in a serial dilution: what is the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample?

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Answer 1

In a serial dilution, the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample is 1:100.

The serial dilution is a scientific method used to dilute an original solution many times with the purpose of reducing its concentration to the point that it can be handled more easily or its concentration determined by testing. For instance, if an initial solution's concentration is very high, it may be diluted until its concentration is low enough to be read by an instrument or to be visually discernible.

A serial dilution technique is used to dilute a solution to a specified concentration. The solution is diluted serially by adding the same volume of diluent at each step. Assume that the concentration of the initial solution is 100%. With each dilution, the concentration decreases by a factor of 10. For instance, if the initial concentration is 100%, a 1:10 dilution would result in a concentration of 10%, a 1:100 dilution would result in a concentration of 1%, and so on.

In this instance, the volume of the initial solution is 1 mL, while the volume of the diluent is 99 mL. The dilution factor is calculated by dividing the volume of the initial solution by the volume of the diluent. As a result, the dilution factor in this example is 1:100 (1/100).

Therefore, the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample is 1:100.

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Related Questions

a key advantage of quantitative genetic methodology over molecular genetics is that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences. true or false?

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A key advantage of quantitative genetic methodology over molecular genetics is that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences. This statement is true.

What is the quantitative genetics?

Quantitative genetics is a branch of genetics that focuses on the analysis of the inheritance of quantitative traits or complex traits that are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

Quantitative genetic methodology is a statistical approach that is used to study these traits, and it can tell us about the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to the variation in these traits.

In contrast, molecular genetics focuses on the study of the structure and function of genes at the molecular level, and it can tell us about the specific genetic factors that contribute to the variation in these traits. However, it cannot provide information about the environmental factors that influence these traits.

Therefore, quantitative genetic methodology has an advantage over molecular genetics in that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences.

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Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration that occurs in yeast and bacteria. What is the function of fermentation?

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Fermentation is an anaerobic respiration type that happens in yeast and bacteria. The function of fermentation is: to produce energy without utilizing oxygen.

The term “anaerobic” means “without oxygen” and is usually carried out when there is insufficient oxygen available for aerobic respiration. An example of fermentation can be seen in the process of making bread. Yeast cells undergo anaerobic respiration to release energy, which is used to make carbon dioxide gas.

This carbon dioxide gas is what causes the bread to rise. Another example of fermentation is the production of alcohol (ethanol) from glucose. During the process, the glucose molecule is broken down into pyruvate molecules, which are then converted into ethanol.

The primary benefit of fermentation is that it allows cells to continue to produce ATP even when there is a lack of oxygen. Although fermentation is not as efficient as aerobic respiration, it is still capable of generating energy for cells in the absence of oxygen.

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which of the following best describes an event during step 2 in the simplified model above? a. a new rna molecule is synthesized using a dna template b. a new polypeptide is synthesized using an rna template c. thymine nucleotides in an rna molecule are replaced with uracil nucleotides d. noncoding sequences are removed from a newly synthesized rna molecule

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Step 2 in the simplified model provided refers to the process of transcription, which involves the synthesis of an RNA molecule using a DNA template.

During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of DNA, known as the promoter, and begins to move along the DNA strand, unwinding the double helix and adding nucleotides to the growing RNA strand. The RNA molecule is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction, complementary to the DNA template strand. Once the RNA polymerase reaches the termination sequence, it releases the newly synthesized RNA molecule, which may undergo further processing, such as the removal of noncoding sequences or the addition of a 5' cap and a poly(A) tail. Therefore, the correct answer is option A: "a new RNA molecule is synthesized using a DNA template."

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10. Kinetic energy is defined as
A. a measure of the mass of an object
B. a measure of the amount of motion particles have
C. a measure of the distance between particles in an object
D. a measure of the number of particles in an object

Answers

A measure of the mass of an object
Kinetic isn’t the mass but more like energy of the object so id say B

What Are Antibiotics And What Are The Precautions That Must Be Taken While Taking Antibiotics?​

Answers

Answer:

Antibiotics are medicines that fight infections caused by bacteria in humans and animals by either killing the bacteria or making it difficult for the bacteria to grow and multiply.

Explanation:

Antibiotics should only be taken under the guidance of a skilled physician. The antibiotic course should be finished according to the doctor's instructions. Antibiotics must be administered in the correct dosage and at the appropriate time. Antibiotics that are given in the wrong dose become useless.

i hope this helps

Why might a state choose a federal type of government? the state has a need for tight control over local affairs. The state has a compact size. The state has little autonomy for different regions. The state has a homogeneous culture. The state has a large country with diverse people

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The most likely reason a state would choose a federal type of government is if it has a large country with diverse people. Federalism allows for a division of powers between the central government and the states.

In this case, a federal system can help to balance power between the central government and regional or state governments, allowing for greater representation and autonomy for different regions and cultural groups. It can also help to prevent one group or region from dominating the political landscape and ensure that decisions are made with the input and consent of a variety of stakeholders. In contrast, a state with a homogeneous culture or compact size may not require such a complex system of government, while a state with a need for tight control over local affairs may prefer a unitary system with more centralized authority.

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which area of the brain exhibits higher-than-normal activity in many people with ptsd?

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The amygdala, located deep within the temporal lobe, detects possible hazards in the surrounding area. Normally, the amygdala is relatively adaptable, but it is overactive in PTSD patients.

The hippocampus, amygdala, and medial prefrontal cortex are thought to be key players in PTSD. An alarm system built into your brain often aids in ensuring your survival. This system becomes extremely sensitive and triggers quickly in those with PTSD.

Your brain's thinking and memory-related regions therefore stop working correctly. A condition of fear dysregulation can be used to describe posttraumatic stress disorder. Many studies indicate that the prefrontal cortex is crucial for processing fear, including how fears are learned and methods for controlling or reducing fear reactions.

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Which two molecules are produced by the photosynthetic electron transport chain and used in the Calvin cycle?O ATPO BPGO NADHO APGO GPG

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The two molecules produced by the photosynthetic electron transport chain and used in the Calvin cycle are ATP and NADPH.

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, electrons from water molecules are used to generate ATP and NADPH through a series of redox reactions in the electron transport chain. These energy-rich molecules are then used in the light-independent reactions, also known as the Calvin cycle, to fix carbon dioxide into glucose.

In the Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH are used to power the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. Therefore, ATP and NADPH are essential for the process of photosynthesis, and the products of the electron transport chain are critical for the production of glucose.

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what is one difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella? a. bacterial flagella are made up of one subunit; archaeal flagella are made up of multiple subunits b. bacterial flagella are made up of flagellin, archaeal flagella are made up of tubulin c. bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, archaeal are not d. bacterial flagella more clockwise, archael flagella move counterclockwise

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One difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella is that bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, while archaeal flagella are not. The correct option is C.

What is a flagellum?

A flagellum is a whip-like structure that some cells use for movement. Some bacteria and eukaryotic cells use these long, thin filaments to travel forward in their environment, while other cells use cilia or pseudopodia.

Both types of flagella are used for motility, but they have different functions and are constructed and regulated in different ways.

Therefore, one major difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella is that bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, while in the archae, flagella are not embedded in the plasma membrane.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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your white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack viruses are called: your white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack viruses are called: telomeres. lymphocytes. glucocorticoids. cortisols. teratogens.

Answers

Lymphocytes are the white blood cells in your body that fight viruses and bacteria.

What do B lymphocytes deliver that battle bacterial contaminations?

Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are produced by B lymphocytes. These proteins adhere to particular antigens. After they're made, antibodies typically stay in our bodies in the event that we need to battle a similar microorganism once more.

Are antibodies that combat T lymphocytes produced by B lymphocytes present?

The two primary types of lymphocytes are: T cells as well as B cells Antibodies produced by B cells are utilized to combat pathogens, viruses, and toxins. The T cells kill the body's own cells that have become cancerous or infected with viruses.

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a dna sequence can be represented as a string of the letters actg (short for adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine). (a) how many dna sequences are exactly 22 letters long? (b) given a dna sequence of length 22, how many single letter mutations are possible? (c) given a dna sequence of length 22, how many double letter mutations are possible?

Answers

a. There are 4^22 possible DNA sequences that are exactly 22 letters long.

b. Given a DNA sequence of length 22, there are 22 possible single letter mutations.

c. Given a DNA sequence of length 22, there are 462 possible double letter mutations.

(a) To see why, note that there are four possible letters (A, C, T, and G) for each of the 22 positions in the sequence. Therefore, the total number of possible sequences is 4 x 4 x 4... (22 times) = 4^22.

(b) To see why, note that for each position in the sequence, there are three possible mutations that could occur (e.g., A could mutate to C, G, or T). Therefore, the total number of possible single letter mutations is 22 x 3 = 66.

(c) To see why, note that there are 21 possible pairs of adjacent positions in the sequence (positions 1 and 2, positions 2 and 3, and so on up to positions 21 and 22). For each pair, there are 9 possible double mutations that could occur (e.g., AC could mutate to AG, AT, CA, CC, CG, CT, GA, GC, or GT). Therefore, the total number of possible double letter mutations is 21 x 9 = 189. However, we must multiply by 2 to account for the fact that the mutation could occur in either order (e.g., AC to AG or CA to CG). Thus, the total number of possible double letter mutations is 189 x 2 = 378.

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homeostasis, which is the goal of drive reduction, is defined as

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Answer:

Explanation:

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment within an organism, despite changes in the external environment. Drive reduction is a concept in psychology that suggests that organisms are motivated to take actions that reduce their physiological needs and maintain homeostasis.

Therefore, the goal of drive reduction is to reduce the biological drives or needs of an organism, such as hunger or thirst, in order to maintain a stable internal environment and achieve homeostasis. This can be accomplished by taking actions such as eating or drinking to satisfy the body's physiological needs.

In summary, homeostasis is the stable internal environment maintained by an organism, and drive reduction is the process of reducing biological drives to achieve and maintain homeostasis.

Which of the following best explains the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades

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There are multiple factors that have contributed to the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades. Here are some of the most significant ones:

Improved access to birth control: The widespread availability of modern contraception has allowed people to control their fertility more effectively. This has led to a decline in unintended pregnancies and a reduction in the number of children born to each woman.

Education: Education has been shown to be a key factor in reducing population growth rates. As people become more educated, they tend to have fewer children and delay childbearing.

Economic development: Economic growth can also have a significant impact on population growth rates. As countries develop economically, their population growth rates tend to decline. This is because people have access to better healthcare, education, and employment opportunities, which can reduce the need for large families.

Urbanization: The shift from rural to urban areas is also associated with a decline in population growth rates. In cities, people tend to have smaller families and delay childbearing due to the high cost of living and the greater availability of education and job opportunities.

Overall, a combination of these factors has contributed to the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades.

what body system that includes the heart and blood vessels?

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The cardiovascular system includes the heart and blood vessels. The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body, and the blood vessels are the tubes through which the blood flows.

The cardiovascular system is responsible for circulating blood, oxygen, and nutrients to the body's cells, as well as removing waste products and carbon dioxide from the body. It plays a vital role in maintaining homeostasis and supporting the body's various physiological functions.

The blood vessels that make up the cardiovascular system include arteries, veins, and capillaries, and these vessels vary in size and structure depending on their location and function. Arteries are the large vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart and towards the body's tissues and organs. Veins, on the other hand, are the vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

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your brother has an autosomal recessive disorder, while you are unaffected. neither one of your parents is arrected. explain how this is possible

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It is possible that a brother has an autosomal recessive disorder while you are unaffected, and neither one of your parents is affected because of a phenomenon called carrier status. The parents could be carriers of the gene mutation that causes the autosomal recessive disorder.

The parents could be carriers of the gene mutation that causes the autosomal recessive disorder, but they do not express any symptoms of the disorder since they only have one copy of the mutated gene.When the parents have children, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit copies of the mutated gene and, thus, be affected by autosomal recessive disorder. This is because the child inherits one copy of the gene from each parent, and there is a 50% chance that the child will inherit one copy of the mutated gene and one copy of the normal gene, which makes them carriers of the gene mutation like their parents. The other 25% chance is that the child will inherit two copies of the normal gene and, therefore, be unaffected like you, their sibling with the autosomal recessive disorder.Autosomal recessive disorder is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Autosomal recessive disorders, unlike autosomal dominant disorders, require two copies of the mutated gene for the disease to develop. The probability of parents carrying an autosomal recessive disorder gene mutation is calculated by the probability of two carrier parents passing it down to their children, which is 25% for each child. However, because the mutation is not expressed in the carriers, the probability of the children expressing the mutation is 25% less than that.

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if an individual suffered damage to the brainstem, they would likely experience difficulty controlling their breathing, blood pressure and eye movements.
True False

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It is true that if an individual suffered damage to the brainstem, they would likely experience difficulty controlling their breathing, blood pressure and eye movements.

We know that the brainstem is part of the central nervous system, and is responsible for controlling many vital functions of the body, such as regulating breathing, blood pressure, heart rate and eye movements. Any damage to the brainstem can lead to a wide variety of symptoms, including confusion, difficulty walking, impaired movement and speech. Depending on the extent of the damage, the individual may experience partial or complete paralysis, loss of consciousness, and even coma. In extreme cases, it can be fatal.

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what kind of bond is bond holds together amino acids?

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The bond that holds together amino acids is called a peptide bond. Amino acids are organic compounds made up of an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH).

The bond that links amino acids together in a protein is a peptide bond. The process of peptide bond formation is known as peptide synthesis or condensation reaction, which involves the removal of a water molecule from two amino acids.

This process results in a bond between the carbon atom of the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the nitrogen atom of the amino group of another amino acid. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that are relatively strong and require a lot of energy to break.

The peptide bond's stability is critical to the formation of the protein's tertiary and quaternary structure, which are critical to its function. In conclusion, peptide bonds are the type of bond that holds amino acids together.

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according to the scientific view, how many years ago did life on earth begin?

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According to the scientific view, life on the planet Earth has begin about 3.5 billion years ago.

The methods through which living and fossil creatures have evolved over time, from the first appearance of life on Earth to the present, can be used to readily track the history of life on this planet.

The evidence implies that life has been on Earth before around 3.7 billion years ago, when the Planet was formed. Although there is some evidence of the existence of life as early as 4.1 to 4.28 billion years ago, it is still debatable because it is possible that non-biological processes other than life were involved in the formation of the planet's supposed fossils.

All currently recognized species of creatures share certain similarities, which suggests that they diverged from a common ancestor over the course of evolution over a set amount of time.

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On what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands? A. The face B. In the groin area C. on the arms and legs D. On the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

Answers

Answer:

You will not find sebaceous glands on D: The palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

Explanation:

They are generally associated with hair follicles. They are present to moisturize and waterproof the skin. You do not have hair on the soles of your feet or the palms of your hand so you would not find sebaceous glands there.

what 2 properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity?

Answers

The two properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane that allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity are the presence of folds called cristae and a high concentration of electron transport chain proteins.

What is the mitochondrial inner membrane?

The mitochondrial inner membrane is a very specific membrane that surrounds the mitochondrial matrix, which is where the Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and electron transport chain happen.

This membrane is crucial to the metabolic activity of the mitochondria because it is where the vast majority of the ATP that the cell requires is produced. It's also home to the electron transport chain, which is where the vast majority of energy is produced.

The mitochondrial inner membrane is very different from the outer membrane, which is a more porous membrane that helps to maintain the shape of the mitochondria.

The inner membrane, on the other hand, has a variety of specific characteristics that help it to carry out its metabolic function.

What two properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity?

There are two key properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane that allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity.

First, the inner membrane has folds called cristae that greatly increase its surface area. This increased surface area allows the inner membrane to hold more of the electron transport chain proteins that are responsible for producing energy.

This, in turn, allows the mitochondria to produce more ATP than it would be able to otherwise.

Second, the inner membrane is home to a high concentration of electron transport chain proteins, which are the proteins responsible for generating the vast majority of the energy that the cell requires.

This high concentration of electron transport chain proteins allows the mitochondria to produce energy at a much higher rate than it would be able to otherwise.

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(SCIENCE) 100 points in total so PLEASE help me

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Plants in Florida and plants in northern states both undergo seasonal changes that are impacted by the ebb and flow of the seasons. However the two areas' specific seasonal changing patterns are different.

How do plants in Florida react to seasonal changes?

What seasonal changes take place in Florida plants when spring starts to transition into summer Plant development slows as a result of plants having access to more sunshine. Trees start to develop buds, plants start to sprout and germinate, and plants start to bloom.

When time of year experience Florida plants a period of fresh growth?

In general: May through September is normally the summer growing season. More specifically: June through September are the typical months in North Florida. Mid-May to early October are the seasons in Central Florida.

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Question:

How are seasonal changes in Florida plants similar to and different from the seasonal changes of plants in northern states?

☆♪If seaweed covers most of Seafoam Reef, the reef's biodiversity will probably decrease. This will increase the reef's resilience, or ability to handle damage. This change will probably also increase the ecosystem services that Seafoam Island receives from the reef because more tourists will pay to visit.The scientists' projections show that if nothing is done to stop boat anchors from damaging corals, seaweed may eventually cover most of Seafoam Reef. This could become a major problem for both Seafoam Reef and Seafoam Island.☆♪

♡ ♡ If seaweed covers most of Seafoam Reef, the reef's biodiversity will probably decrease or increase. This will increase or decrease the reef's resilience, or ability to handle damage.♡
This change will probably also increase the ecosystem services that Seafoam Island receives from the reef because more tourists will pay to visit.♡

(Please chose decrease or increase)

♡ To solve this problem, the people of Seafoam Island should or should not consider changing how boat anchors are used on Seafoam Reef.

(Please chose should or should not)

Answers

If seaweed covers most of Seafoam Reef, the reef's biodiversity will probably decrease.

To solve this problem, the people of Seafoam Island should consider changing how boat anchors are used on Seafoam Reef.

What leads to decrease in biodiversity?

There are a variety of factors that can lead to a decrease in biodiversity, including; habitat destruction, climate change, overexploitation, pollution, invasive species, disease, human activities.

The decrease in the biodiversity will decrease the reef's resilience, or ability to handle damage. This change will probably not increase the ecosystem services that Seafoam Island receives from the reef because more tourists will not necessarily pay to visit if the biodiversity and resilience of the reef are diminished.

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Does bone thickness determine bone strength?

Answers

Answer: Bone strength is determined by bone geometry, cortical thickness and porosity, trabecular bone morphology, and intrinsic properties of bony tissue

Explanation: Bone strength is indirectly estimated by bone mineral density (BMD) using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA).  

Answer: Yes and no

Explanation:

A corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel at the top of the plant and the female flower forms the ear of corn. The silk that emerge from the ear are the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed. Which of these must happen for corn seed to develop on the ear?
more tassels than silks need to be present on the same plant
pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear
pollen must be transported from the tassel to the silk through the phloem
the tassels must come into direct contact with the silks of the ear.

Answers

Pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear for corn seed to develop on the ear.

Corn is a crop that is grown for food, feed, and fuel. Corn or maize (Zea mays) is a cereal grain that has been cultivated for human use for thousands of years. Corn is used in a variety of ways, including as a raw material for feed and fuel production, as well as a food source. It is the most widely produced grain in the world. Cornflower corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel at the top of the plant, and the female flower forms the ear of corn.

The ear of corn is the reproductive part of the plant, where the kernels are produced. The silk that emerges from the ear is the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed. For corn seed to develop on the ear, pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear. Corn is primarily pollinated by the wind, but bees, moths, and other insects can also contribute to the process. After fertilization, the corn kernel begins to grow and develop.

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The diagram is a cladogram that shows evolutionary relationships among several animal species.

Consider the clade that contains the lizard and wallaby but not the other animals listed in the diagram. What properties are common to all
of the members of this clade?
OA. Clade members physically resemble either lizards or wallabies, and they may or may not resemble other animals.
B. Clade members develop from an amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.
OC. Clade members have four limbs, and they may or may not develop from an amniotic egg.
D. Clade members develop from an amniotic egg, but they do not use mammary glands to feed their young

Answers

Properties common to all of the members of this clade : B.) Clade members develop from amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.

Considering the clade of lizard and wallaby, what properties are common to all members of this clade?

Clade members develop from amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.

This is because the lizard and wallaby are both amniotes, which means that they develop from amniotic egg that is surrounded by a fluid-filled membrane. This is a characteristic shared by all amniotes, including birds, reptiles, and mammals.

While wallabies are marsupials and give birth to relatively undeveloped young that complete their development in a pouch, lizards are not mammals and do not have mammary glands to feed their young.

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The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A) protect against animal predation.
B) ensure double fertilization.
C) form a seed coat.
D) direct development of the endosperm.
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.

Answers

The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to form a seed coat. So the correct answer is option C.

Integument is an outer covering that protects or encloses something. The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to form a seed coat. The integument is the outer covering of the ovule, which encloses the nucellus and the developing embryo sac. In seeds, the integuments are transformed into seed coats after fertilization, protecting the embryo within the seed. The ovule, the female reproductive unit of flowering plants, is formed from the ovary's ovule primordium.

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Name three different biomes that you saw Simba entered.
. Name 2 characteristics that allowed you to identify the biome.

Answers

Answer:

1. Grassland/Savannah

2.Jungle

3. Wasteland

Explanation:

1.It was obvious it was a grassland or a savannah due to it having little to few trees with tall grass spread out the entire horizon.

2.There were lots of tall trees with added vines. There were also some waterways accessible in the temperate biome.

3.There was little sign of life throughout the scene with that only being the hyenas, lion(scar), and decomposers. The area was full of rock, mountain, and bones acting as a literal grave yard as said in film.

does it seem likely that any of the seasonal changes noted in part ii, question 3, re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone in the autumn and winter?

Answers

Yes, it seems likely that some of the seasonal changes noted in part ii,  can help re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone in the autumn and winter.


During autumn and winter, several factors contribute to the re-oxygenation of the bottom waters in the dead zone. First, the cooling of surface waters leads to a decrease in water temperature.

As water cools, its density increases, causing it to sink and mix with the deeper, oxygen-depleted waters. This mixing process is known as vertical mixing, and it helps distribute oxygen throughout the water column.


Second, in autumn and winter, there are generally stronger winds that can facilitate the mixing of the water layers. Wind-driven mixing, also known as turbulence, helps break down stratification, which is the separation of water layers due to differences in temperature, salinity, and density.

As these layers mix, oxygen from the surface can be more effectively distributed throughout the water column, reaching the bottom waters.

Third, during the colder months, there is a reduction in primary productivity, such as phytoplankton growth. This results in less organic matter sinking to the bottom waters and decaying, which reduces oxygen consumption by decomposers. As a consequence, oxygen levels in the bottom waters can be more easily replenished.


In summary, seasonal changes like the cooling of surface waters, increased wind-driven mixing, and reduced primary productivity during autumn and winter can help re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone. These processes work together to improve oxygen distribution and restore the health of aquatic ecosystems in affected areas.

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what percentage of females are typically tuskless in an elephant population less affected by poaching? How does this compare to the populations studied by joyce poole?

Answers

The majority of African elephants have tusks, although approximately 6% of females in a group never develop them. Mature males without tusks are quite uncommon.

In contrast, 33% of females between the ages of 10 and 20 and 50% of females beyond the age of 20 lack tusks in Mozambique's Gorongosa National Park. There has never been a male without tusks in the park, indicating that tusklessness is a sex-related characteristic.

According to the New York Times, this finding shows that the tusklessness mutation may result in the death of male elephants. The scientists estimated that before the battle, 18.5% of female elephants lacked tusks. Tusklessness in elephant populations that have been well-protected can be as low as 2%. The majority of females in Gorongosa today lack tusks.

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1explain why the delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer asthe load became heavier in the experiment. how well did the results compare with yourprediction?

Answers

The delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer as the load became heavier in the experiment because it takes more time for the muscles to generate enough force to move a heavier load.

The results of the experiment compared well with the prediction, since the prediction was that the delay would increase as the load became heavier.

The delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer as the load became heavier in the experiment due to the increased tension within the muscle fibers. The muscle needs to generate more force to move the heavier load, and it takes longer for the muscle fibers to generate that force. The results were in line with the prediction, as it was expected that heavier loads would require more time for the muscle fibers to generate sufficient force to move the load.

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Adjacent angles ABD and DBC. The measure of angle DBC is 40 degrees.If mABC = 70, what is mABD? Justify your reasoning. (1 point)Using the addition property of equality, 40 + 70 = 110, so mABD = 110.Using the subtraction property of equality, 70 30 = 40, so mABD = 30.Using the Angle Addition Postulate, 40 + mABD = 70. So, mABD = 30 using the subtraction property of equality.Using the Angle Addition Postulate, 40 + 70 = mABD. So, mABD = 110 using the addition property of equality. What is the subject matter of most Impressionist paintings? .................................. 3, 9, 15,. Find the 45th term. lowden company uses job order costing and applies overhead to each job at the rate of 158% of direct materials cost. during the current period, direct labor cost is $57,000 and direct materials cost is $87,000. how much overhead cost should lowden company apply in the current period? After reading "Against the Odds", which is an informational text, write an objective summary focusing on the theme and main idea of what you read. Your summary should be a COMPLETE paragragh. Be sure to answer the following questions in your summary:Who is the text centered around?What event was going on within the text?When does this event take place?Where does event take place?How do the events play out?Why is this information imortant? discuss the influence of john lennon's post-beatles music and the impact of his death on popular musicians who followed. please refer to specific songs/artists/styles in your response. you must write at least 150 words to cover the topic briefly but thoroughly. What is the summary of the given paragraph below?Giving out BRAINLIEST. NEED HELP REALLY FAST, Will give Brainlest Fever 1793 book(Novel), Here are the questions PLEASE HELPFever, 1793 20 Fever, 1793 Chapter 18 Questions 1. What does Mattie decides she needs at the beginning of Chapter 18? How often did she usually have one of these before the fever? 2. What do Mattie and her grandfather eat? A simple soup with a few beans and spices.3. What does Mattie find in the garden that makes her dance? 4. What are some of Matties wishes for her future? Fever, 1793 21 Fever, 1793 Chapter 19 Questions 1. What was Mattie dreaming about at the beginning of the chapter, and what wakes her up? 1. How is Mattie discovered? 2. Why does Mattie not want to wake up Grandfather? 4. Why did the tall man want to catch Mattie? What does the man do to Mattie? 6. What does Grandfather do? 7. How are the robbers finally driven out? Fever, 1793 22 Fever, 1793 Chapter 20 Questions 1. What does Mattie get from the coffeehouse for Grandfathers burial? 2. How does Mattie help the man pushing the cart? 3. What does Mattie demand from the gravediggers? 4. What does Matties interaction with the gravediggers reveal about her character? 5. What does Mattie ask Mr. Brown to do and why does he refuse the request? Fever, 1793 23 6. What is the death toll at this point in the story? 7. What is a major problem for the survivors and those who are well? 8. What does Mattie find at the end of the chapter? Fever, 1793 24 Fever, 1793 Chapter 21 Questions 1. Who is Nell? 2. One of the neighbors suggests that Mattie can find help for Nell by talking to whom? Look in the Appendix. Write the title of the work that this man wrote, and tell why he wrote it. 3. Who does Mattie think she sees when she is walking up to get help for Nell? 5. What does Mattie decide is the only way to find Eliza? Fever, 1793 25 Fever, 1793 Chapter 22 Questions 1. How does Mattie react when she is reunited with Eliza? 2. Where does Eliza take Mattie and Nell? 3. What does Eliza tell Mattie about Mrs. Cook? 4. Who is Joseph, and who are Robert and William? 5. What will stop the fever? Fever, 1793 26 Fever, 1793 Chapter 23 Questions 1. Where does Eliza go in the morning? 2. Why does Mother Smith say that Mattie is cruel? 3. What does Mattie FINALLY end up deciding to do with Nell? What solidifies her decision? 4. What gossip does Eliza reveal about the Ogilvies? 5. What does she specifically mention about Colette? 6. Whose house do Eliza and Mattie pass? What gift does Mattie receive and from whom does she receive it? what is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant x heterozygous monohybrid cross? Which of the following are raw materials for photosynthesis?A. Oxygen and ATPB. Water and carbon dioxideC. NADP and hydrogenD. Glucose and oxygenE. Carbohydrates and NADPF. Carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight sherpath which explanation should a pediatric nurse provide to parents regarding why health promotion activities need to be ongoing? Why am I not getting correct anwsers on my geometry questions an intensive care unit nurse is caring for a client who suffered a myocardial infarction involving the anterior wall, and notes a change in the cardiac rhythm. the rhythm has a pr interval that does not change, but there are twice as many p waves as there are r waves. the nurse prepares for a temporary pacemaker insertion because the client has developed: What is the measure of angle P? Enter your answer as a decimal in the box. Round only your final answer to the nearest hundredth.P = ___ work out the value of (7^)^2 if 50g of solvent dissolve 25g of salt at 50c, what is the solubility of the salt at this temperature True/False? in the years following world war ii, record companies began to target teenagers for the first time. IN economies of scale, a company buys raw materials in bulk so that the average cost of goods goes ( ) as the production levels increase. Which stage of meiosis is most responsible for the genetic variation observed within a species? A. Metaphase II B. Prophase II C. Metaphase I D. Prophase