in which of the following cases does an import quota result in a higher welfare loss than a tariff? group of answer choices the quota licenses are allocated through resource-using application procedures. the government auctions the import licenses to the highest bidders. the domestic firms producing an import-competing product set the product's price equal to the marginal cost of producing it. the domestic industry in the importing country is highly competitive.

Answers

Answer 1

In the case where the quota licenses are allocated through resource-using application procedures, an import quota results in a higher welfare loss than a tariff. The option a) is the correct answer.

Import quota and tariff both protect domestic producers and raise government revenue. An import quota is a physical limit on the amount of imported goods, while a tariff is a tax levied on imported goods to restrict foreign competition. Import quota and tariff both lead to an increase in the price of imported goods in the domestic market. As a result, domestic producers are protected, and government revenue is raised.

The difference between import quota and tariff is the way in which they restrict trade. Import quotas restrict trade through a physical limit on the amount of imports, while tariffs restrict trade by increasing the price of imports. Tariff has an advantage over the quota in the sense that it does not lead to any welfare loss to the importing country. Import quotas cause welfare loss because they increase the price of imported goods in the domestic market. The quota licenses are allocated through resource-using application procedures, which increases welfare loss.

This happens because resources are used to allocate licenses, which results in additional costs for the government and applicants. These costs, in turn, are passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices, leading to a decrease in consumer surplus, which is a measure of welfare.Import licenses allocated through resource-using application procedures create additional costs, leading to a higher welfare loss than a tariff. Therefore, option a) is the correct answer.

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Related Questions

in a purely competitive industry, at the profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing level of output, marginal is equal to .

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In a perfectly competitive market, firms will increase the quantity produced until their marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

This is because when marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, the difference represents profit to be earned (and firms are assumed to be “profit-maximizing” and, when dealing with perfect competition, “price-takers”). When marginal revenue is less than marginal cost, the difference represents a loss that the firm is incurring, and the firm will decrease the quantity produced or shut down if the loss is greater than the fixed cost of production.

What is marginal revenue?

Marginal revenue is the increase in revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output. It is the revenue that a company can generate for each additional unit sold.

Marginal revenue is a fundamental tool for economic decision making within a firm’s setting, together with marginal cost to be considered. In a perfectly competitive market, the incremental revenue generated by selling an additional unit of a good is equal to the price the firm is able to charge the buyer of the good.

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when government decides to increase taxes in order to fight an inflationary gap, this is: a an example of an automatic stabilizer. b an example of monetary policy. c most likely to increase the size of the budget deficit. d likely to dampen the effects of inflation, but will not lead to a correction. e an example of discretionary fiscal policy.

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An example of discretionary fiscal policy is when the government decides to increase taxes to fight an inflationary gap. (E)

Increasing taxes helps to reduce inflation by reducing spending, and the increased revenue generated can be used to pay down debt or finance government programs.

However, this policy is likely to increase the size of the budget deficit because it reduces the amount of money that people have available to spend and the revenue generated by the tax increase may not fully offset the spending cuts.

The correct answer is an example of discretionary fiscal policy.(E)

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Real World Case 15–7 (Static) Reporting leases in a statement of cash flows; disclosure note; FedEx [LO 15-8]

"Why does FedEx show operating cash flows for both types of leases, but only financing cash flows for finance leases," your colleague wonders aloud. "We need to draft our lease disclosure by tomorrow morning. " Tossing a sheet of paper in front of you, he moans, "I found this disclosure note to FedEx’s financial statements that promises ‘supplemental cash flow information related to leases,’ but it’s not helping. The department’s draft of our cash flow statement, and the income statement for that matter, don’t specifically break out any lease payments. This being our first time to follow the new lease standard, we need to get it right. And while we’re at it, why do you think they list new leases in connection with cash flows? Did they pay all this cash in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets?"


Knowing your colleague is a new hire, you want to diplomatically point him in the right direction. So, you pick up the disclosure note:


Note 7 — LEASES (in part)


Supplemental cash flow information related to leases is as follows:


(In millions) Fiscal Year Ended May 31, 2020

Cash paid for amounts included in the measurement of lease liabilities:

Operating cash flows paid for operating leases $ 2,608

Operating cash flows paid for finance leases 14

Financing cash flows paid for finance leases 84

Right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new operating leases 1,915

Right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new finance leases 484

Required:

Why does FedEx show operating cash flows for both types of leases, but only financing cash flows for finance leases?

To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the cash payments for operating leases during the year.

To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the cash payments for finance leases during the year.

Did FedEx pay the amounts indicated in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets for new leases? Why or why not?

To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the acquisition of assets by operating leases during the year

Answers

FedEx shows operating cash flows for both types of leases because the operating lease payments are considered operating expenses and FedEx did not pay the amounts indicated in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets for new leases.

In contrast, finance lease payments are considered debt repayments and are included in financing activities.

For operating leases, FedEx made cash payments of $2,608 million. The journal entry to summarize the cash payments for operating leases during the year is:

Debit: Rent Expense $2,608 million

Credit: Cash $2,608 million

For finance leases, FedEx made cash payments of $14 million for operating activities and $84 million for financing activities. The journal entry to summarize the cash payments for finance leases during the year is:

Debit: Interest Expense $14 million

Debit: Principal Repayment $84 million

Credit: Cash $98 million

The right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new leases reflect the initial recognition of the lease liabilities and the right-of-use assets. These transactions are non-cash and do not affect the cash flow statement.

The journal entry to summarize the acquisition of assets by operating leases during the year is:

Debit: Right-of-Use Asset $1,915 million

Credit: Lease Liability $1,915 million

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ii. with a nominal interest rate of 5% per year, the present discounted value of $100 to be received in 10 years is a) $50.00. b) $61.39. c) $95.24. d) $150.00. e) $163.89.

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With a nominal interest rate of 5% per year, the present discounted value of $100 to be received in 10 years is is b) $61.39.

The present discounted value (PDV) of $100 to be received in 10 years is the present-day value of that amount discounted by the nominal interest rate of 5% per year.

To calculate the PDV, use the following formula:

PDV = Future Value x [tex]\frac{1}{(1+r)^{2} }[/tex]

Where r = interest rate (5%)
and n = number of years (10)

PDV = 100 x (1 / (1 + 0.05)^10)

PDV = 100 x 0.61

PDV = $61.39

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if people expected that a tax cut was temporary, then this fiscal policy's effect on the economy will tend to be:group of answer choicesstrongerthe exact opposite of what was intendedweakeras the multiplier effect would predict

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If people expected that a tax cut was temporary, then this fiscal policy's effect on the economy will tend to be weaker as the multiplier effect would predict. The correct answer is D.

Why would it be weaker?

The effect of a fiscal policy depends on how the public perceives it. A temporary tax cut would have a weaker impact on the economy as compared to a permanent one. This is because a temporary tax cut would encourage people to spend less and save more as they know that taxes will be back to the same level after a short period of time. Thus, the multiplier effect of a temporary tax cut would be smaller than the multiplier effect of a permanent tax cut.

A temporary tax cut would have a weaker impact on the economy because of the following reasons: Inefficiency: Fiscal policy takes time to implement, and it is not possible to make precise adjustments. A temporary tax cut may take even longer to implement than a permanent one. This would make it difficult for the government to implement the policy effectively.

Uncertainty: A temporary tax cut would lead to uncertainty among people about their future income. This would result in a decrease in the consumption and investment levels of the people. Lower investment: A temporary tax cut would not encourage businesses to invest in long-term projects. As a result, it would not lead to significant growth in the economy. Thus, the multiplier effect of a temporary tax cut would be less than that of a permanent tax cut.

As a result, it can be concluded that if people expected that a tax cut was temporary, then this fiscal policy's effect on the economy will tend to be weaker as the multiplier effect would predict.

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the idea that the quantity of materials tends to decline as the distance from the source of those materials increases is the basic tenant behind:

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The idea that the quantity of materials tends to decline as the distance from the source of those materials increases is the basic tenant behind diminishing returns.

The law of diminishing returns is a microeconomic principle that describes the relationship between the marginal output of a variable input and the amount of that input used, holding all other inputs constant at a fixed level. It is a basic rule of production that, as more of a single variable input is added to a fixed quantity of other inputs, the marginal product of the variable input will eventually decrease.

According to the law of diminishing returns, as additional increments of labor and capital are applied to a fixed amount of land, the amount of output per unit of input produced will eventually decrease.

As a result, the production cost per unit of output will eventually increase, resulting in lower profits or higher prices for the consumer, which will cause the demand to decrease.

The law of diminishing returns implies that, for every production process, there exists a point at which additional input will result in diminishing output.

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calculate the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year. please just enter a number without units!

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The average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year is 0.0012.

To calculate the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year, the following steps are taken:

Firstly, calculate the rise in sea level by subtracting the sea level at 10,000 years ago from the sea level at 15,000 years ago:

15,000 years ago sea level - 10,000 years ago sea level = 123 meters

Next, calculate the duration of the period by subtracting 10,000 years from 15,000 years: 15,000 years - 10,000 years = 5,000 years

Finally, divide the rise in sea level by the duration of the period: 123 meters / 5,000 years = 0.0246 meters/year = 0.0012 (rounded to 4 decimal places)

Therefore, the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year is 0.0012.

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when developing a high-performance workplace, leaders improve performance using technology through trello that:

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Trello is a web-based project management application that can be used by leaders to such that collaboration, prioritisation and tracking can be done. Option e is the correct answer.

What are the ways in which Trello can be used?

Task management: Trello allows leaders to create and assign tasks to team members. This helps to ensure that everyone is clear about their responsibilities and deadlines, which can lead to increased productivity.

Collaboration: Trello's boards and cards can be shared with team members, making it easy for everyone to see what tasks are in progress and what needs to be done next. This promotes collaboration and helps team members to work together more effectively.

Prioritization: Trello's drag-and-drop interface allows leaders to easily prioritize tasks and move them around as priorities change. This helps to ensure that the most important tasks are completed first, which can lead to increased efficiency and effectiveness.

Tracking progress: Trello's visual layout makes it easy for leaders to track the progress of tasks and projects. They can see at a glance what has been completed, what is currently in progress, and what still needs to be done. This can help leaders to identify areas where performance can be improved and make necessary adjustments.

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The full question is:

When developing a high-performance workplace, leaders improve performance using technology through Trello that:

a. saves time by making repetitive tasks easier to do

b. makes it simple to maintain relationships with people in one's network

c. allows clear visibility of must-do priorities

d. keeps teams on task

e. collaboration, prioritisation and tracking can be done

you establish a straddle on wmt using call and put options with a strike price of $140 and same expiration date. the call premium is $3.4 and the put premium is $3.4. what is your profit (per share) if the stock price at the expiration date is $121?

Answers

If the stock price is $121 at the expiration date, then you will have a net loss of $1.40 per share.  The intrinsic value of the options is equal to the difference between the strike price of $140 and the stock price at the expiration date of $121, or $19. Since the combined cost of the options is greater than the intrinsic value, your profit per share is - $1.40.

This is because the combined cost of the call and put premiums was $6.80, and the intrinsic value of the options will be $0 at that stock price. To calculate the total cost of the straddle, add the cost of the call premium of $3.4 to the cost of the put premium of $3.4, for a total cost of $6.80.

Since the stock price is $121 at expiration, the intrinsic value of the options is equal to $19, which is the difference between the strike price of $140 and the stock price of $121. Subtracting the cost of $6.80 from the intrinsic value of $19 gives you a net loss of $1.40 per share.

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trading that involves purchasing large blocks of securities on the expectation of a favorable price move is called

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The trading strategy that involves purchasing large blocks of securities on the expectation of a favorable price move is called "block trading."

Block trading refers to the buying or selling of a large number of shares or securities at one time, typically by institutional investors, such as mutual funds or hedge funds. Block trading can have a significant impact on the price of a security and is often used by investors who believe that a stock is undervalued or poised for a price increase.

However, block trading can also carry risks, such as liquidity concerns and market impact costs, and requires a certain level of expertise and resources to execute successfully.

Block trading is a strategy used by institutional investors to buy or sell a large number of shares or securities in a single transaction. This type of trading is usually done outside of the open market and involves negotiating a price directly with a counterparty, often a broker or another institutional investor.

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what are the key issues for starbucks ? what are the problems associated with the decision to offer fair trade coffee from a communications perspective ? what are the problems associated with not offering fair trade coffee ? what should smith do ?

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Starbucks’ key issue regarding its decision to offer Fair Trade coffee from a communications perspective is how it will be perceived by consumers. If Starbucks opts to offer Fair Trade coffee, some consumers may view this positively, viewing Starbucks as a socially responsible company. On the other hand, some consumers may be hesitant to embrace this decision, as it could be seen as a sign of corporate responsibility and/or political correctness.

Additionally, Starbucks would face potential problems if they choose not to offer Fair Trade coffee. This could damage their reputation, as customers may believe that Starbucks is ignoring their ethical and social responsibilities. Furthermore, not offering Fair Trade coffee could lead to a loss in customer loyalty.

In order to make an informed decision, Smith should consider all of the potential implications of either offering or not offering Fair Trade coffee. Smith should also analyze public opinion and research the customer’s view on Fair Trade coffee and how it affects their opinion of Starbucks.

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a genuine business opportunity is described by each of the following characteristics except: group of answer choices all of the above the ability to sell the product at high enough of a price to a sufficient number of customers. an acceptable profit opportunity. distinctive competence in marketing effective demand for the product or service

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A genuine business opportunity does not include "all of the above" as a valid choice.

A genuine business opportunity includes the ability to sell the product at a high enough price to a sufficient number of customers, an acceptable profit opportunity, distinctive competence in marketing, and effective demand for the product or service.

To identify a genuine business opportunity, an entrepreneur needs to determine the feasibility of selling their product at the price point that is acceptable for both the customer and the seller, the expertise of the seller in marketing the product, and the customer's demand for the product or service.

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kalaria manufacturing has sales of $1,248,600 and cost of goods sold of $499,440. beginning inventory is $55,900 and ending inventory is $60,900. what is the length of the inventory period?

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The mean value of the inventory kept during a given time period, often a year, is referred to as average inventory.

What is average inventory?

We must know the average daily cost of goods sold (COGS) and average daily inventory in order to determine the duration of the inventory period. By dividing the cost of products sold by the number of days in the period, one may determine the average daily COGS: Cost of goods sold / number of days equals the average daily COGS.

How can we calculate the number of days?

We must first compute the number of days,

Days= 365 days. (assuming a full year)

We can determine the daily COGS average:

Daily COGS on average are $499,440 / 365, or $1,368

How can we calculate average daily inventory?

We may calculate this by dividing the number of days by the average of the beginning and finishing inventory levels:

(Beginning inventory + Ending inventory) / 2 / Days = Average daily inventory

($55,900 + $60,900) / 2 / 365 = $311.51 per day is the average daily inventory.

Calculate the inventory period by dividing the average daily inventory by the average daily COGS.

Average daily inventory / Average daily COGS = inventory period.

Inventory period = $311.51 daily / $1,368 daily  0.228

As a result, the inventory period is around 0.228 days, or 22.8%, long. This outcome can be interpreted as follows: Kalaria Manufacturing rotates its inventory once every 4.4 months, or around 22.8% of the year. It is computed by adding the beginning and ending inventories together, then dividing the result by two.

This provides the typical quantity of inventory retained throughout that time period.

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sam and tracy are running their project in planning sam and nikkis wedding. communication is a big issue with all the stakeholders and their geographical locations. of the following, which is an input they will use in the manage communications process? seleccione una: a. project management plan b. communications management plan c. feedback d. power interest grid

Answers

The input that "Sam and Tracy will use in the manage communications process is the Communications Management Plan." is the Communications Management Plan. This includes the communications process. The correct option is B.

What is the Communication process?

The communications process is defined as the sequence of events that takes place when a message is sent, such as: Initiation Transmission, Reception Understanding, Response Feedback

To ensure effective communication, it is important to understand each component of the communications process. In this case, Sam and Tracy are struggling with communication issues because of geographical differences. As a result, they need a Communications Management Plan to help them deal with communication issues.

The Communications Management Plan includes the communications process, such as what communication media and language to use, how often to communicate, and to whom to communicate.

Thus, the answer is option B.

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what would cause the bank statement balance to differ from the depositor's book balance. multiple choice question.

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The bank statement balance may differ from the depositor's book balance for several reasons, includes unrecorded deposits or withdrawal, bank fees or interest payments, timing differences between when deposits or withdrawals occur and when they are recorded and errors in the recording of deposits or withdrawals.

Bank statement balance can differ from the depositor's book balance due to the following reasons:Uncleared checksInterest incomeDirect depositsService charges EFTsAll of the above are the reasons for the bank statement balance to differ from the depositor's book balance.A bank statement is a record of financial transactions that have been made by a customer of a bank or other financial institution over a particular period. A bank statement is also known as an account statement or banking record. Bank statements usually contain information about deposits, withdrawals, and transactions, as well as interest earned and service charges incurred.Balance as used in financial accounting refers to the difference between the total credits and total debits in a financial account during a particular period. A balance in accounting is the result of subtracting credits from debits, whereas a balance in a bank account is the amount of money available in the account at the end of the reporting period.Depositor's book balance is the total amount of cash and securities held by a depositor or financial institution. A depositor's book balance differs from the bank statement balance in that the book balance reflects the depositor's records and reconciliations, while the bank statement balance reflects the bank's records and reconciliations.

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which term refers to the physical land and improvements as well as intangible ownership interests and rights?

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Real estate refers to the physical land and improvements, as well as intangible ownership interests and rights.

It includes the buildings, structures, and any other improvements on the land, as well as any ownership rights related to the land, such as mineral rights, water rights, and rights to profits from the land. It also includes the value of any buildings, such as homes and businesses, on the land.

Real estate encompasses both commercial and residential properties, including land, buildings, and homes.

Real estate is an important asset in many countries, as it can generate income from leases and rental income, increase in value over time, and provide tax benefits. Real estate can be held by an individual, business, or government entity.

Real estate is commonly divided into land, improvements (such as buildings, structures, and infrastructure), and other intangibles (such as water rights and mineral rights). Real estate also includes any right of ownership, such as the right to sell, rent, or lease the property, as well as any profits derived from it.

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what is the term used for the person or organization who acts as an intermediary for the purpose of obtaining financing

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The term used for the person or organization who acts as an intermediary for the purpose of obtaining financing is a "financial intermediary."

The term used for the person or organization who acts as an intermediary for the purpose of obtaining financing is "financial intermediary." Financial intermediaries are entities such as banks, credit unions, insurance companies, pension funds, and investment funds, which channel funds from savers to borrowers.

Financial intermediaries play a vital role in the economy by connecting those who have excess funds with those who need them. For example, a bank takes in deposits from savers and then lends out those funds to borrowers who need financing. By doing so, the bank earns interest income on the loans it makes, while also providing a return to depositors. Similarly, an investment fund takes in money from investors and then invests that money in various assets, such as stocks and bonds, with the goal of generating a return on investment.

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kendra is an attorney and owns 60 percent of a law partnership. kendra sells land to the partnership for $50,000 in the current tax year. she bought the land for $100,000 eight years ago when real estate prices were at their peak. how much gain or loss must kendra recognize on the land sale to the partnership? a.$30,000 loss. b.no gain or loss. c.$50,000 loss. d.$50,000 short-term capital loss, limited to $3,000 allowed per year.

Answers

The gain or loss that Kendra must recognize on the land sale to the partnership is a Option (c)$50,000 loss.

Gain or loss refers to the change in the value of an asset, investment, or other items that are sold, liquidated, or closed out. For tax purposes, gain or loss is calculated as the difference between an asset's sale price and its purchase price (including any commissions or other expenses incurred during the purchase or sale).

If the sale price is higher than the purchase price, the result is a gain. If the sale price is lower than the purchase price, the result is a loss.

In the current tax year, Kendra sold land to the partnership for $50,000. Kendra purchased the land for $100,000 eight years ago when real estate prices were at their peak. So, the gain or loss must be calculated:

Purchase price: $100,000

Sale price: $50,000

Loss = Purchase price – Sale price

= $100,000 – $50,000

= $50,000

Thus, Kendra must recognize a $50,000 loss on the land sale to the partnership. Therefore, option c) $50,000 loss is the correct answer.

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which of the statements below accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle? which of the statements below accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle? the competitive exclusion principle makes no assumptions about the competitors. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that competitors have different resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions may be variable. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have resource partitioning and that environmental conditions remain constant.

Answers

The following statement accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle: The competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant.

What is the competitive exclusion principle?

The competitive exclusion principle refers to a scientific theory about the relationship between two different species or organisms that are competing for the same resources.

The competitive exclusion principle is one of the most important ecological concepts, as it helps us understand how different species interact in the environment and how these interactions can lead to changes in ecosystems over time.The principle states that two different species that share the same ecological niche or habitat cannot coexist in the same place at the same time. This is because one of the species will inevitably outcompete the other, leading to the extinction of one of the species.

This is due to the fact that the two species have the same resource requirements and cannot survive in the same habitat without a clear separation of resources.The competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. Therefore, the third option is the correct answer.

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which of the following statements is true? vertical analysis of financial statements is accomplished by preparing common-size statements. in determining whether a company's financial condition is improving or deteriorating over time, horizontal analysis of financial statement data would be more useful than vertical analysis.

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The statement provided in question that vertical analysis of financial statements is accomplished by preparing common-size statement is True.

In vertical analysis, each item on the financial statement is expressed as a percentage of a base figure, usually total assets. This provides an easily comparable overview of the financial statement, highlighting any potential trends that may be occurring.


On the other hand, horizontal analysis of financial statement data is a comparison of financial statement amounts over a period of time. This provides an understanding of the company's financial health.


Therefore, when determining whether a company's financial condition is improving or deteriorating over time, horizontal analysis of financial statement data would be more useful than vertical analysis.

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a key component of TQM is continuous improvement an ongoing process through which employees strive to eliminate waste, reduce response time, minimize defects, and simplify the design and delivery of products and services to customers (true or false)

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True, a key component of Total Quality Management (TQM) is continuous improvement, which is an ongoing process through which employees strive to eliminate waste, reduce response time, minimize defects, and simplify the design and delivery of products and services to customers.

What do you mean by  Total Quality Management ?

This approach ensures that businesses maintain high-quality standards and consistently work towards enhancing their processes to achieve better results.

Error detection, reduction, or elimination are continual processes in total quality management (TQM). It is applied to improve customer service, optimise supply chain management, and guarantee personnel training.

The goal of total quality management is to "construct and make permanent a climate where employees enhance their ability to supply on-demand goods and services than customers will find particularly valuable."

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this month, the local widget factory produced 100 widgets. the total variable cost of production was $500 and the average total cost of production was $8. what is the average fixed cost?

Answers

The average fixed production cost is $3.

To calculate the average fixed cost of production, we need to subtract the variable cost from the total cost and then divide the result by the number of units produced. The formula for average fixed cost is:

Average Fixed Cost = (Total Cost - Total Variable Cost) / Quantity

In this case, the total variable cost of production was $500, and the average total cost of production was $8. We also know that 100 widgets were produced. Therefore, we can calculate the total cost of production as follows:

⇒ Total Cost = Average Total Cost x Quantity

⇒  Total Cost = $8 x 100

⇒  Total Cost = $800

Now we can use the formula above to calculate the average fixed cost:

⇒  Average Fixed Cost = (Total Cost - Total Variable Cost) / Quantity

⇒  Average Fixed Cost = ($800 - $500) / 100

⇒  Average Fixed Cost = $3

Therefore, the average fixed cost of production is $3.

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someone decides to put $ 3,400 under their mattress rather than in a bank. the average inflation rate over the next six years is 3.15%. what is the real value of this money after the six year period? round to the nearest dollar.

Answers

The real value of the money after the six-year period is $2,776. Rounded to the nearest dollar, it is $2,776.

The inflation rate in the next six years is 3.15%. Therefore, the real value of the money is given by:

[tex]Future value of the money = Present value of the money / (1 + Inflation rate)^{Time[/tex]

Here, Present value of the money = $3,400

Inflation rate = 3.15%

Time = 6 years

Therefore, the future value of the money after six years is given by:

Future value of the money = $3,400 / (1 + 0.0315)⁶ = $2,776.15

Therefore, after the passage of six years, the purchasing power of the money, adjusted for inflation and changes in the general price level, is equivalent to $2,776 in today's dollars.

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charge users to redistribute the software you are the owner of a small open source software firm. which options are true about ways you can generate revenue?

Answers

Selling support and consulting services are ways you can generate revenue. Option E is correct.

As the owner of a small open source software firm, you can generate revenue in the following ways by charging users to redistribute the software:

Licensing Fees: You can charge a licensing fee to users who want to redistribute your software, either in its original form or as part of a larger product.

Customization Services: You can offer customization services to users who want to modify your software to meet their specific needs.

Technical Support: You can offer technical support services to users who need help using or implementing your software.

Training: You can offer training services to users who want to learn how to use your software effectively.

Premium Features: You can offer premium features or additional functionality to users who pay for a premium version of your software.

These revenue streams can help you sustain your business while also contributing to the open source community by making your software available to a wider audience.

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The complete question is:

Charge users to redistribute the software you are the owner of a small open source software firm. Which options are true about ways you can generate revenue?

A. Claiming royalties on software based on open source codeB. Licensing OSS for incorporation into subsequent open source productsC. Selling open source products at prices well below commercial productsD. Marketing versions of open source software masked as proprietary softwareE. Selling support and consulting services

suggested pre-requi planning and the marketing mix learning objectives after completing this simulation you should be able to: * discuss how product development is the foundation of the 4 p's * explain how design options impact production costs * analyze the connection between design options and customer interest * apply this information in support of achieving mission goals

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Suggested Pre-Requisites in order to get the most out of this marketing mix simulation, you should have a basic understanding of marketing principles and practices, including product development, production costs, customer interest, and mission goals.

This simulation is designed to help you understand how product development is the foundation of the 4 Ps (product, price, place, and promotion) of the marketing mix. You will learn how design options impact production costs and how they can be used to analyze the connection between design options and customer interest. After completing the simulation, you should be able to apply this information in support of achieving mission goals.

Basic understanding of marketing principles: It would be helpful to have a foundational knowledge of marketing concepts, such as the marketing mix (4 P's), customer segmentation, and target marketing.Product development process: Understanding the product development process would be useful, including the stages of ideation, design, testing, and launch.Production and cost analysis: Having a basic understanding of production processes and cost analysis would be beneficial in understanding how design options impact production costs.Consumer behavior: It would be helpful to have an understanding of consumer behavior and how it relates to product design and interest.Organizational mission and goals: Familiarity with the organization's mission and goals would be useful in applying the simulation results to support achieving those goals.

By having these prerequisites in place, learners will be better equipped to understand the concepts presented in the simulation and apply them to real-world situations.

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Managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner
A. because ethics violations will be punished by the law.
B. because a business must be trusted by investors, customer and the public if it is to succeed.
C. because business managers must answer to a higher authority.
D. because ethical behavior is its own justification.

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In the following question, among the given options, The correct option is (B). Managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner  "because a business must be trusted by investors, customers and the public if it is to succeed."

Why do managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner? The answer is that the managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner because a business must be trusted by investors, customers, and the public if it is to succeed. Business is about trust, and trust is built through ethical behaviour.

A company that acts ethically is more likely to be trusted by investors, customers, and the public. When a company is trusted, it is more likely to be successful because people will be more willing to do business with it.It is, therefore, essential that managers of corporations act in an ethical manner to ensure that their businesses thrive. If a company is not trusted by investors, customers, and the public, it is unlikely to be successful, and the managers of the company may face serious consequences such as lawsuits, fines, and loss of reputation.

Managers of corporations must, therefore, make ethical decisions and act in an ethical manner to build and maintain trust and ensure the success of their businesses.

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B. Because a business must be trusted by investors, customers, and the public if it is to succeed, is the reason why managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner.

A corporation's managers must act ethically and responsibly for the following reasons:

Legal reasons:

Managers of corporation must comply with a variety of laws, rules, and regulations. They must ensure that the company's actions are consistent with these laws and regulations.

Managers of corporations must be aware of the rules and regulations in their respective sectors and work to ensure that the business follows them.

Ethical reasons:

Managers of corporations must behave ethically and avoid ethical concerns. They must be honest, fair, and responsible. They must demonstrate respect for their customers, employees, and stakeholders.

Customers' and stakeholders' confidence and trust in a company are critical factors in its success.

Business managers must answer to a higher authority:

Managers of corporations must behave ethically and transparently because they are responsible for the company's performance and results. They must meet the company's goals, but they must also do so while following the company's ethical and moral values.

In other words, managers of corporations are responsible for ensuring that their company operates ethically and responsibly. This is critical for the success of the company.

Ethical behavior is its own justification:

Ethical behavior benefits a corporation in a variety of ways, including increased trust and customer loyalty, improved employee productivity and engagement, and long-term financial success.

Ethical conduct strengthens a corporation's reputation, which is critical to its success. It's a clear reflection of the corporation's values, principles, and vision, and it will help them gain consumer confidence, which is critical to their future success.

Managers of corporations must act ethically for a variety of reasons, including legal requirements, ethical considerations, accountability to a higher authority, and the fact that ethical behavior is critical to a company's long-term success.

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Assume that a company’s planning budget is based on 2,000 units and it actually produced and sold 2,500 units. Its planning budget is based on the assumption that 60% of its administrative expenses are fixed and the remainder is variable. If the planning budget includes $12,000 of fixed administrative expenses and the company’s actual total administrative expense for the period is $19,000, then what is the amount of the administrative expense spending variance?
Multiple Choice
$3,000 favorable
$2,000 unfavorable
$5,000 unfavorable
$5,000 favorable

Answers

First, we need to determine the expected amount of variable administrative expenses based on the planning budget: the correct answer is $3,000 unfavorable. So the correct option is A.

Fixed administrative expenses = $12,000

Variable administrative expenses = 40% x Total administrative expenses = 40% x ($12,000 + Variable expenses)

Simplifying, we get: Variable administrative expenses = 0.4 x ($12,000 + Variable expenses)

Solving for Variable administrative expenses, we get: Variable administrative expenses = $8,000

Next, we can calculate the flexible budget for administrative expenses based on the actual level of production (2,500 units):

Fixed administrative expenses = $12,000

Variable administrative expenses = ($8,000 / 2,000 units) x 2,500 units = $10,000

Total administrative expenses = $12,000 + $10,000 = $22,000

Finally, we can calculate the administrative expense spending variance as the difference between the actual and flexible budget amounts:

Administrative expense spending variance = Actual administrative expenses - Flexible budget administrative expenses

Administrative expense spending variance = $19,000 - $22,000

Administrative expense spending variance = -$3,000 (unfavorable)

Therefore, the correct answer is $3,000 unfavorable.

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wm. wrigley jr. company once made only chewing gum. when wrigley bought life savers (a line of candy mints) and altoids (a line of breath mints) from kraft, chewing gum then constituted less than 95 percent of revenues. thus, wrigley: a. probably planned to restructure these companies and sell them off. b. became a conglomerate since life savers and altoids are unrelated businesses. c. was moving away from its traditional dominant strategy toward a related linked strategy. d. was moving away from its traditional single-business strategy toward a dominant strategy.

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Thus, Wrigley's (option c) was moving away from its traditional dominant strategy toward a related linked strategy.

Wrigley's acquisition of Life Savers and Altoids represents a shift from its traditional single-business strategy focused solely on chewing gum to a related linked strategy that includes other types of candy mints and breath mints. This strategy allows the company to expand its product offerings and capture a larger share of the market for mint-based products.

While the new acquisitions may not be directly related to chewing gum, they are still part of the broader candy and confectionery industry, making them a logical extension of Wrigley's existing business. Therefore, option C is the most accurate answer.

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which of the following is the main cause of the persistent inflation that we have experienced in the united states? supply-side inflationary factors demand-side inflationary factors a combination of supply- and demand-side inflationary factors supply-side secularity factors

Answers

The major reason of the sustained rise in American prices has been supply-side inflationary forces. Hence the proper answer is (d).

The aggregate demand curve moves to the right as investors purchase that much means of production as interest rates fall.

A rise in the amount of cash in circulating should lead the curve for aggregate demand to move to the right.

In order for supply-side inflation to happen there in long term, the long-run average supply curve must move to the left.

If the government wished to reduce the unemployment rate, this could pursue an aggressive fiscal strategy.

Fiscal policy is the competence for both the executive and legislative parts of the federal government.

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                                  "Complete question"              

Which of the following is the main cause of the persistent inflation that we have experienced in the United States?

A)Demand-side inflationary factors.

B) Supply-side inflationary factors.

C)A combination of supply- and demand-side inflationary factors.

D)Supply-side secularity factors.

All the payroll information needed to prepare payroll and tax reports is found on
(A) Form W-4 and the employee earnings record
(B) Form W-4 and the payroll register
(C) the payroll register and the employee earnings record
(D) Form W-4.
(p. 378)

Answers

(C). The payroll information needed is found on both the payroll register and the employee earnings record. Form W-4 provides withholding allowance info, but it is not enough on its own.

Accurate record-keeping of employee wages and tax withholdings is crucial for compliance with tax laws and regulations. The payroll register contains details such as employee names, hours worked, gross pay, and deductions for taxes and benefits. This information helps to calculate net pay for each employee. On the other hand, the employee earnings record summarizes the year-to-date earnings, deductions, and taxes withheld for each employee. The record is used to prepare tax reports and forms such as Form W-2. While Form W-4 provides crucial information on employees' tax withholding allowances, it is not enough for payroll and tax reporting purposes. Therefore, maintaining both the payroll register and employee earnings record is necessary for accurate payroll processing and tax reporting.

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