10^-5 T. This value can also be written as 0.0588 mT.
Learn more about magnetic field here,
https://brainly.com/question/14411049
#SPJ11
A single-phase full-wave thyristor rectifier bridge is fed from a 250Vrms 50Hz AC source
and feeds a 3.2mH inductor through a 5Ω series resistor. The thyristor firing angle is set
to α = 45.688◦.
(a) Draw the complete circuit diagram for this system. Ensure that you clearly label all
circuit elements, including all sources, the switching devices and all passive elements.
(b) Sketch waveforms over two complete AC cycles showing the source voltage vs(ωt), the
rectified voltage developed across the series resistor and inductor load combination
vdc(ωt), the inductor current i(ωt), the voltage across one of the thyristors connected
to the negative DC rail vT(ωt) (clearly labeled in your solution for question 2(a)) and
the voltage across the resistor VR(ωt).
(c) Determine a time varying expression for the inductor current as a function of angular
time (ωt). Show all calculations and steps.
(d) Propose a modification to the rectifier topology of question 2(a) that will ensure con-
tinuous conduction for the specified assigned parameters. Draw the complete
circuit diagram for this modified rectifier. Ensure that you clearly label all circuit
elements, including all sources, the switching devices and all passive elements.
(e) Confirm the operation of your proposed circuit configuration in question 2(d), by
sketching waveforms over two complete AC cycles showing the source voltage vs(ωt),
the rectified voltage developed across the series resistor and inductor load combination
vdc(ωt), the inductor current i(ωt), and the voltage across the resistor VR(ωt)
a) Circuit diagram: Single-phase full-wave thyristor rectifier bridge with AC source, series resistor, and inductor.
b) Waveforms: Source voltage, rectified voltage, inductor current, thyristor voltage, and resistor voltage.
c) Inductor current expression: Piecewise function based on firing angle and AC voltage waveform.
d) Modified rectifier topology: Addition of a freewheeling diode in parallel with the inductor.
e) Waveforms for modified rectifier: Source voltage, rectified voltage, inductor current, and resistor voltage.
a) The circuit diagram consists of a single-phase full-wave thyristor rectifier bridge connected to a 250Vrms 50Hz AC source, a 5Ω series resistor, and a 3.2mH inductor. The circuit includes the switching devices (thyristors), the AC source, the series resistor, and the inductor.
b) The waveforms over two complete AC cycles show the source voltage (Vs(ωt)), the rectified voltage across the series resistor and inductor (Vdc(ωt)), the inductor current (i(ωt)), the voltage across one of the thyristors connected to the negative DC rail (VT(ωt)), and the voltage across the resistor (VR(ωt)).
c) The time-varying expression for the inductor current as a function of angular time (ωt) can be determined using the equations for inductor current in a thyristor rectifier circuit. The calculations involve determining the conduction intervals based on the firing angle α and the AC voltage waveform. The expression for the inductor current will involve piecewise functions to represent different intervals of conduction.
d) To ensure continuous conduction, a modification can be made by adding a freewheeling diode in parallel with the inductor. This modified rectifier topology allows the current to flow through the freewheeling diode during the non-conducting intervals of the thyristors. The circuit diagram for the modified rectifier includes the additional freewheeling diode connected in parallel with the inductor.
e) The operation of the proposed modified rectifier configuration is confirmed by sketching waveforms over two complete AC cycles. The waveforms include the source voltage (Vs(ωt)), the rectified voltage across the series resistor and inductor (Vdc(ωt)), the inductor current (i(ωt)), and the voltage across the resistor (VR(ωt)). The addition of the freewheeling diode allows for continuous conduction, eliminating any gaps in the current waveform and improving the rectifier's performance.
To learn more about rectified voltage, here
https://brainly.com/question/31712802
#SPJ4
Water is pumped up to a water tower, which is 92.0m high. The flow rate up to the top of the tower is 75.0 L/s and each liter of water has a mass of 1.00 kg. What power is required to keep up this flow rate to the tower? (pls explain steps!)
The power required is 66.09 kW for maintaining a flow rate of 75.0 L/s to a water tower that stands 92.0m high, the steps for calculation will be explained.
The power required to maintain the flow rate to the water tower can be determined by considering the amount of work needed to lift the water against gravity.
First, we need to find the mass of water being pumped per second. Since each litre of water has a mass of 1.00 kg, the mass of water per second would be:
75.0 kg/s (75.0 L/s * 1.00 kg/L).
Next, calculate the work done to lift the water. The work done is given by the formula:
W = mgh,
where m is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²), and h is the height of the tower.
Plugging in the values,
[tex]W = (75.0 kg/s) * (9.8 m/s^2) * (92.0 m)[/tex]
= 66,090 J/s (or 66.09 kW).
Therefore, the power required to maintain the flow rate of 75.0 L/s to the tower is approximately 66.09 kW. This power is needed to overcome the gravitational force and lift the water to the height of the tower.
Learn more about gravitational force here:
https://brainly.com/question/32609171
#SPJ11
Which of the following functions are in the Hilbert space with indicated interval? (a) f(x) = eᶦπˣ, -1≤x≤1 (b) f(x) = e⁻ˣ, x ≥0
(c) f(x) = x⁻¹/⁴, 0 ≤x≤1 (d) f(x) = cos(x), -π ≤ x ≤ π (e) f(x) = 1/(1+ ix), - [infinity] < x < [infinity] (f) f(x) = x⁻¹/², 0 ≤x≤1
All the given functions that are
(a) f(x) = eᶦπˣ, -1≤x≤1
(b) f(x) = e⁻ˣ, x ≥0
(c) f(x) = x⁻¹/⁴, 0 ≤x≤1
(d) f(x) = cos(x), -π ≤ x ≤ π
(e) f(x) = 1/(1+ ix), - [infinity] < x < [infinity] (f) f(x) = x⁻¹/², 0 ≤x≤1 belong to the Hilbert space with the indicated interval.
A function is said to be in the Hilbert space with a given interval when it satisfies the requirements for Hilbert spaces. The terms Hilbert space, interval, and functions will be explained first.
A Hilbert space is an infinite-dimensional vector space that is equipped with an inner product, a scalar product. The space is complete and satisfies a certain set of properties, which include an orthonormal basis.
An interval is the set of all real numbers between two endpoints. It can be closed, such as [a, b], which includes the endpoints, or open, such as (a, b), which excludes them.
A half-open interval is one that includes one endpoint but excludes the other. For example, [a, b) and (a, b] are half-open intervals, while (a, b) is an open interval.
A function is a relationship between two sets of values. It is a rule or mapping that assigns one input value to one output value. In mathematics, a function is represented by f(x).
f(x) = eᶦπˣ, -1≤x≤1: It is in the Hilbert space.
f(x) = e⁻ˣ, x ≥0: It is in the Hilbert space.
f(x) = x⁻¹/⁴, 0 ≤x≤1: It is in the Hilbert space.
f(x) = cos(x), -π ≤ x ≤ π: It is in the Hilbert space.
f(x) = 1/(1+ ix), - [infinity] < x < [infinity]: It is in the Hilbert space.
f(x) = x⁻¹/², 0 ≤x≤1:It is in the Hilbert space.
All the given functions belong to the Hilbert space with the indicated interval.
Learn more about functions https://brainly.com/question/11624077
#SPJ11
Two spaceships are moving away from Earth in opposite directions, one at 0.83*c, and one at 0.83*c (as viewed from Earth). How fast does each spaceship measure the other one going? (please answer in *c).
The first spaceship heads to a planet 10 light years from Earth. Observers on Earth thus see the trip taking 12.04819 years. How long do people aboard the first spaceship measure the trip? (please answer in years)
The speed at which each spaceship measures the other one moving can be calculated using the relativistic velocity addition formula. The duration of the trip as measured by people aboard the first spaceship can be determined using time dilation formula.
According to special relativity, the relativistic velocity addition formula states that the velocity of one object as measured by another object is given by v' = (v + u) / (1 + vu/c^2), where v is the velocity of the object being measured, u is the velocity of the observer, and c is the speed of light.
For the first spaceship, its velocity as measured by observers on Earth is 0.83*c. Using the relativistic velocity addition formula, we can calculate the velocity at which the first spaceship measures the second spaceship. Plugging in v = 0.83*c and u = 0.83*c, we get v' = (0.83*c + 0.83*c) / (1 + 0.83*0.83) = 1.27*c. Similarly, the velocity at which the second spaceship measures the first spaceship can be calculated as 1.27*c.
Regarding the duration of the trip, time dilation occurs when an object is moving relative to an observer. The time dilation formula states that the dilated time (T') is related to the proper time (T) by T' = T / √(1 - v^2/c^2), where v is the velocity of the moving object and c is the speed of light.
In this case, the trip from Earth to the planet takes 12.04819 years as measured by observers on Earth (proper time). To find the duration of the trip as measured by people aboard the first spaceship, we can use the time dilation formula. Plugging in T = 12.04819 years and v = 0.83*c, we can calculate T', which represents the time measured by people aboard the first spaceship.
Learn more about spaceship here:
https://brainly.com/question/14198872
#SPJ11
An object having weight of 200 lbs rest on a rough level plane. The coefficient of friction is 0.50, what horizontal push will cause the object to move? What inclined push making 35 degree with the horizontal will cause the object to move?
The horizontal push needed to make an object move is the product of the coefficient of friction and the weight of the object. The weight of the object is 200 lbs.
So, Horizontal push = Coefficient of friction × weight of the object= 0.50 × 200 = 100 lbs.
The horizontal push needed to make the object move is 100 lbs. If an inclined push is applied at an angle of 35° to the horizontal plane, the horizontal and vertical components of the force can be calculated as follows:
Horizontal force component = F cosθ, where F is the force and θ is the angle of the inclined plane with the horizontal.
Vertical force component = F sinθ.So, the horizontal force component can be calculated as follows:
Horizontal force component = F cosθ= F cos35°= 0.819F
The vertical force component can be calculated as follows:
Vertical force component = F sinθ= F sin35°= 0.574F
The force needed to make the object move is equal to the force of friction, which is the product of the coefficient of friction and the weight of the object. The weight of the object is 200 lbs.
So, Force of friction = Coefficient of friction × weight of the object
= 0.50 × 200 = 100 lbs
The force needed to make the object move is 100 lbs. Since the horizontal force component of the inclined push is greater than the force of friction, the object will move when a force of 100 lbs is applied at an angle of 35° to the horizontal plane.
Learn more about coefficient of friction here
https://brainly.com/question/14121363
#SPJ11
rotate about the z axis and is placed in a region with a uniform magnetic field given by B
=1.45 j
^
. (a) What is the magnitude of the magnetic torque on the coil? N⋅m (b) In what direction will the coil rotate? clockwise as seen from the +z axis counterclockwise as seen from the +z axis
(a) The magnitude of the magnetic torque on the coil is `0.0725 N·m`.
Given, B= 1.45 j ^T= 0.5 seconds, I= 4.7, AmpereN = 200 turn
sr = 0.28 meter
Let's use the formula for the torque on the coil to find the magnetic torque on the coil:τ = NIABsinθ
where,N = a number of turns = 200 turns
I = current = 4.7 AB = magnetic field = 1.45 j ^A = area = πr^2 = π(0.28)^2 = 0.2463 m^2θ = angle between the magnetic field and normal to the coil.
Here, the coil is perpendicular to the z-axis, so the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the coil is 90 degrees.
Thus,τ = NIABsin(θ) = (200)(4.7)(1.45)(0.2463)sin(90)≈0.0725 N·m(b) The coil will rotate counterclockwise as seen from the +z axis.
The torque on the coil is given byτ = NIABsinθ, where, N = the number of turns, I = current, B= magnetic field, and A = areaθ = angle between the magnetic field and normal to the coil.
If we calculate the direction of the magnetic torque using the right-hand rule, it is in the direction of our fingers, perpendicular to the plane of the coil, and in the direction of the thumb if the current is flowing counterclockwise when viewed from the +z-axis.
The torque is exerting a counterclockwise force on the coil. Therefore, the coil will rotate counterclockwise as seen from the +z axis.
To learn about torque here:
https://brainly.com/question/17512177
#SPJ11
A wire 0.15 m long carrying a current of 2.5 A is perpendicular to a magnetic field. If the force exerted on the wire is 0.060 N, what is the magnitude of the magnetic field? Select one: a. 6.3 T b. 16 T c. 2.4 T d. 0.16 T
Answer: option (d) The magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.16 T.
The force on a current-carrying conductor is proportional to the current, length of the conductor, and magnetic field strength.
Force on a current-carrying conductor formula is given by; F = BIL sin θ WhereF is the force on the conductor B is the magnetic field strength, L is the length of the conductor, I is the current in the conductor, θ is the angle between the direction of current and magnetic field.
Length of wire, L = 0.15 m
Current, I = 2.5 A
Force, F = 0.060 N
Using the force on a current-carrying conductor formula above, we can calculate the magnetic field strength
B = F / IL sin θ
The angle between the direction of current and magnetic field is 90°. So, sin θ = 1, Substituting values;
B = 0.060 / 2.5 × 0.15 × 1B
= 0.16 T,
Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.16 T.
Answer: d. 0.16 T.
Learn more about magnetic field: https://brainly.com/question/14411049
#SPJ11
Tuning fork A has a frequency of 440 Hz. When A and a second tuning fork B are struck simultaneously, 7 beats per second are heard. When a small mass is added to one of the tines of B, the two forks struck simultaneously produce 9 beats per second. The original frequency of tuning fork B was A) 447 Hz B) 456 Hz C) 472 Hz D) 433 Hz E) 424 Hz
Tuning fork A has a frequency of 440 Hz. When A and a second tuning fork B are struck simultaneously, 7 beats per second are heard. The beat frequency between two tuning forks is equal to the difference in their frequencies. the original frequency of tuning fork B is 433 Hz (option D).
Let's assume the original frequency of tuning fork B is fB. When the two tuning forks are struck simultaneously, 7 beats per second are heard. This means the beat frequency is 7 Hz. So, the difference between the frequencies of the two forks is 7 Hz:
|fA - fB| = 7 Hz
Now, when a small mass is added to one of the tines of tuning fork B, the beat frequency becomes 9 Hz. This implies that the new frequency difference between the forks is 9 Hz:
|fA - (fB + Δf)| = 9 Hz
Subtracting the two equations, we get:
|fB + Δf - fB| = 9 Hz - 7 Hz
|Δf| = 2 Hz
Since Δf represents the change in frequency caused by adding the mass, we know that Δf = fB - fB_original.
Substituting the values, we have:
|fB - fB_original| = 2 Hz
Now, we need to examine the answer choices to find the original frequency of tuning fork B. Looking at the options, we can see that D) 433 Hz satisfies the equation:
|fB - 433 Hz| = 2 Hz
Therefore, the original frequency of tuning fork B is 433 Hz (option D).
Learn more about tuning fork here:
https://brainly.com/question/30442128
#SPJ11
A separate excited motor with PN 18kW UN 220V, IN-94A, n№=1000rpm, Ra=0.150, calculate: (a) Rated electromagnetic torque TN (b) No-load torque To (c) Theoretically no-load speed no (d) Practical no-load speed no (e) Direct start current Istart
(a) The value of the rated electromagnetic torque TN is 0.17 N.m.
(b) The value of the No-load torque is 3.29 N.m.
(c) The value of the theoretically no-load speed is 411.8 V.
(d) The value of the practical no-load speed is 410.8 V.
(e) The value of the direct start current, is 470 A.
What is the value of Rated electromagnetic torque TN?(a) The value of the rated electromagnetic torque TN is calculated as follows;
TN = (PN × 60) / (2π × Nn)
where;
PN is the rated power = 18 kW.Nn is the rated speed = 1000 rpmTN = ( 18 x 60 ) / (2π x 1000 )
TN = 0.17 N.m
(b) The value of the No-load torque is calculated as;
To = (UN × IN) / (2π × Nn)
where;
IN is the rated current = 94AUN is the rated voltage = 220VTo = (UN × IN) / (2π × Nn)
To = (220 x 94 ) / ((2π x 1000 )
To = 3.29 N.m
(c) The value of the theoretically no-load speed is calculated as;
no = (UN - (Ra × IN)) / K
where;
Ra is the armature resistance = 0.15 ΩK is a constant = 0.5, assumed.no = ( 220 - (0.15 x 94) / (0.5)
no = 411.8 V
(d) The value of the practical no-load speed is calculated as;
no = (UN - (Ra × IN) - (To × Ra)) / K
no = (220 - (0.15 x 94) - (3.29 x 0.15) ) / 0.5
no = 410.8 V
(e) The value of the direct start current, is calculated as;
Istart = 5 × IN
Istart = 5 x 94 A
Istart = 470 A
Learn more about No-load torque here: https://brainly.com/question/31324009
#SPJ4
What is the terminal velocity of a ball if:
Earth (g=9.8 m/s2)
Glycerine (Viscous Liquid)
Jar Diameter: 7.0 cm
Ball Diamater: 7.0 mm
Distabce between point A and B =60 cm
Density of the Liquid= 1260 (o) kg/m3
Density of the Glass Ball= 2600 (p) Kg/m
Time: 19 mins 772 seconds
The terminal velocity of the ball is 0.000242 m/s. An item falling through a fluid at its greatest speed is said to have reached its terminal velocity. When the combined drag and buoyancy forces are equal to the force of gravity pulling the item downward, it is seen.
Earth (g=9.8 m/s2)Glycerine (Viscous Liquid) Jar Diameter: 7.0 cm, Ball Diameter: 7.0 mm Distabce between point A and B =60 cmDensity of the Liquid= 1260 (o) kg/m3 Density of the Glass Ball= 2600 (p) Kg/mTime: 19 mins 772 seconds. The formula to calculate the terminal velocity of an object is given byvt = [(2mg)/(ρACd)]^0.5
where,vt = Terminal Velocitym = mass of the objectρ = density of the fluidA = projected area of the objectCd = Drag coefficientg = acceleration due to gravity, When the object reaches its terminal velocity, the net force on the object becomes zero, and it moves with a constant speed. Here, the acceleration of the ball is zero when the ball reaches terminal velocity.
So, the net force acting on the ball is zero.Therefore, the forces acting on the ball are:Weight = mgBuoyant Force = ρgV SubmergedArchimedes' principle states that any object wholly or partially submerged in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal in magnitude to the weight of the fluid displaced
by the object.m = (4/3)πr³p = (4/3)π(0.35×10⁻²)³×2600 = 0.005 kg
Volume of the submerged ball, Vsub = (4/3)πr³ = (4/3)π(0.35×10⁻²)³ = 1.179×10⁻⁵ m³Density of the glycerine, ρ = 1260 kg/m³Weight of the ball, W = mg = 0.005×9.8 = 0.049 NThe buoyant force acting on the ball is given byB = ρgVsubmerged = 1260×9.8×1.179×10⁻⁵ = 0.015 NThe net force on the ball is F = B - W = 0.015 - 0.049 = -0.034 NAs the ball is moving upwards, the direction of the net force is upwards, so it opposes the motion of the ball. Hence, the acceleration of the ball is negative, and the speed of the ball decreases.After a certain time, the speed of the ball becomes zero, which is the terminal velocity of the ball. This happens when the net force on the ball becomes zero, that is when the weight of the ball is equal to the buoyant force acting on it. Hence,W = B0.049 = 0.015We know that terminal velocity, vt = [(2mg)/(ρACd)]^0.5As the ball is moving upwards, the direction of the net force is upwards, so it opposes the motion of the ball. Hence, acceleration of the ball is negative and the speed of the ball decreases till the terminal velocity is reached.Let's assume that the ball reaches its terminal velocity v, and its cross-sectional area is A.
Then, the weight of the ball
mg = W = ρliquid × Vsubmerged × g + ρball × Vball × g.0.005×9.8 = 1260 × 9.8×1.179 × 10⁻⁵ × g + 2600 × (4/3)π(0.35×10⁻²)³/8×g.= 0.015×g + 0.0028×g= 0.0178×gg = 0.005/0.0178 = 0.281 kg/m³The value of drag coefficient depends on the shape of the object, the viscosity of the fluid, and the roughness of the surface of the object. For a smooth sphere in a viscous fluid, the value of Cd is around 0.47.
Hence,Cd = 0.47vt = [(2mg)/(ρACd)]^0.5= [(2×0.005×0.281×9.8)/(1260×π(0.35×10⁻²)²×0.47)]^0.5= 0.000242 m/s.
To know more about terminal velocity
https://brainly.com/question/2654450
#SPJ11