Let a, b, and c be real numbers where a . b*C+0. Which of the following functions could represent the graph
below?
ASAP PLS

Answer: I think the answer is 0.625 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:in the picture

Your answer should be 724 cents, in dollars that is $7.24

Step-by-step explanation:

from the cents is shoes be 724 and the dollars souls be $7.24

When a force of 270N is applied, the spring stretch by 7.5cm

Two variables are said to be directly proportional if as one variable increases/decreases, the other variables does the same by the same amount.

Let F represent the force and x represent the extension, hence:

F ∝ x

F = kx; k is the constant of proportionality

When F = 180, x = 5, hence:

180 = 5k

k = 36

F = 36x

When F = 270:

270 = 36x

x = 7.5 cm

When a force of 270N is applied, the spring stretch by 7.5cm

Find out more at: https://brainly.com/question/13977805

Answer:

1.1

Step-by-step explanation:

slope = (-4-7)/(-6-4)= -11/-10 = 1.1

Answer:

(-4.5, 2.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution for two graphed linear equations is the intersection (The point where two lines meet or cross).

Answer:

MARK ME AS BRAINLIEST !!

Step-by-step explanation:

44640

Answer:

31 days =

44640 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Welcome

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that:

a) 0.1271 = 12.71% probability of obtaining at least three defects in the sample, if the entire shipment has 5% defectives. 5% defective is between 1 and 2 defects, but since this probability is more than the unlikely threshold 5%, more than 2 defects could still mean that Intel has provided a shipment which is consistent with the contract.

b) The mean is of 1.25 defective chips and the standard deviation is of 1.09 defective chips.

c) 0.8908 = 89.08% probability that more than 17 chips in the sample are good.

For each chip, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a chip being defective is independent of any other chip, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

In this problem:

Item a:

Supposing 5% defective, we have that [tex]p = 0.05[/tex].

The probability is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

Then

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{25,0}.(0.05)^{0}.(0.95)^{25} = 0.2774[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{25,1}.(0.05)^{1}.(0.95)^{24} = 0.3650[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{25,2}.(0.05)^{2}.(0.95)^{23} = 0.2305[/tex]

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.2774 + 0.3650 + 0.2305 = 0.8729[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0.8729 = 0.1271[/tex]

0.1271 = 12.71% probability of obtaining at least three defects in the sample, if the entire shipment has 5% defectives. 5% defective is between 1 and 2 defects, but since this probability is more than the unlikely threshold 5%, more than 2 defects could still mean that Intel has provided a shipment which is consistent with the contract.

Item b:

The mean is:

[tex]E(X) = np = 25(0.05) = 1.25[/tex]

The standard deviation is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1 - p)} = \sqrt{25(0.05)(0.95)} = 1.09[/tex]

The mean is of 1.25 defective chips and the standard deviation is of 1.09 defective chips.

Item c:

20% are defective, so 80% are good, which means that [tex]p = 0.8[/tex]

The probability is:

[tex]P(X > 17) = P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) + P(X = 21) + P(X = 22) + P(X = 23) + P(X = 24) + P(X = 25)[/tex]

Then

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 18) = C_{25,18}.(0.8)^{18}.(0.2)^{7} = 0.1108[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 19) = C_{25,19}.(0.8)^{19}.(0.2)^{6} = 0.1633[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 20) = C_{25,20}.(0.8)^{20}.(0.2)^{5} = 0.1960[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 21) = C_{25,21}.(0.8)^{21}.(0.2)^{4} = 0.1867[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 22) = C_{25,22}.(0.8)^{22}.(0.2)^{3} = 0.1358[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 23) = C_{25,23}.(0.8)^{23}.(0.2)^{2} = 0.0708[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 24) = C_{25,24}.(0.8)^{24}.(0.2)^{1} = 0.0236[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 25) = C_{25,25}.(0.8)^{25}.(0.2)^{0} = 0.0038[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X > 17) = P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) + P(X = 21) + P(X = 22) + P(X = 23) + P(X = 24) + P(X = 25) = 0.1108 + 0.1633 + 0.1960 + 0.1867 + 0.1358 + 0.0708 + 0.0236 + 0.0038 = 0.8908[/tex]

0.8908 = 89.08% probability that more than 17 chips in the sample are good.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

It would be 9 because 7 +2 is 9 and 11 - 2 is 9.

Isn't way to hard.

Good luck on whatever you are doing.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  9

Step-by-step explanation:

The midpoint between two values is their average. The average is half their sum.

  (7 +11)/2 = 18/2 = 9

The number 9 is halfway between 7 and 11.

_____

Check

The distance from 7 to 9 is 9-7 = 2. The distance from 9 to 11 is 11-9 = 2. The distances are the same, so 9 is halfway between 7 and 11.

Answer:

3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Two other expressions that also represent the relationship shown in the table are;

According to the question;

In essence, to write two other expressions that also represent the relationship shown in the table; we can rearrange the terms in the expression Andre wrote (-2 + 4x = 3) as follow;

First expression is;

Second expression is;

Read more:

https://brainly.com/question/13968118

Answer:

Top Left

Step-by-step explanation:

The numbers all coordinate to that plot

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The easy way is to look for exceptions. The first and last plots missing 7/8 and same with data set.

There are 4 1's in the set which is correct with the first plot.

Answer:

£920

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the area of floor to find the cost of the flooring, and then we need to find the perimeter of the floor to find the cost of the edging.

A = LW = 6 m × 4 m = 24 m²

Cost of flooring: 24 m² × £35/m² = £840

P = 2(L + W) = 2(6 m + 4m) = 2(10m) = 20 m

Cost of edging: 20 m × £4/m = £80

Total cost:

£840 + £80 = £920

Answer:

Base= 6

Height= 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of triangle= ½ ×base ×height

Let the base be 3x and the height be 5x.

Given that the area is 30,

½ ×base ×height= 30

½(3x)(5x)= 30

Multiply both sides by 2:

3x(5x)= 60

15x²= 60

x²= 60 ÷15

x²= 4

Square root both sides:

[tex]x = \sqrt{4} [/tex]

x= 2

(reject x= -2 since length has a positive value)

Length of base

= 3x

= 3(2)

= 6

Length of height

= 5x

= 5(2)

= 10

Answer:

Worked 5 hours: $550

Worked 7 hours: $2,750

Worked 12 hours: $6,600

Step-by-step explanation:

5+7+12=24

13200/24 = 550

(5)*(550) = 2,750

(7)*(550) = 3,850

(12)*(550) = 6,600

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of g is already given. Replace g by 1 and find the value of x which is a negative two. After that, substitute and find that g is indeed equal to 1.

thankyou

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know what the specific options are to be selected, but I can tell you what the situation is, and you can then pick the fitting options on your screen :

it is not a function, because 5 in set A (the domain) leads to 2 associated (functional result) values in B (the range).

but in order to be a function, every input value must have exactly one resulting output value. which is violated here.

Answer:

=2691

Step-by-step explanation:

=2700+35−44

=2735−44

=2691

Answer:

1) 2

2) 1

3) 8

Step-by-step explanation:

brainliest plz

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

155-180=25 degrees

Answer:

x = 25°

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 15 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]a^{2} +b^{2} =c^{2} \\b^{2} = c^{2} - a^{2} \\b^{2} = (25 inches)^{2} - (40 inces/2)^{2} = \sqrt{225} = 15 inches[/tex]

Answer:

Well, each baseball card $1.60.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, you may just divide the amount of cards to the amount of money required.

Answer:

ysgsvdbdbdjdnd dndjdnd

Answer:

In slope-intercept form, y = -17/34 - 34

Step-by-step explanation:

For the two points, you have (-68, 0) and (0, -34). To get the slope, you take (y-y) / (x-x). Stay consistent on the order you do those. After I did (-34 - 0) / (0 - 68), simplified it, and got a slope of -17 / 34. You are already given the y-intercept, so you just write the equation from there (y = -17/34 - 34)

Answer: answered

A motorcycle can go 50 miles using one gallon of gas. About how many gallons of gas will be used to go 150 kilometers? (Hint: 1 mile is approximately 1.6 kilometers)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:37.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{a}{(a-b)(a-c)} +\frac{b}{(b-c)(b-a)}+\frac{c}{(c-a)(c-b)}\\= \frac{a}{(a-b)(a-c)} -\frac{b}{(b-c)(a-b)}+\frac{c}{(a-c)(b-c)}\\\\= \frac{a(b-c)-b(a-c)+c(a-b)}{(a-b)(a-c)(b-c)}}\\\\= \frac{ab-ac-ab+bc+ac-bc}{(a-b)(a-c)(b-c)}}\\\\= \frac{0}{(a-b)(a-c)(b-c)}}\\\\= 0[/tex]

vâng vì phụ nữ là những người tán gẫu

Answer: =11/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]y = 2 \frac{3}{4} \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]5(y - 1) = 3(2y - 5) - (1 - 3y) \\ 5y - 5 = 6y - 15 - 1 + 3y \\ 5y - 5 = 9y - 16 \\ 16 - 5 = 9y - 5y \\ 11 = 4y \\ \frac{11}{4} = y \\ 2 \frac{3}{4} = y \\ [/tex]