Ligand gated ion channels and g-protines are both examples of:
a. RNA helicases
b. post synaptic receptors
c. neurotransmitters d. hnRNP

Answers

Answer 1

Ligand gated ion channels and G-proteins are both examples of post synaptic receptors.

Post synaptic receptors are proteins that are found on the surface of a neuron's cell membrane and are responsible for receiving and responding to chemical signals, such as neurotransmitters, from other neurons. Ligand gated ion channels are a type of post synaptic receptor that open or close in response to the binding of a specific ligand, allowing ions to flow in or out of the cell. G-proteins, on the other hand, are a type of post synaptic receptor that activate or inhibit other proteins within the cell in response to the binding of a specific ligand. Both of these types of post synaptic receptors play important roles in the transmission of signals between neurons. Neurotransmitter receptors in postsynaptic cells receive signals that cause an electrical signal to be generated by controlling the activity of ion channels. The membrane potential of a neuron can be altered by the inflow of ions through ion channels that are opened as a result of the binding of particular neurotransmitters to receptors.

A membrane receptor protein that is triggered by a neurotransmitter is referred to as a neurotransmitter receptor (also known as a neuroreceptor). The cell membrane, which contains receptors, can be contacted by chemicals on the cell's exterior, such as a neurotransmitter. When a neurotransmitter interacts with its appropriate receptor, they will bind and may cause additional cellular activities. Hence, a membrane receptor is a component of the molecular machinery that enables cell communication. A class of receptors known as neurotransmitter receptors only bind neurotransmitters and not other substances.

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Related Questions

In the protein adenylate kinase, the c-terminal region is a -helical, with the sequence val- asp-asp- val- phe-ser- gln- val- cys- thr- his- leu- aspthr- leu-lys- the hydrophobic,residues in this sequence are presented in boldface type. Suggest a possible reason for the periodicity in their spacing

Answers

The periodicity of the hydrophobic residues in the c-terminal region of the protein adenylate kinase allows for the formation of a stable alpha helix structure, which is important for the stability and function of the protein.

The protein adenylate kinase has a c-terminal region that is a-helical with a specific sequence of amino acids. The hydrophobic residues in this sequence are spaced periodically and are presented in boldface type. The possible reason for this periodicity in spacing is to allow for the formation of a stable alpha helix structure.

An alpha helix is a common secondary structure in proteins that is formed by the folding of the polypeptide chain into a right-handed helix. The periodicity of the hydrophobic residues allows for the formation of hydrophobic interactions between the side chains of the amino acids, which helps to stabilize the alpha helix structure.

These hydrophobic interactions are important for the stability of the protein and its overall function.

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A sample contains 400,000 DNA base pairs total. If 100,000 are adenine, how many are thymine?

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If a sample contains 400,000 DNA base pairs total and 100,000 are adenine, then there will be 100,000 thymine base pairs. This is because adenine and thymine always pair together in DNA.

In DNA, there are four different types of base pairs: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C). Adenine always pairs with thymine, and guanine always pairs with cytosine. This means that the number of adenine base pairs will always be equal to the number of thymine base pairs, and the number of guanine base pairs will always be equal to the number of cytosine base pairs.
Therefore, if there are 100,000 adenine base pairs in the sample, there will also be 100,000 thymine base pairs. The remaining 200,000 base pairs will be made up of guanine and cytosine.

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3. (6pts) What would the translation of these mRNA transcripts produce? (mRNA codon

anticodon

protein) a. UAA CAA GGA GCA UCC b. UGA CCC GAU UUC AGC

Answers

The translation of UAA CAA GGA GCA UCC will not produce any protein

The translation of UGA CCC GAU UUC AGC will also not produce any protein.

Translation of mRNA transcript

To translate the mRNA transcripts into protein, we need to use the genetic code to convert the mRNA codons into amino acids. Each mRNA codon corresponds to a specific amino acid, and the sequence of codons determines the sequence of amino acids in the protein.

UAA CAA GGA GCA UCC

The first codon, UAA, is a stop codon and does not code for an amino acid. Therefore, this mRNA transcript does not produce a protein.

UGA CCC GAU UUC AGC

UGA is also a stop codon and does not code for an amino acid.

Therefore, the two mRNA transcripts do not produce proteins.

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Where is the lesion for a:1) Blind patient with normal PLRs2) Visual patient with abnormal PLRs3) Blind patient with abnormal PLRs

Answers

The lesion for the following people are as follows: 1) The lesion for a blind patient with normal PLRs is in the optic nerve or the visual cortex.

The PLRs (pupillary light reflexes) are controlled by the oculomotor nerve and the pretectal area of the midbrain, so if they are normal, the lesion must be in the part of the visual pathway that is responsible for conscious vision.

2) The lesion for a visual patient with abnormal PLRs is in the oculomotor nerve or the pretectal area of the midbrain. These are the areas that control the PLRs, so if they are abnormal, the lesion must be in one of these areas.

3) The lesion for a blind patient with abnormal PLRs could be in multiple areas, including the optic nerve, visual cortex, oculomotor nerve, or pretectal area of the midbrain. It is difficult to determine the exact location of the lesion without further testing.

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Name two ways that the National Weather Service can inform the public of an incoming blizzard.

HURRY HURRY HURRY!!!

Answers

Answer:

The National Weather Service can inform the public of an incoming blizzard by issuing warnings on local television stations, and by using outdoor warning sirens.

Explanation:

By using these means, the National Weather Service can reach many people quickly to warn them of the incoming blizzard.

True or False. Give reasoning.
1. Low elevation cheatgrass shows a "drought recovery" strategy by being an annual plant.
2. Mid elecation incense cedar displays a drought avoidance strategy by shifting its P50 lower in dry sites to avoid embolism.

Answers

True. Low elevation cheatgrass shows a "drought recovery" strategy by being an annual plant. This is because annual plants, like cheatgrass, are able to complete their entire life cycle in one growing season, allowing them to reproduce and spread their seeds before drought conditions become too severe.

This allows the cheatgrass to recover from drought conditions more quickly than perennial plants, which have a longer life cycle and may not be able to reproduce before drought conditions become too severe.

False. Mid elecation incense cedar does not display a drought avoidance strategy by shifting its P50 lower in dry sites to avoid embolism. Instead, incense cedar displays a drought avoidance strategy by reducing its leaf area and closing its stomata during dry conditions.

This reduces the amount of water lost through transpiration and helps the plant conserve water during drought conditions. The P50 value, which is a measure of a plant's resistance to embolism, does not play a role in the incense cedar's drought avoidance strategy.

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How do Paramyxoviruses evade the innate immune system? List 4-5 immune modulation/evasion strategies found in the articles and the Viral Proteins that carry out the effects.

Answers

Paramyxoviruses are a type of RNA virus that can cause a variety of diseases in humans, including measles, mumps, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). These viruses have developed several strategies to evade the innate immune system and establish infection.

Immune modulation/evasion strategies

Four to five immune modulation/evasion strategies found in the articles and the viral proteins that carry out the effects are:

1. Inhibition of interferon signaling: Paramyxoviruses produce proteins such as V, C, and NS1 that can interfere with the signaling pathways of interferons, which are important for antiviral responses.

2. Suppression of apoptosis: Some paramyxoviruses, such as the measles virus, produce proteins that can inhibit the induction of apoptosis in infected cells. This allows the virus to continue replicating and avoid being eliminated by the immune system.

3. Inhibition of antigen presentation: Paramyxoviruses can also produce proteins that interfere with the presentation of viral antigens to immune cells, preventing the activation of the adaptive immune response.

4. Modulation of cytokine responses: Paramyxoviruses can produce proteins that can alter the production and activity of cytokines, which are important for coordinating immune responses.

5. Evasion of natural killer (NK) cells: Some paramyxoviruses, such as RSV, can produce proteins that can prevent the activation of NK cells, which are important for eliminating virus-infected cells.

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For testing a bacterium's response to an inhibitory substance,why would g (generation time) be useful information?

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The generation time (g) of a bacterium is the time required for it to divide and form two daughter cells. This is useful information when testing a bacterium's response to an inhibitory substance because it allows us to measure the effect of the substance on the bacterium's growth and reproduction.

If the inhibitory substance is effective, it will slow down or even stop the bacterium's growth and reproduction, leading to an increase in the generation time.

By comparing the generation time of the bacterium in the presence of the inhibitory substance to the generation time in the absence of the substance, we can determine the effectiveness of the inhibitory substance.

Therefore, the generation time (g) of a bacterium is useful information when testing its response to an inhibitory substance because it allows us to measure the effect of the substance on the bacterium's growth and reproduction.

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It is defined as the adverse effects as manifested in specific organs of the body
- Toxicity is unique for each organ. - Toxicity may be enhanced by distribution features that deliver a high concentration of toxicant to the organ.
- A single toxicant may have several target organs. - The highest concentration of the toxicant is always found in the target organ.

Answers

The question is asking about the effects of toxicity on specific organs of the body. Toxicity is unique to each organ, and the effects can be enhanced by distribution features that deliver a high concentration of toxicant to the target organ.

What is toxicity

Toxicity is defined as the adverse effects of a substance on specific organs of the body. Each organ has a unique response to toxicity, and the effects may be enhanced by the distribution of the toxicant to the organ.

Additionally, a single toxicant may have several target organs, and the highest concentration of the toxicant is always found in the target organ. This is important to consider when assessing the potential health risks of exposure to toxic substances.

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The species is blatella
Give details of the external anatomy, 2. Count the number of visible head, thoracic and abdominal segments. 3. Examine the mouthparts and suggest the kind of feeding habit the cockroaches are associated with 4. Examine the antennae and count the number of segments they have. What kind of antennae are they? 5. Examine and draw the different part of mouthparts associated with this insect (Mandible, Maxillae and Labium). How would you describe the dietary modification of mouthparts the roaches have? Suggest the diet of roaches based on their mouthparts. 6. Where are the spiracles located, and how are they distributed on the body? 7. How will you describe the orientation of the mouthpart plane of the mouthparts compared to the plane of the body? Is it prognathous, opisthognathous or hypognathous? 8. Examine the wings are they all alike? How are they different? What kind of wings do they have? 9. Examine the legs, how are they distributed? How many segments do they have? Are the legs biramous or uniramous? Based on the sizes, length of the different parts of legs, what kind legs are they? 10. Describe the terms biramous and uniramous. Give examples of insects/arthropods where they occur. Lab 5b. Internal Morphology of the Insect 1. Cut open on one pleural region of the specimen of cockroach (Blarella) provided. Lift the tergum up and flap it over such that the underlying surface faces upward. 2. Display the internal organs: Respiratory organs - Tracheal system and the spiracles

Answers

The external anatomy of cockroaches includes a flattened and elongated body with a tough exoskeleton.The blatella species has one visible head segment, three visible thoracic segments, and ten visible abdominal segments.Cockroaches are associated with a wide range of feeding habits.Cockroaches have filiform antennae.. The modification of their mouthparts suggests that cockroaches are omnivorous.The mouthparts of the cockroach are hypognathous.The spiracles of cockroaches are located along the sides of their body.The blatella species has tegmina and membranous wings.The legs of cockroaches are uniramous. Biramous legs have two branches, while uniramous legs have only one.

Characteristics of blatella

1. The external anatomy of the blatella species includes a head, thorax, and abdomen. The head contains the mouthparts, antennae, and compound eyes. The thorax contains the wings and legs, while the abdomen contains the spiracles, reproductive organs, and digestive system.
2. The blatella species has one visible head segment, three visible thoracic segments, and ten visible abdominal segments.
3. The mouthparts of the blatella species are adapted for chewing and grinding food. They have mandibles for crushing and grinding, maxillae for manipulating food, and a labium for holding food in place. This suggests that the cockroaches are associated with a generalist feeding habit, meaning they can eat a variety of foods.
4. The antennae of the blatella species have many segments, typically around 100-150. They are filiform antennae, meaning they are long and thin with segments of similar size and shape.
5. The mandibles of the blatella species are strong and adapted for crushing and grinding food. The maxillae are used for manipulating food and the labium is used for holding food in place. The dietary modification of the mouthparts suggests that the roaches have a generalist diet, meaning they can eat a variety of foods.
6. The spiracles are located on the sides of the abdomen and are distributed evenly along the length of the body. There are typically ten pairs of spiracles, one pair on each abdominal segment.
7. The mouthpart plane of the blatella species is hypognathous, meaning the mouthparts are directed downwards
8. The wings of the blatella species are not all alike. The front wings, or tegmina, are thicker and more rigid, while the hind wings are thinner and more flexible. The front wings are used for protection and the hind wings are used for flight. The blatella species has tegmina and membranous wings.
9. The legs of the blatella species are distributed evenly along the thorax, with one pair on each thoracic segment. Each leg has five segments and is uniramous, meaning it is not branched. The legs are cursorial, meaning they are adapted for running.
10. Biramous means that a structure, such as a leg, is branched. An example of an insect with biramous legs is the crayfish. Uniramous means that a structure is not branched. An example of an insect with uniramous legs is the cockroach.

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happens best in solid materials.
A) conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation

Answers

The answer is b) Conduction

When freezing mammalian cells to create a frozen cell stock, it is often necessary to freeze a high concentration of cells to overcome the large percentage of cell death that occurs during the freeze/thaw process. Based on the cell concentration determined in Q3A, design a cell freezing stratery that willachieve 1x10*cells/mlcell concentration in ml (assume you have 10ml of cell available)

Answers

When freezing mammalian cells to create a frozen cell stock, it is important to use a cryoprotectant such as DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide) or glycerol to prevent ice crystal formation and reduce cell death during the freeze/thaw process.

Additionally, it is important to freeze the cells slowly to allow for the gradual uptake of the cryoprotectant and prevent osmotic stress.

A cell freezing strategy that will achieve 1x10^6 cells/ml can be designed as follows:

Prepare a cryoprotectant solution, such as 10% DMSO in culture medium.Resuspend the cells at a concentration of 2x10^6 cells/ml in the cryoprotectant solution.Aliquot 5ml of the cell suspension into each of two cryovials.Place the cryovials in a controlled-rate freezing container, such as a Mr. Frosty, and transfer to a -80°C freezer for 24 hours.After 24 hours, transfer the cryovials to liquid nitrogen for long-term storage.

This strategy will result in a final cell concentration of 1x10^6 cells/ml after accounting for the expected cell death during the freeze/thaw process.

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Choose one of Gardner's intelligences to discuss. Then, do the following: 1. Briefly list and describe the intelligence. One sentence should be sufficient. 2. Explain, in a couple of sentences, an exaample of someone you know who excels in that intelligence and how you can tell they excel in that intelligence

Answers

Intrapersonal Intelligence is one of Gardner's intelligences. Intrapersonal intelligence is the ability to understand and manage one's emotions, and to have an awareness of one's strengths, weaknesses, and personal needs. This includes the capacity to set goals, identify and prioritize values, and have an understanding of one's personal identity.

An example of someone I know who excels in intrapersonal intelligence is my friend, Andrew. Andrew is incredibly self-aware and able to reflect on his own life, experiences, and emotions. He is always working towards personal goals, has a strong sense of self-confidence, and is able to remain calm and composed in challenging situations. He also has a clear vision of what he wants from life, and has the ability to set appropriate boundaries with the people in his life. All of these traits demonstrate his strong intrapersonal intelligence.

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______is the predominant form of precipitation and hence the term precipitation is used synonymously with rainfall. The magnitude of rainfall shows high temporal and spatial variation. This variation is responsible for the occurrence of Rain hydrologic extremes such as floods and droughts.

Answers

Rainfall is the predominant form of precipitation and hence the term precipitation is used synonymously with rainfall. The magnitude of rainfall shows high temporal and spatial variation. This variation is responsible for the occurrence of hydrologic extremes such as floods and droughts.

Rainfall is the most common form of precipitation and it occurs when water vapor in the atmosphere condenses and falls to the ground as liquid water. The amount of rainfall varies greatly depending on the location and time of year. Some areas may receive very little rainfall, while others may experience heavy rainfall events.
The variation in rainfall is responsible for the occurrence of hydrologic extremes such as floods and droughts. Floods occur when an area receives more rainfall than it can handle, causing water levels to rise and overflow onto land. Droughts occur when an area experiences a prolonged period of below-average rainfall, leading to a shortage of water for plants, animals, and humans.
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What type of inhibitor can disrupt cellular respiration?

Answers

Answer:

nitric oxide

Explanation:

Endogenously produced nitric oxide (NO) interacts with mitochondrial cytochrome c oxidase, leading to inhibition of cellular respiration. This interaction has been shown to have important physiological and pathophysiological consequences.

4A Part 1:1) What does H&E stand for and what does this stain tell you?2) What characteristics of tumours do pathologists take into account when determining tumour grade?3) What is the purpose of IHC?4) Describe in detail the steps involved in immunohistochemical staining for a specific antibody, and thereasoning behind each step.5) How is a specific protein visually detected by IHC? What methods can then be used to quantify this?6) What does TMA stand for and what are they useful for?7) What are the advantages in digitally scanning slides in comparison to classical microscopy?4A Part 2:8) What is a digital slide?9) Discuss issues with manual scoring of tissue sections and possible solutions.10) Discuss the prognostic and diagnostic implications of the following biomarkers: ER in breast cancer,HER2 in breast cancer, p53 in bladder cancer.

Answers

(1) H&E stands for Hematoxylin and Eosin. Hematoxylin stains acidic structures blue, Eosin stains cytoplasm and extracellular matrix pink.

(2) Pathologists take into account various characteristics of tumors, such as the degree of differentiation of the tumor cells, the growth pattern of the tumor, the presence of necrosis, and the extent of invasion into surrounding tissues, to determine tumor grade.

(3) The purpose of immunohistochemistry (IHC) is to identify specific proteins or other antigens in tissue samples using antibodies that bind to those targets.

(4) The steps involved in immunohistochemical staining for a specific antibody include fixing and embedding the tissue, cutting sections, antigen retrieval, blocking endogenous peroxidase activity, blocking non-specific binding, incubation with the primary antibody, incubation with a secondary antibody conjugated to a detection enzyme, and visualization using a chromogenic or fluorescent substrate. The rationale behind each step is to ensure proper antigen retrieval, minimize non-specific binding, and amplify the signal for visualization.

(5) A specific protein is visually detected by IHC using antibodies that recognize and bind to the target protein in the tissue section. To quantify the amount of protein present, various methods such as visual scoring, image analysis, or digital pathology software can be used.

(6) TMA stands for tissue microarray. TMAs are useful for studying the expression of specific proteins across large numbers of samples and for identifying biomarkers associated with disease.

(7) The advantages of digitally scanning slides compared to classical microscopy include the ability to view and analyze high-resolution images remotely, the ability to share and collaborate on images, etc.

(8) A digital slide is a high-resolution image of a tissue section that has been scanned and stored electronically.

(9) Manual scoring of tissue sections can be time-consuming and subject to inter-observer variability. To address these issues, various software programs have been developed that use image analysis algorithms to quantify staining intensity and distribution, providing more objective and reproducible results.

(10) The biomarkers ER and HER2 are important prognostic and diagnostic markers in breast cancer. ER is a hormone receptor that is expressed in approximately 70% of breast cancers and is associated with a more favorable prognosis.

H&E (Hematoxylin and Eosin) staining is a common method used in histology to visualize the cellular structure and tissue architecture of cancer cells. The staining helps to identify cancerous cells by highlighting their morphological and structural characteristics, such as nuclear abnormalities, irregular cell shape, and high mitotic activity.

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Discuss the use of serological methods for the detection and enumeration of microorganisms in food.

Answers

Serological methods are used for the detection and enumeration of microorganisms in food by using the specific reactions of antibodies to identify and quantify the presence of specific microorganisms. The most common serological methods used in food microbiology are enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and lateral flow immunoassay (LFI).

ELISA is a sensitive and specific method that uses an enzyme-linked antibody to detect the presence of a specific microorganism or toxin. The enzyme-linked antibody binds to the microorganism or toxin, and a color change indicates the presence of the target microorganism or toxin.


LFI is a rapid and easy-to-use method that uses a lateral flow strip to detect the presence of a specific microorganism or toxin. The strip contains a specific antibody that binds to the target microorganism or toxin, and a color change indicates the presence of the target microorganism or toxin.


Both ELISA and LFI are widely used in the food industry for the detection and enumeration of microorganisms in food, and they are important tools for ensuring the safety and quality of food products.

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How have contemporary biotechnology changed the way that humans genetically modify organisms?

Answers

GMO foods are just as wholesome and secure to consume as their non-GMO equivalents. In fact, several Transgenic plants have undergone modifications to increase their nutritional worth.

How is genetic modification aided by biotechnology?

Genetically engineered organisms (GMOs) Gene engineering is a crucial component of contemporary biotechnology that is used, among other things, to give bacteria, plants, and animals new traits. This can be accomplished by introducing a gene from, say, a bacteria, into a plant or an animal (transgenes).

What ways does biotechnology enhance human life?

To tackle crippling and uncommon diseases, lessen our environmental impact, feed the needy, use less and cleaner energy, and have safer, cleaner, and more effective industrial manufacturing processes, modern biotechnology offers ground-breaking goods and technologies.

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A cell with 5% potassium is placed in a 2% potassium solution the membrane is permeable to the solvent. Answer the following questions What type of transport is taking place? Which way will the solvent move? The cell is ____ to the solution hypotonic

Answers

The process taking place is osmosis, which is a passive transport mechanism that allows the solvent (in this case, water) to move across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

Since the 2% potassium solution has a lower concentration of solutes compared to the 5% potassium solution inside the cell, water will move from the 2% potassium solution into the cell to equalize the concentration. Therefore, the solvent will move from the 2% potassium solution into the cell.

As a result of water moving into the cell, the cell will become hypotonic (i.e., having a lower concentration of solutes) compared to the 2% potassium solution. This is because the concentration of potassium inside the cell remains unchanged, while the volume of the cell increases due to the influx of water.

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A rapidly growing hyaline mold began as a white colony, but became dark green with prolonged incubation. The reverse of the colony was white. Microscopically, septate hyphae, flask-shaped phialides with clumps of conidia at the tips of the phialides were seen. What is the most likely identification?
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Gliocladium spp.
c. Paecilomyces spp.
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

Answers

The most likely identification of the rapidly growing hyaline mold is d. Aspergillus fumigatus. This mold is known for its distinctive dark green color on the front and white color on the reverse of the colony. It also has septate hyphae and flask-shaped phialides with clumps of conidia at the tips, which match the description given in the question. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

A form of filamentous fungus known as hyaline mold, often referred to as aseptate mould or non-septate mold, is devoid of the characteristic septa or crosswalls that are present in the majority of other molds. As a result, the hyphae of these fungi create lengthy, continuous, and branching structures rather than discrete compartments.

In addition to soil, water, and decomposing organic waste, hyaline moulds can also be found in other habitats. Some hyaline mould species are known to infect people, especially those with compromised immune systems. The majority of hyaline molds, however, are not hazardous and are crucial to the breakdown of organic waste and the cycling of nutrients in ecosystems.

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Summarize how chemical energy is formed from light energy during photosynthesis.

Answers

A photochemically activated unique chlorophyll molecule of the photosynthetic reaction center loses an electron during an oxidation reaction, converting light energy into chemical energy.

What is photosynthetic reaction?Plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) from the soil and atmosphere during photosynthesis. Water is oxidized, which means it loses electrons within the plant cell, whereas carbon dioxide is reduced, which means it receives electrons. As a result, the water is converted to oxygen and the carbon dioxide to glucose. Using water and carbon dioxide, photosynthesis converts solar energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. As a byproduct, oxygen is released.In the presence of sunshine, photosynthesis is a series of chemical reactions that transform carbon dioxide and water into glucose (sugar) and oxygen. An endothermic reaction is photosynthesis. This implies that it requires energy to happen (from the Sun).

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Describe the major technical advances and important discoveries
in the early development of virology. Why might virology have
developed much more slowly without the use of Chamberland’s
filter?

Answers

The early development of virology was marked by several technical advances and important discoveries. One of the most important was the development of the Chamberland filter, which allowed scientists to separate viruses from bacteria and other larger organisms.

Other important advances were the development of the electron microscope, which allowed scientists to view viruses at a much higher resolution and to study virus structure and behavior in more detail, the identification of the first human virus, the yellow fever virus, and the discovery of the poliovirus.

Without the use of the Chamberland filter, the field of virology may have developed much more slowly because this tool allowed the separation of viruses from other organisms which facilitated their study and the development of treatments and vaccines.

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What is the evolutionary significance of paralogous genes?

Answers

Paralogous genes have evolutionary significance as they can provide the source material for new proteins and pathways, allowing organisms to adapt to their environment.

Paralogous genes are genes that have been duplicated within a genome through a gene duplication event. There are some general evolutionary significances of paralogous genes that are worth considering.

One of the primary evolutionary significances of paralogous genes is that they allow for the evolution of new gene functions. When a gene is duplicated, there are now two copies of that gene in the genome.

Another significance of paralogous genes is that they can provide a buffer against deleterious mutations. When there are two copies of a gene in the genome, one copy can take on a new function or role, while the other copy can continue to perform the original function.

Finally, paralogous genes can provide a source of genetic diversity that can help organisms adapt to new environments or challenges. When there are multiple copies of a gene in the genome, there are more opportunities for mutations to occur and for new genetic material to be created.

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Select the mRNA that could be translated to synthesize a short peptide of five amino acids?
Option 1: 5'-GUAGCGUUAUGGCGUUGCGUAGUUAAGCUACGGU-'3
Option 2: 5'-CGAUGCUAGUGCCAUGUGAUCGUUUAUGCUCGAC-3'
Option 3: 5'-AUGCGUCGUAGCUUAUCGUCUCGUGAUGCUGAUC-3'
Option 4: 5'-GCCGUAUAUGCGCUAUACGCCUUUAACGCGAUUA-3'

Answers

The mRNA that could be translated to synthesize a short peptide of five amino acids is  5'-AUGCGUCGUAGCUUAUCGUCUCGUGAUGCUGAUC-3'. (3)

This mRNA sequence contains the start codon AUG, which signals the start of translation, and is followed by four more codons that code for amino acids.

The sequence also contains a stop codon UGA, which signals the end of translation. Therefore, this mRNA sequence could be translated to synthesize a short peptide of five amino acids.

To summarize, the correct answer is:
Option 3: 5'-AUGCGUCGUAGCUUAUCGUCUCGUGAUGCUGAUC-3'

This mRNA sequence contains the start codon AUG, followed by four more codons that code for amino acids, and ends with a stop codon UGA. Therefore, it could be translated to synthesize a short peptide of five amino acids.

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Which process involves joining amino acids together into a polypeptide?

-meiosis
-replication
-translation
-transcription

Answers

The translation is the process of combining amino acids to form polypeptides.

What is translation?The translation is the process by which a certain sequence of amino acids to create a polypeptide chain is synthesized using the genetic information stored in messenger RNA (mRNA). Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules help with this process on ribosomes by bringing certain amino acids to the ribosome and assisting in their assembly into the correct sequence in accordance with the mRNA code.Where does translation occur?On ribosomes, in the cytoplasm of the cell, translation takes place. The genetic code is used by the ribosome during the 5' to 3' reading of the mRNA molecule to identify the order of amino acids that will make up the protein. Each codon on the mRNA is subsequently matched by the ribosome with the associated tRNA carrying the appropriate amino acid. A polypeptide chain is created as the ribosome advances along the mRNA by creating peptide bonds between the amino acids. This procedure goes on until the ribosome encounters a stop codon on the messenger RNA (mRNA), which marks the completion of translation and releases the finished polypeptide chain.

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if we start with 1000 atoms of iodine - 131 , how much will it take to decay to 125 atoms?

Answers

The time taken for 1000 atoms of iodine-131 to decay to 125 atoms is 16 days

How do i determine the time taken to decay?

First, we shall determine the number of half lives that has elapsed. This is obtained as follow:

Original amount (N₀) = 1000Amount remaining (N) = 125Number of half-lives (n) =?

2ⁿ = N₀ / N

2ⁿ = 1000 / 125

2ⁿ = 8

2ⁿ = 2³

n = 3

Finally, we shall determine the time taken for the 1000 atoms of iodine-131 to decay to 125 atoms. Details below

Half-life of iodine-131 (t½) = 8 daysNumber of half-lives (n) = 2 Time taken (t) =?

n = t / t½

Cross multiply

t = n × t½

t = 2 × 8

t = 16 days

Thus, the time taken is 16 days

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Select all of the statements that are true about the experiments that transplanted ferret cortical neural progenitors isolated from different developmental stages into host brains of different ages. Group of answer choices
Progenitors isolated from younger brains cannot "fate switch" to older neuronal types
The fate of all cortical progenitors is intrinsically determined
Progenitors isolated from older brains cannot "fate switch" to younger neuronal types
Progenitors show increased fate restriction over time
Progenitors isolated from older brains can "fate switch" to younger neuronal types
Progenitors isolated from younger brains can "fate switch" to older neuronal types

Answers

The correct statements about the experiments that transplanted ferret cortical neural progenitors isolated from different developmental stages into host brains of different ages are; Progenitors show increased fate restriction over time and Progenitors isolated from younger brains can "fate switch" to older neuronal types.

The experiments conducted on ferret cortical neural progenitors showed that the fate of these cells is not intrinsically determined, but rather is influenced by the environment in which they are transplanted. Progenitors isolated from younger brains were able to "fate switch" to older neuronal types when transplanted into older host brains, while progenitors isolated from older brains were not able to "fate switch" to younger neuronal types when transplanted into younger host brains. This suggests that progenitors show increased fate restriction over time, meaning that they become more committed to a specific cell fate as they age.

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I have a pet pigeon that I think can do math. When I ask it any mathematical question, it will peck on a surface, giving the correct answer as the number of pecks. Assuming my pigeon is not a mathematical genius, what is a simpler hypothesis for this behavior?

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A simpler hypothesis for this behavior is that your pet pigeon has been trained to peck a certain number of times in response to specific cues or commands.

This is a common technique used in animal training, where animals are taught to associate certain behaviors with specific rewards. It is possible that your pigeon has learned to associate certain questions or commands with a specific number of pecks, and is simply responding to these cues rather than actually doing math. This would be a more parsimonious explanation for your pigeon's behavior, as it does not require the assumption that your pigeon has exceptional mathematical abilities.

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How do scientists construct a recombinant DNA molecules?
By combining the protein from two different organisms
by combining the DNA of two different organisms
by combining the RNA of two different organisms
by using RNA from plants

Answers

Answer:

by combining the DNA of two different organisms

Explanation:

True or False:
1. Cancer Stem Cells adhere to the stem cell model by self-renewing
and simultaneously generating progenitors that have lost their
stemness.
2. The frequency of Cancer stem cells can be

Answers

1- The given statement "Cancer Stem Cells adhere to the stem cell model by self-renewing and simultaneously generating progenitors that have lost their stemness." is true because cancer Stem Cells do adhere to the stem cell model by self-renewing and simultaneously generating progenitors that have lost their stemness. This is one of the defining characteristics of Cancer Stem Cells.


2- The given statement "The frequency of Cancer stem cells can be determined easily" is false because the frequency of Cancer stem cells cannot be easily determined.  This is because Cancer Stem Cells are rare and difficult to isolate. Additionally, there is no universal marker for Cancer Stem Cells, so it is difficult to accurately measure their frequency.

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