Answer:
Improved quality is equal to increased productivity and lower cost because when products or services are of higher quality, there are fewer defects or errors which lead to less time and resources spent on correcting those defects. This increases productivity as workers can focus on producing more and better products rather than fixing mistakes.
What picture comes to your mind when you think of that concept? (3 points)
Answer:
Please provide the concept so that people may be able to answer your question.
Explanation:
For an anesthesiologist
I. JOB DESCRIPTION
• Describe the care/service provided by the healthcare professional
• Describe the limits of authority and responsibility - legislated “scope of practice” for
this health care career
• Describe the “Code of Ethics” for this health care occupation
II. EDUCATION /REGISTRATION/CERTIFICATION
• Describe the educational requirements for the profession/occupation
• Identify at least two different educational institutions/schools offering the program.
• State how much time it takes to complete the program
• Describe the approximate cost for each of the educational institutions
• What is the minimum degree or certification that can be earned for this health care
career?
• Identify the professional certification or registration required
III. JOB OUTLOOK AND EMPLOYMENT
• What is the job availability for this profession? How many jobs are expected to
become available?
• Growth trends in the field: How much is the profession growing?
• Number of jobs advertised locally for example in the Sunday Herald or other
publication
• Is experience required for the jobs? How much? Explain.
• Salaries - Entry level and with experience
• Advancement opportunities, two or more, with or without additional education
5
HSC 0003, Health Care Career Paper (Rev. 7/2021,DF)
IV. PROFESSIONAL ACTIVITIES
• Local, State or National Professional Organization and cost to join as a student.
• Professional journal with publication address and cost.
• Are Continuing Educational Units (CEUs) required for this profession? How many and
how often?
• Describe two or more ways (not course subjects), that members of a professional
organization can gain continuing education requirements and earn CEUs
An anesthesiologist is a medical doctor who specializes in the care of patients undergoing surgical procedures or other medical interventions that require anesthesia.
What is anesthesiologist?The services provided by an anesthesiologist include:
Preoperative evaluation: Before a surgery or procedure, the anesthesiologist evaluates the patient's medical history, current medications, and any underlying medical conditions to determine the best anesthesia plan for the patient.
Anesthesia administration: The anesthesiologist administers various types of anesthesia such as general anesthesia, regional anesthesia, or local anesthesia based on the patient's needs and the type of procedure.
Intraoperative management: During the surgery, the anesthesiologist monitors the patient's vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.
Postoperative care: After the surgery, the anesthesiologist manages the patient's pain and provides other supportive care as needed.
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When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc
process.
When coding a method, it is not advised to work directly from the inc process. Thus, this claim is untrue.
Why is it contraindicated to execute procedure coding right from the inc process?The surgical incision, or the inc process, is just one part of the surgery and does not contain enough details to for correct coding of the complete procedure. To identify the precise operations carried out and the methods employed, it is crucial to check the whole medical record, including the operating report, while performing procedure coding. To guarantee correct and comprehensive coding, the coder should also refer to any appropriate coding rules and guidelines. Coding directly from the inc process could result in improper coding, which might therefore lead to inaccurate billing.
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When performing procedure coding, it is acceptable to code directly from the inc process. True or false?
What is the importance of highschool day celebration?
How do you use prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches
Prompting strategies and naturalistic teaching approaches are often used in special education and therapy to help individuals with developmental disabilities.
What are teaching approaches?Here are some examples of how these strategies can be used:
Prompting strategies:
Prompting involves providing cues or assistance to the individual to help them initiate or complete a task. There are several types of prompting strategies, including:
Verbal prompts: providing verbal instructions or cues to the individual
Visual prompts: using pictures, symbols, or other visual aids to prompt the individual
Physical prompts: physically guiding the individual through the task or activity
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a patient’s office visit qualifies for a code of 99214 with a $200.00 fee, but he will charge a lower office visit code of 99212 with a $95.00 fee instead, because he knows his patient is unable to afford the higher charge. Is this an acceptable practice? How necessary is accurate coding?
Coding example:99214 – 2593015 The physician codes an E/M go to (99214) and he also codes for the cardiovascular stress check (93015). The modifier 25 is added to the E/M go to to indicate that there was a one by one identifiable E/M on the same day of a procedure. ”
Does 99214 want a modifier?99214 – Office or other outpatient go to for the evaluation and management of an installed patient, which requires a medically gorgeous history and/or examination and reasonable stage of clinical choice making. The modifier stops the bundling of the E/M visit into the procedure.
Can we code 24 and 25 modifier together?Use each the 24 and 25 modifiers. Modifier 24 due to the fact the E/M carrier is unrelated and for the duration of the post-op length of the surgery. Modifier 25 to show the E/M is large and one after the other identifiable from the procedure.
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What are three indicators of diabetes?
hyperactivity
fluctuations in body temperature
sweating and pale skin
seizure or loss of consciousness
chest and abdominal pain
weakness and sleepiness
The three indicators of diabetes would be the following:
- Sweating and pale skin
- Seizure or loss of consciousness
- Weakness and sleepiness
I hope this helps! :)
Answer:
fluctuations in body temperature
weakness and sleepiness
seizure or loss of consciousness
Explanation:
Explain what it means to "lead up" and what are some characteristics this type of leader should have.
Answer: Lead-up means providing any strategy or path to achieve a certain level for an event or situation.
Explanation: A leader should have characteristics like-
1. Team building, A leader must guide everyone as a team in order to achieve something. He just knew how to use everyone's potential and traits.
2. Good communicator, A leader must have excellent communication so that his instructions are clear-cut to the team.
3. Excellent motivator, Motivation is the key to success. Humans need to get motivated from time to time in order to get effective work. So a leader should motivate his team.
4. Good management quality, As a leader his management towards work as well as with workers must be in favor of them so that work can be done smoothly.
5. Confident, A leader must be confident as his persona can influence the mass.
What are options for nutritional consumption?
What is The purpose of different health care insurances?
Answer:
The purpose of different health care insurances is to help individuals and families pay for their medical expenses, including doctor visits, hospital stays, prescription medications, and other health-related services.
There are several types of health care insurances available, each with its own purpose and benefits.
Private health insurance: This type of insurance is purchased by individuals or provided by employers. It can cover a wide range of medical services and may have different coverage levels, premiums, and deductibles.
Medicare: This is a federal health insurance program for people who are 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease. It has different parts, including Part A (hospital insurance), Part B (medical insurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage), and Part D (prescription drug coverage).
Medicaid: This is a joint federal and state program that provides health insurance to people with low income and limited resources. It covers a wide range of medical services, including doctor visits, hospital stays, and prescription medications.
Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP): This is a federal-state partnership that provides health insurance to children in families who earn too much to qualify for Medicaid but cannot afford private health insurance.
Military health care: This is health care coverage provided to active duty service members, veterans, and their families through different programs, including TRICARE.
Overall, the purpose of health care insurance is to provide financial protection and access to medical services for individuals and families. Different types of health care insurances can cater to different needs and circumstances, ensuring that people have options to choose from to suit their health care needs and budget.
Course administration
Course administration
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Competencies
All of the following are characteristics of x-rays except:
Select one:
CA. cause fluorescence.
O B. long wavelengths.
O C. cause ionization.
O D. invisible form of radiant energy.
Explanation:
The answer to question 2 is B. long wavelengths. All of the other options are characteristics of x-rays: they cause fluorescence, cause ionization, and are an invisible form of radiant energy.
limiting ____ in the medical office can help personnel ensure the claim form is correct and complete.
-referrals
-distractions
-patients
-paperwork
The medical staff can guarantee the claim form is accurate and complete by reducing distractions. The healthcare sector depends heavily on medical billing and coding, thus it's crucial that claim forms are correctly filled out to guarantee prompt payment for the services rendered.
What is the highest amount of monthly pay that can be considered for determining compensation under the Employee's Compensation Act of 1923?either $120,000 or the greater of the injured employee's monthly salary multiplied by the appropriate factor; provided, however, that the Central Government may, from time to time, by notification in the Official Gazette, increase this amount.
What are the defenses that an employer has against an injured worker's claim for compensation?The Doctrine of Assumed Risks: If the employee knew the nature of the risks he was undertaking when working in a factory, the employer had no liability for injuries. The court assumed that in such a case the workman had willingly accepted the risks incidental to his work.
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What is not a recommended way of quitting smoking?
a. quitting all at once
b. switching to low-tar cigarettes
c. taking prescription medicine
d. chewing nicotine gum
(I DO NOT SMOKE AND I DONT SUGGEST SMOKING IT IS HARMFUL AND CAN CAUSE LUNG CANCER THIS IS A QUESTION FOR MY HEALTH CLASS)
Answer:
I believe the answer is c.
4. Jill is focused on improving her flexibility and her muscles' ability to move through a full range of motion. What fitness class should Jill look for?
O A. Yoga
O B. Weightlifting
O C. HIIT
D. Cycling
What is meant by the “autonomy of patients”?
Autonomy means that medical support staff have no say in developing medical solutions.
Autonomy means that a doctor has the right to make choices for patients.
Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.
Autonomy means that a patient must carry out the doctor's instructions without deviation.
The correct answer to your question is C) Autonomy means that a patient has the right to make his own choices.
Autonomy is where a patient is capable of making his or her own decision. In the medical field, bodily autonomy is extremely important in making decisions that might affect the welfare of a patient. The only time autonomy may be restricted from a patient is when the patient is incapable of making a decision on their own. If this were to happen, a power of attorney will leave family members capable of medical decisions from that point forward.
2. The route of administration used for a drug depends on the intended use of the drug. What route of administration would Martha expect for each of the following illnesses or medications (oral, topical, inhaled, sublingual, mucous membrane, or parenteral route)? Why? a. Annual flu vaccination b. Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack c. Hyperlipidemia d. Nitroglycerin used for angina e. Dermatitis f. Allergic rhinitis g. Insulin h. Tinea pedis i. Conjunctivitis
2. The route of administration used for a drug depends on the intended use of the drug. What route of administration would Martha expect for each of the following illnesses or medications (oral, topical, inhaled, sublingual, mucous membrane, or parenteral route)? Why? a. Annual flu vaccination b. Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack e. Hyperlipidemia d. Nitroglycerin used for angina e. Dermatitis f. Allergic rhinitis g. Insulin h. Tinea pedis i. Conjunctivitis
For Annual flu vaccination, the most common route of administration for flu vaccination is via injection, which is a parenteral route.
Why is route of administration important?Bronchodilator for treatment of an acute asthma attack: The most effective and common route of administration for bronchodilators during an acute asthma attack is inhalation because it delivers the medication directly to the lungs, where it can act quickly.
Hyperlipidemia: Oral route is the most common route of administration for medication to treat hyperlipidemia because these medications need to be metabolized by the liver.
Nitroglycerin used for angina: Nitroglycerin is commonly administered sublingually because this route of administration allows for rapid absorption and onset of action.
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4. In a cohort study, the risk ratio of developing diabetes was 0.86 when comparing consumers of tea (the exposed) to those who did not drink tea (the unexposed). Which one statement is correct?
a) The tea drinkers have lower risk of developing diabetes
b) The tea drinkers have higher risk of developing diabetes
c) Based on the information given we cannot tell if the observed difference in disease risk is the result of chance
d) The risk ratio is close to the value one, so there is no difference in disease risk between the two groups
a) tea drinkers have a lower risk of developing diabetes.
The risk ratio of 0.86 indicates that the risk of developing diabetes is 14% lower in tea drinkers compared to those who do not drink tea. In other words, tea drinkers have a lower risk of developing diabetes than non-tea drinkers.
Cohort study
Cohort studies are a type of observational research that track a cohort of individuals over time to look into the relationship between an exposure (like drinking tea) and an outcome. (such as developing diabetes). Cohort studies are frequently used to examine the progression of illnesses and pinpoint their risk factors.
Participants in a cohort study are categorized according to their exposure status (exposed or unexposed) and are monitored over time to see if they acquire the desired outcome. The risk ratio or relative risk is then determined by comparing the incidence of the outcome between the exposed and unexposed categories.
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1. Thinking Critically: Read at least two opposite sources and write at least 150
words on the science and ethics of cochlear implants. Evaluate the impact of
the contention that deafness is a cultural reality to be honored, not
manipulated. What would you do if you faced with deafness for yourself or a
child under your care? (150+ words)
Cochlear implants are electronic devices that are surgically implanted into the inner ear to provide a sense of sound to people with severe hearing loss or deafness.
Which science is behind cochlear implants?The science behind cochlear implants is well-established, with studies showing that they can improve hearing and speech perception in the majority of users.
However, the ethics of cochlear implants is a contentious issue, with some members of the Deaf community viewing deafness as a cultural identity rather than a disability. They argue that deafness should be respected as a unique way of experiencing the world and that efforts to "cure" it through cochlear implants are a form of cultural erasure.
On the other hand, proponents of cochlear implants argue that they are a valuable tool for improving the quality of life of people with hearing loss, particularly children who may face social and educational challenges due to their deafness.
If faced with deafness for myself or a child under my care, I would carefully consider all options, including cochlear implants, sign language, and other forms of assistive technology. Ultimately, the decision would depend on individual circumstances and preferences, and would need to take into account both the medical and cultural aspects of deafness.
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6. Which typically occurs first in the birthing process?
The baby is pushed out of the uterus.
The mother begins producing breast milk.
The doctor cuts the umbilical cord.
The placenta is pushed out of the uterus.
explain the following
1 Preservation is a means of saving food for future use.
2 preserved food have a definite keeping time.
pls answer, today is the deadline
Answer: 1. Preservation refers to the process of treating food in a way that helps to maintain its quality, nutritional value, and safety over a prolonged period. The primary objective of preservation is to extend the shelf life of food so that it can be stored and consumed at a later time. There are various methods of food preservation, such as drying, smoking, salting, canning, and freezing, that are used to prevent spoilage by bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms.
2. Preserved food has a definite keeping time because the preservation process does not completely stop the chemical reactions that can lead to food spoilage. While preserving food can slow down the rate of spoilage, it does not completely stop it. As such, most preserved foods have a shelf life that is determined by the method of preservation used and the storage conditions. For instance, canned foods can typically be stored for several years, while dried foods and smoked meats have a shorter shelf life of a few months to a year. It is essential to follow the storage instructions provided for each type of preserved food to ensure that they are safe to eat and maintain their quality over time.
After choosing the best solution, an individual must
develop an action plan.
evaluate solutions.
define the problem.
implement an action plan.
The correct order for these steps is:
Define the problem.Evaluate solutions.Choose the best solution.Develop an action plan.Implement an action plan.What is then first step?Defining the problem is the first step in problem-solving because it helps to clarify the issue at hand and identify the root cause. Once the problem is clearly defined, the next step is to generate and evaluate possible solutions. After evaluating the options, the best solution is selected.
The next stage is to create an action plan, which entails breaking down the selected solution into SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) steps.
Finally, the issue is fixed by putting the action plan into practice. To make sure that the intended outcomes are attained, it is crucial to track the development and assess the effectiveness of the action plan both during and after implementation.
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Drag each tile to the correct box.
Put the jobs mentioned below in order from the highest to lowest level of education of the professional support service personnel.
Olga has a master's degree in physical
therapy,
but is not licensed yet. She creates
therapeutic
plans that her supervisor, a licensed
physical
therapist checks before administrating
them.
Jennifer is a student of physical therapy.
She works in a school part time under the
supervision of a licensed physical
therapist.
Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.
Who is physical therapist?A physical therapist, also referred to as a physiotherapist, is a trained healthcare professional with a license who focuses on musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, and cardiovascular disorders. The patients that physical therapists treat are of all ages.
The following positions are listed in order of professional support service personnel's highest to lowest level of education:
Olga, a physical therapist with a master's degree
Physical therapy student Jennifer works part-time under a certified physical therapist's supervision.
Olga has already finished a master's degree in physical therapy, which is a higher level of study, whilst Jennifer is pursuing a degree in the discipline. Olga is also in charge of developing the treatment strategies, and Jennifer is working under the guidance of a certified physical therapist.
As a result, Olga's job demands more training and experience than Jennifer's employment does.
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Prepare a set of guidelines you would follow if
asked to manage a commercial fitness club.
The guidelines for the management of the commercial fitness club can be summarized below.
What are the guidelines?
Here are some guidelines that you could follow if asked to manage a commercial fitness club:
Develop a clear vision and mission statement: The first step to managing a successful fitness club is to create a clear vision and mission statement. This will guide your decision-making and ensure that everyone on your team is working towards the same goals.
Hire qualified staff: Your staff is the backbone of your fitness club, so it's essential to hire qualified, experienced individuals. You should look for personal trainers, fitness instructors, and other staff members who are certified and have relevant experience.
Create a welcoming environment: It's important to create a welcoming and inclusive environment at your fitness club. This means ensuring that all members feel comfortable and safe while they're working out. You should also ensure that your staff is friendly and approachable.
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The impact of natural disasters are only seen among vulnerable population
TRUE OR FALSE
Answer: I believe this is True
Explanation: Research indicates they may also have trouble getting access to housing and other resources. The stress linked to lack of resources may have emotional and behavioral health consequences. People of lower SES after a disaster may be more likely to experience distress and depression.
Please give brainliest if correct!! <3
The patient is a diabetic, what blood tests would you expect the doctor to run in order to establish a baseline for the level of diabetic control? List 2 tests with their normal and abnormal ranges.
If the patient is a diabetic, the doctor would likely run several blood tests to establish a baseline for the level of diabetic control.
What are the test?Two tests that are commonly used to assess diabetic control are:
Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): This test measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. The normal range for HbA1c is less than 5.7%, while a result of 6.5% or higher indicates diabetes. An HbA1c result between 5.7% and 6.4% is considered prediabetes.
Fasting plasma glucose (FPG): This test measures the blood sugar level after an overnight fast of at least 8 hours. The normal range for FPG is between 70 and 100 mg/dL, while a result of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions indicates diabetes. A result between 100 and 125 mg/dL is considered prediabetes.
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explain the procedure and steps taken to investigate East Coast Fever on the farm.
East Coast fever is a tick-borne disease that affects cattle and is caused by a protozoan parasite called Theileria parva. If you suspect that your farm is affected by East Coast fever, you should take the following steps to investigate and control the disease:
Observe the cattle: The first step is to observe the animals and look for signs of the disease. These may include high fever, loss of appetite, labored breathing, and swollen lymph nodes. In severe cases, animals may show signs of nervous system involvement, such as paralysis or convulsions.
Collect blood samples: If you suspect that your animals have East Coast fever, you should collect blood samples for laboratory analysis. These samples can be tested for the presence of the parasite, and the results will confirm the diagnosis of East Coast fever.
Identify the tick vector: East Coast fever is transmitted by ticks, so it is important to identify the type of tick that is transmitting the disease on your farm. This will help you to determine the best control measures to use.
Control the tick population: Once you have identified the tick species responsible for transmitting East Coast fever, you can implement measures to control the tick population. These may include applying acaricides to the animals or their surroundings, as well as removing tall grass and weeds where ticks may be hiding.
Administer treatment: If your animals are diagnosed with East Coast fever, they will require treatment with antiparasitic drugs such as buparvaquone or imidocarb dipropionate. This treatment should be administered as soon as possible to improve the animal's chances of survival.
Preventive measures: To prevent the disease from spreading, it is important to isolate infected animals and prevent them from coming into contact with healthy animals. Additionally, you should quarantine any new animals that are brought onto the farm, and ensure that all animals are regularly checked for ticks and other diseases.
In summary, investigating and controlling East Coast fever on your farm involves observing the animals for signs of the disease, collecting blood samples for laboratory analysis, identifying the tick vector, controlling the tick population, administering treatment, and implementing preventive measures to stop the disease from spreading.
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Which describes a warm up protocol
A common warm-up protocol typically includes light cardio activity followed by active/static stretching and dynamic stretching.
What is warm-up protocolA warm-up protocol is a series of exercises or activities that are designed to prepare the body for physical activity or exercise. The goal of a warm-up protocol is to increase blood flow to the muscles, raise the body temperature, and prepare the muscles, joints, and nervous system for the upcoming activity.
A typical warm-up protocol may include light cardiovascular exercise such as jogging or jumping jacks, followed by dynamic stretching exercises that involve moving the muscles through a range of motion.
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Select THREE ways that the body reacts to low blood sugar to maintain homeostasis.
The heart beat begins to increase.
The repiration rate decreases.
The pancreas begins to shut down.
The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.
The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.
The answers to your questions are:
- The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
- The hypothalamus signals the adrenal gland.
- The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine, creating a feeling of hunger so the person will eat.
When the body has low blood sugar, you will start to feel extremely bad as your body goes into fight or flight mode. Insulin is what is used to break down the sugar in your body and when your sugar levels are dangerously low, the pancreas starts producing glucagon. This is what causes you to start feeling hungry as your body is warning you to increase your blood sugar level.
The pancreas decreases insulin production and increases glucagon.
Suggested ways of reducing tobacco consumption include
(A) Ban advertising of tobacco products
(B) Increase taxes on tobacco products
(C) Legal restrictions on smoking
(D) All of the following