Identify and explain the differences in the fate of NADH molecules produced in glycolysis AND their respective energy yields during the following conditions:
A. aerobic catabolism in a skeletal muscle fiber (cell)
B. catabolism in an erythrocyte (red blood cell, which lack mitochondria)
C. aerobic catabolism in a hepatocyte (liver cell)

Answers

Answer 1

The fate of NADH molecules produced in glycolysis AND their respective energy yields differ during the following conditions: Aerobic catabolism, Catabolism in an erythrocyte and hepatocyte.

A. Aerobic catabolism in a skeletal muscle fiber (cell): In this condition, the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis are transported into the mitochondria, where they are used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP. The energy yield in this condition is high, as each NADH molecule can produce up to 3 ATP molecules.

B. Catabolism in an erythrocyte (red blood cell, which lack mitochondria): In this condition, the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis are used to reduce pyruvate to lactate in a process called fermentation. The energy yield in this condition is low, as no ATP is produced from the NADH molecules.

C. Aerobic catabolism in a hepatocyte (liver cell): In this condition, the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis are transported into the mitochondria, where they are used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP. The energy yield in this condition is also high, as each NADH molecule can produce up to 3 ATP molecules.

In summary, the fate of NADH molecules and their respective energy yields differ depending on the presence or absence of mitochondria and the type of catabolism (aerobic or anaerobic) occurring in the cell.

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Answer 2

In glycolysis, NADH molecules are produced, and their fates and energy yields depend on the type of cell and the presence or absence of mitochondria.

The fate of NADH molecules produced in glycolysis and their respective energy yields are different under the following conditions:Aerobic catabolism in a skeletal muscle fiber (cell): In this condition, the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis are shuttled into the mitochondria, where they are used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP. The energy yield from this process is approximately 2.5 ATP molecules per NADH molecule.Catabolism in an erythrocyte (red blood cell, which lacks mitochondria): Since erythrocytes lack mitochondria, the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis cannot be used in the electron transport chain. Instead, they are used to reduce pyruvate to lactate, which is then transported out of the cell. The energy yield from this process is 0 ATP molecules per NADH molecule.Aerobic catabolism in a hepatocyte (liver cell): Like skeletal muscle fibers, hepatocytes have mitochondria and can use the NADH molecules produced in glycolysis in the electron transport chain to produce ATP. However, the energy yield in hepatocytes is slightly lower, at approximately 2.3 ATP molecules per NADH molecule, due to the presence of uncoupling proteins in the mitochondria that allow protons to leak back into the matrix without producing ATP.

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Related Questions

How would you classify the materials in the picture?

Answers

Explanation:

This is not possible with out knowing the materials in the picture

list the changes DNA causes within an organism

Answers

Answer:

A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism. Mutations can result from errors in DNA replication during cell division, exposure to mutagens or a viral infection.

Explanation:

goodluck

What is the advantage of probiotics over antibiotics in dealing with staph aureus
infections?

Answers

The main advantage of probiotics over antibiotics when dealing with Staph aureus infections is that probiotics are able to help restore the balance of bacteria in your gut, which can help reduce the severity and duration of the infection.

Antibiotics, on the other hand, can kill both the bad and the good bacteria, leading to disruption of the normal balance of gut bacteria. This disruption can lead to a weakened immune system, digestive problems, and other health complications. Therefore, probiotics are a better option for treating Staph aureus infections than antibiotics.

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True or false? SNP microarrays contain probes with SNPs, and \( \mathrm{CGH} \) microarrays contain probes for short sequences of DNA. WGS will reveal many sequence variants that differ from the refer

Answers

True. SNP microarrays contain probes with SNPs, and CGH microarrays contain probes for short sequences of DNA. Whole-genome sequencing (WGS) will reveal numerous sequence variants that differ from the reference sequence.

The human genome contains 3 billion DNA building blocks (nucleotides), and scientists use many methods to investigate these blocks. A SNP microarray, which can test thousands to millions of SNPs at once, is one such method. SNP stands for "single nucleotide polymorphism," which refers to a difference in one DNA base among people's genomes.SNP microarrays contain probes with SNPs. The probes can identify which SNPs are present in a sample of genomic DNA based on the hybridization of the probes to the genomic DNA.

CGH microarrays use probes to detect DNA copy number differences between genomic samples. CGH stands for "comparative genomic hybridization," and it can identify DNA copy number changes throughout the genome. CGH microarrays contain probes for short DNA sequences. The probes can determine which regions of a sample's genome are present in varying quantities depending on how many probes bind to the target DNA.

Whole-genome sequencing (WGS) is a laboratory method that can determine the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome. WGS detects all nucleotide variations, including single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), insertions, deletions, and structural variations (SVs). WGS provides a complete view of the genome and detects the greatest number of variants. Although WGS has some drawbacks, such as high cost and data storage requirements, it is a powerful technique for identifying genetic differences between individuals.

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How is the information in a DNA molecule expressed in an organism?

Answers

Answer:

through the order, or sequence, of the nucleotides along each strand and by what traits the organism has

Explanation:

What can we conclude about the climate on the Serengeti between 1960-75?​

Answers

The Serengeti is a vast ecosystem located in East Africa that spans across Tanzania and Kenya. It is known for its grasslands, savannas, and large populations of wildlife, including wildebeest, zebras, and big cats.

The climate of the Serengeti is typically hot and dry, with two distinct seasons: the dry season and the wet season. The dry season usually occurs between June and October, while the wet season takes place between November and May.

During the dry season, the weather is characterized by hot days, cool nights, and low humidity. The vegetation in the region dries up, which makes it easier for visitors to spot wildlife, as animals are forced to gather around the few remaining sources of water.

During the wet season, the weather is characterized by hot and humid conditions, with frequent rainfall. The vegetation in the region becomes lush and green, which provides ample food for the wildlife.

Without specific data on the climate during the period of 1960-1975, it is not possible to draw a conclusion about the climate on the Serengeti during that time frame.

how does an entire population become adapted to its environment

a. traits that help individuals survive and reproduce become more common in the population over successive generations
b. each new variation becomes an adaptation as the organisms learn to use it
c. a population chooses which traits will help it survive
d. individuals develop changes during their lifetime and pass good changes to their offspring

Answers

The correct answer is a. Traits that help individuals survive and reproduce become more common in the population over successive generations. This process is known as natural selection.

Compare adaptations in protostomes and deuterostomes for living on land. Drag the appropriate Adaptations to their respective bins.
amniotic egg
scarly skin
waxy cuticle tracheal respiratory system shells thick membranes in egg osophagus-originated lungs

Answers

The comparation between adaptations in protostomes and deuterostomes for living on land. The appropriate Adaptations to their respective bins are protostomes: waxy cuticle, tracheal respiratory system , and shells. And deuterostomes: amniotic egg, scaly skin, and osophagus-originated lungs.

Both protostomes and deuterostomes have developed various adaptations for living on land. These adaptations include, protostomes:
- Waxy cuticle: This helps to prevent water loss and protects the animal from desiccation.
- Tracheal respiratory system: This system allows for efficient gas exchange in terrestrial environments.
- Shells: Many protostomes, such as snails, have shells that protect them from predators and help prevent water loss.

Deuterostomes:
- Amniotic egg: This type of egg has a protective membrane that helps prevent water loss and allows the embryo to develop on land.
- Scaly skin: Reptiles, a type of deuterostome, have scaly skin that helps prevent water loss and protects them from predators.
- Osophagus-originated lungs: Many deuterostomes, such as mammals, have lungs that originated from the osophagus and allow for efficient gas exchange on land.

Both protostomes and deuterostomes have developed thick membranes in their eggs to help prevent water loss and protect the developing embryo. In conclusion, both protostomes and deuterostomes have developed a variety of adaptations to help them survive on land, including structures to prevent water loss, protect from predators, and allow for efficient gas exchange.

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please use an article and post as well the link.
A3: SARS-Cov-2 (18 february 2022) Research the new medical term "SARS-CoV-2". Write up a brief report (less than 1 page long) of your research and post it in the "Discussions" Board in Canvas.

Answers

A3: SARS-Cov-2 (18 february 2022) The new medical term "SARS-CoV-2". A brief report (less than 1 page long) of your research and the post the "Discussions" Board in Canvas is SARS-CoV-2 is the medical term for the novel coronavirus that causes the disease COVID-19. It is a type of coronavirus that is closely related to the original SARS virus (SARS-CoV) that caused an outbreak in 2002-2003.

SARS-CoV-2 was first identified in December 2019 in Wuhan, China and has since spread globally, causing a pandemic. The virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person talks, coughs, or sneezes. It can also be spread by touching surfaces that have been contaminated with the virus and then touching one's face. Symptoms of COVID-19 can range from mild to severe and include fever, cough, and difficulty breathing.

There is currently no specific treatment for COVID-19, but research is ongoing to find effective treatments and vaccines. In the meantime, public health measures such as wearing masks, physical distancing, and frequent hand washing are recommended to prevent the spread of the virus. For more information on SARS-CoV-2 and COVID-19, check out the following article from the World Health Organization: https://www.who.int/emergencies/diseases/novel-coronavirus-2019/technical-guidance/naming-the-coronavirus-disease-(covid-2019)-and-the-virus-that-causes-it

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ou know that a genus of bacteria, such as Streptococcus, is PYOGENIC. Thus you also know that itSelect one:a. is bacteria capable of chemotaxis.b. is not a pathogen.c. causes elevated temperatures in the bodyd. is a pus forming bacteriae. will repel neutrophils and so survive better in the body.

Answers

A genus of bacteria, such as Streptococcus, is pyogenic, which means it is a pus forming bacteria. The correct answer is d. is a pus forming bacteria.

Pyogenic bacteria are a type of bacteria that can cause the formation of pus. Pus is a thick fluid that contains dead cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. It is often a sign of an infection or inflammation in the body. Streptococcus is a genus of bacteria that is known to be pyogenic, meaning that it can cause the formation of pus.

Therefore, if you know that a genus of bacteria, such as Streptococcus, is pyogenic, you also know that it is a pus forming bacteria.

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How might a complex molecule in the diet of an animal be used? Group of answer choices
a) As a source for the simple molecules necessary for the assembly of cells
b) As a hormone to regulate blood glucose levels
c) As an enzyme that functions in the process of aerobic cellular respiration
d) To support photosynthesis
e) To synthesize inorganic minerals such as iron

Answers

A complex molecule in the diet of an animal might be used as a source for the simple molecules necessary for the assembly of cells. This is the correct answer choice, and it is represented by option a) "As a source for the simple molecules necessary for the assembly of cells".

Complex molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids, are broken down into simpler molecules through the process of digestion. These simpler molecules are then used by the animal's body to build new cells and tissues, and to produce the energy needed for the animal to carry out its various life functions.

Option b) As a hormone to regulate blood glucose levels, option c) As an enzyme that functions in the process of aerobic cellular respiration, option d) To support photosynthesis, and option e) To synthesize inorganic minerals such as iron are all incorrect answer choices, as complex molecules in the diet of an animal are not typically used for these purposes.

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A dental office staff member who transmits a disease because he or she failed to remove protective clothing prior to entering a store on the way home from work is an example of __________________ disease transmission

Answers

The given statement is an example of indirect disease transmission.

Indirect transmission occurs when an infectious agent is passed to a person from an environmental source, such as contaminated food or water, or from another person who is not directly contagious.

A dental office staff member who transmits a disease because he or she failed to remove protective clothing prior to entering a store on the way home from work is an example of indirect disease transmission.

Indirect disease transmission occurs when a disease is spread through an intermediate source, such as contaminated objects or surfaces. In this case, the staff member's protective clothing is the intermediate source, as it likely came into contact with infectious material during the workday and then spread the disease to others in the store. It is important for healthcare workers to properly remove and dispose of protective clothing to prevent the spread of disease.

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Some proteins interact selectively with other proteins or molecules (such as substrates) to perform their functions. The selection of one target substrate out of a mixture of substrates depends on: Group of answer choices: a) multiple weak interactions between the protein and its substrate
b) a single strong interaction between the protein and its substrate
c) covalent bond formation between the protein and its substrate
d) multiple strong interactions between the protein and its substrate
e) peptide bond formation between the protein and its substrate

Answers

The selection of one target substrate out of a mixture of substrates depends on multiple weak interactions between the protein and its substrate. Therefore, the correct answer is option a) multiple weak interactions between the protein and its substrate.

What Is Protein?

Proteins are macromolecules that perform a wide range of functions in living organisms. One of the most important functions of proteins is to interact selectively with other proteins or molecules to perform their functions. This selective interaction is achieved through multiple weak interactions between the protein and its substrate. These weak interactions include hydrogen bonds, electrostatic interactions, and van der Waals forces. These interactions allow the protein to recognize and bind to its specific substrate, ensuring that the protein performs its function accurately and efficiently.

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_______ It is also called nearsightedness and is a form of refractive error related to alterations in the development of the anterior segment, rather than axial length, that occur in individuals born prematurely

Answers

The condition that is being described in the question is known as Myopia. It is a common vision condition that causes objects that are far away to appear blurry, while objects that are near appear clear. Myopia occurs when the shape of the eye causes light rays to bend incorrectly, resulting in a refractive error. This can be due to the development of the anterior segment of the eye, which includes the cornea and lens, being altered in individuals born prematurely.

As a result, the light rays focus in front of the retina, rather than on the retina, leading to blurry vision. Myopia can be corrected with glasses, contact lenses, or surgery.

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You know the sequence of Protein #3.
How many fragments would you get if you used trypsin to fragment Protein #3?
Group of answer choices
a. 13
b. 12
c. 14
d. 17
e. 18

Answers

If you used trypsin to fragment Protein #3, you would get a. 13 fragments.

Trypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that is capable of cleaving peptide bonds at the carboxyl side of lysine and arginine amino acid residues. When trypsin acts on a protein, it produces several smaller peptides, with each peptide having a single free carboxyl group and an amino group at the ends.

Therefore, when trypsin is used to fragment a protein, the protein is cleaved into several smaller peptides, with each peptide being a fragment.

Thus, the correct answer would be option a. 13 fragments.

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Acetylcholine is a chemical secreted at the ends of nerve cells. This chemical helps to send nerve sigels aoross synapses,(spaces between nerve cells). After the signal passes across a synapse, an enzyme breaks down the acetylcholine. LSD is a that blocks the action of this enzyme. Describe one possible effect of LSD on the action of acetylcholine.

Answers

As LSD prevents the enzyme that degrades acetylcholine from working, the molecules of acetylcholine may not be degraded and may instead continue to excite the receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.

How does acetylcholine move a signal electrically from one neuron to another?

An electrical impulse must travel along a motor neuron until it reaches the cell's end before it may contract a muscle. In order for the neurotransmitter to traverse the synaptic cleft and attach to receptors on the opposite side of the cell, it subsequently causes the release of acetylcholine from small vesicles.

What happens at a neuronal synapse when acetylcholine is present?

In the brain, acetylcholine modifies neuronal excitability, affects synaptic transmission, promotes synaptic plasticity, and synchronises the firing of neural networks.

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Although many types of vesicles are similar in size and density, it is possible to isolate specific types of vesicles through the use of:
A) light microscopy.
B) antibodies attached to bacterial carriers and low speed centrifugation.
C) ultracentrifugation.
D) a fluorescent-activated cell sorting machine.

Answers

Although many types of vesicles are similar in size and density, it is possible to isolate specific types of vesicles through the use of C) ultracentrifugation.

Vesicles are typically small, spherical-shaped packages of fluid or semi-fluid material that are often enclosed in a lipid membrane.

Exosomes, microvesicles, and apoptotic bodies are three of the most common types of vesicles. Although many types of vesicles are similar in size and density, specific types of vesicles can be isolated through the use of ultracentrifugation.

Ultracentrifugation is a process that is used to fractionate biological materials based on size, shape, and density. Ultracentrifugation can be used to purify various cellular organelles and subcellular particles, such as viruses and vesicles.

In summary, although many types of vesicles are similar in size and density, specific types of vesicles can be isolated through the use of ultracentrifugation.

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Questions 1. Define enzymes and give the class(es) of macromolecules to which enzymes belong. 2. Identify the substrate and products of the peroxidase-catalyzed reaction. 3. Explain why guaiacol is necessary in this experiment.

Answers

1.

Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up the rate of chemical reactions in biological processes without being consumed in the reaction. Enzymes belong to the class of macromolecules called proteins.

2.

The substrate of the peroxidase-catalyzed reaction is hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and the products are water (H2O) and oxygen (O2).

3.

Guaiacol is necessary in this experiment because it acts as an indicator of the peroxidase-catalyzed reaction. Guaiacol reacts with the oxygen produced in the reaction to form a brown-colored compound, which allows for the measurement of the reaction rate through color change.

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Question

The Canyon Spotted Whiptail and the Sonoran Spotted Whiptail are lizard species that occupy the same habitat. The Canyon Spotted Whiptail population is composed of males and females that reproduce sexually while the Sonoran Spotted Whiptail is an all-female species that reproduces asexually.


Which species is MOST LIKELY to survive an environmental catastrophe and why?


A The Canyon Spotted Whiptail is most likely to survive because male and female members of the species produced bigger offspring.


B The Sonoran Spotted Whiptail is most likely to survive because all members of the species can reproduce.


C The Canyon Spotted Whiptail is most likely to survive because genetic variation improves their chances of adapting.


DThe Sonoran Spotted Whiptail is most likely to survive because genetic similarities help to keep the species stable.

Answers

C. The Canyon Spotted Whiptail is most likely to survive because genetic variation improves its chances of adapting.

In case of any catastrophes environmental hazards, the population with greater genetic variations as seen in offspring's produced by sexual reproduction is more likely to survive. As let'say for example their are 100 offspring's produce out of which 99 are heat labile but 1 due to genetic variation is heat stable that will survive sudden increase in temperature.

Which are functions of the lysosome?
Choose all that apply:

creation of lipids

cell membrane repair

digestion

protein synthesis

creation of membranes

immune response to bacteria

Answers

The lysosome functions include Digestion, Cell membrane repair and immune response to bacteria. Lysosomes do not play a direct role in protein synthesis, lipids creation, or membranes.

What are lysosomes?

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells that contain hydrolytic enzymes necessary for intracellular digestion and the recycling of macromolecules. The word "lysosome" comes from the Greek words "lysis," meaning dissolution or breakdown, and "soma," meaning body.

What is the responsibility of lysosomes?

Lysosomes are responsible for degrading and recycling various cellular components, such as organelles, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids, that are no longer needed or have become damaged. They also play a role in cell membrane repair and immune response by fusing with phagosomes to destroy ingested bacteria or other foreign particles.

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Flying animals is an example of a ________ grouping. a. Paraphyletic b. Polyphyletic c. Monophyletic

Answers

Flying animals is an example of a polyphyletic grouping.

Paraphyletic, polyphyletic, and monophyletic grouping are terms used in evolutionary biology to describe how organisms are classified based on their evolutionary relationships.

Paraphyletic grouping: a group of organisms that includes a common ancestor and some, but not all, of its descendants. In other words, it is a grouping that excludes one or more groups of descendants that share a common ancestor. For example, if birds were grouped with reptiles but excluded the group of reptiles that gave rise to birds (dinosaurs), this would be a paraphyletic grouping.

Polyphyletic grouping: a group of organisms that does not include the most recent common ancestor of all its members. In other words, it is a grouping that includes organisms from different evolutionary lineages that do not share a recent common ancestor. For example, if both birds and bats were grouped together as flying animals, this would be a polyphyletic grouping because they do not share a recent common ancestor that had the ability to fly.

Monophyletic grouping: a group of organisms that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants. In other words, it is a grouping that contains all the organisms that share a common ancestor. For example, if birds were grouped with their closest living relatives (crocodiles) to form a clade, this would be a monophyletic grouping because it includes all the descendants of the common ancestor of birds and crocodiles.

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An asteroid orbits the Sun at an average distance of 91.010 AU. What is its orbital period in years? Compute your answer to there decimal places

Answers

The orbital period of an asteroid can be calculated using Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion. The orbital period of the asteroid is approximately 868.670 years.

It states that the square of the orbital period of a planet (or asteroid) is proportional to the cube of its average distance from the Sun.

Mathematically, this can be written as:
T² ∝ R³

Where T is the orbital period in years and R is the average distance from the Sun in astronomical units (AU). Rearranging this equation to solve for T gives:
T = √(R³)
Plugging in the given value of R = 91.010 AU gives:
T = √(91.010³)
T = √(754,292.701)
T = 868.670
Therefore, the orbital period of the asteroid is approximately 868.670 years. This answer is rounded to three decimal places as requested.

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In pea plants, tall stems are dominant to short stems, and purple flower color is dominant to white flower color.
a. If a homozygous tall, white plant is crossed with a homozygous short, purple plant, what will be the phenotype of the F1 generation?
b. If an F1 plant from this cross is then crossed with to a homozygous tall white plant, what will be the possible phenotypes of the offspring, and in what expected proportions?

Answers

a. If a homozygous tall, white plant is crossed with a homozygous short, purple plant, the phenotype of the F1 generation will be heterozygous tall, purple plants. b. If an F1 plant from this cross is then crossed with to a homozygous tall white plant, the possible phenotypes of the offspring will be heterozygous tall, purple plants and heterozygous tall, white plants in 1:2 expected proportions.

a. Homozygous tall, white plant is crossed with a homozygous short, purple plant, the phenotype of the F1 generation will be heterozygous tall, purple. A Punnett square can be used to determine the F1 offspring. The genotype of the homozygous tall, white parent would be TTWW and the genotype of the homozygous short, purple parent would be ttww.

Therefore, the F1 offspring will be heterozygous tall, purple plants (TtWw).

b. If an F1 plant from this cross is then crossed with a homozygous tall white plant, the possible phenotypes of the offspring would be heterozygous tall, purple plants and heterozygous tall, white plants. The expected proportions of the offspring are:

1/4 of the offspring would be homozygous tall, white (TTWW).

1/4 of the offspring would be homozygous short, purple (ttww).

1/2 of the offspring would be heterozygous for both traits (TtWw).

A Punnett square can be used to determine the offspring of the cross.

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Mount Kinabalue in Malaysia has the greatest concentration of wild orchids on Earth. It
contains more than 750 species, or about one-fourth of all orchid species in Malaysia.
How many orchid species are there in Malaysia?



(4) 1/4 x < 750 (4)

X < 3,000

Answers

Answer:

the answer us 3000

Explanation:

750×4

True or False: A decrease in the activity of cholesterol
receptors in the membranes of liver cells would increase the
concentration of LDL cholesterol in the blood.

Answers

The given statment "a decrease in the activity of cholesterol receptors in the membranes of liver cells would increase the concentration of LDL cholesterol in the blood." is true because decrease in the activity of cholesterol receptors in the membranes of liver cells would increase the concentration of LDL cholesterol in the blood.

This is because cholesterol receptors are responsible for removing LDL cholesterol from the blood and transporting it into the liver cells. If the activity of these receptors decreases, less LDL cholesterol will be removed from the blood, leading to an increase in its concentration.

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How are telomeres related when eukaryotic DNA polymerase is
unable to replace the RNA primer of the "last" Okazaki fragment?
What is the role of shelterin and the T-loop?

Answers

Telomeres are regions at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes that are critical for protecting the DNA from degradation. When DNA polymerase is unable to replace the RNA primer at the end of the last Okazaki fragment during replication, the telomere region allows the cell to recognize the end of the chromosome and prevents it from being lost during the replication process.

The shelterin complex and the T-loop structure are important components of telomeres. The shelterin complex is made up of several proteins and helps to regulate telomere length and protect the ends of the chromosomes. The T-loop is a structure formed by the telomere sequence which wraps around itself, further protecting the telomere from degradation.

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taskAmong 30,000 children, 30 were observed to express a heritable form of dwarfism caused by theautosomal, dominant allele ’A’. Further investigation revealed that 20 of the new born children withdwarfism had a dwarf parent, while the remaining 10 dwarf children has two parents of normalgrowth.Estimate the mutation frequency μ from the normal allele ’a’ to the dwarfism allele ‘A’.

Answers

The following formula can be used to calculate the mutation frequency from the normal allele "a" to the dwarfism allele "A":

(Amount of new mutations) = (total number of gametes)

Estimate the mutation frequency μ from the normal allele ’a’ to the dwarfism allele ‘A’.

In this instance, we can assume that the 10 children with dwarfism who have two parents with normal height are the new mutations. This is due to the fact that these kids must have undergone a new mutation in order to acquire the dwarfism allele since they cannot inherit it from their parents.

Since each individual has two gametes, the total number of gametes can be calculated to be twice the number of individuals. Consequently, the population's total number of gametes is:

30,000 x 2 = 60,000

Thus, the estimation of the mutation frequency is as follows:

μ = 10 / 60,000\sμ = 0.00017 or 0.017%

The estimated mutation frequency from the dwarfism allele "A" to the normal allele "a" is therefore 0.017%.

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Read the AMA Code of Ethics created in 1847 and the current AMA
Code of Ethics. Focus on at least 4 areas & Compare and
contrast. The response should be at least 300 words.

Answers

The American Medical Association (AMA) Code of Ethics is a set of guidelines and principles that are designed to guide the ethical behavior of physicians and other medical professionals.

The original AMA Code of Ethics was created in 1847, and has since been revised and updated several times to reflect the changing needs and values of the medical community.

One area of difference between the original and current AMA Code of Ethics is the focus on patient autonomy. The original Code of Ethics emphasized the importance of the physician-patient relationship and the need for physicians to act in the best interests of their patients. However, the current Code of Ethics places a greater emphasis on the importance of patient autonomy and the need for patients to be actively involved in their own healthcare decisions.

Another area of difference is the approach to confidentiality. The original Code of Ethics emphasized the importance of maintaining patient confidentiality, but did not provide specific guidelines for how to do so. The current Code of Ethics includes more detailed guidelines for protecting patient privacy and maintaining confidentiality, including the need to obtain patient consent before sharing information and the importance of safeguarding electronic medical records.

A third area of difference is the approach to conflicts of interest. The original Code of Ethics did not specifically address conflicts of interest, but the current Code of Ethics includes detailed guidelines for identifying and managing conflicts of interest, including the need for physicians to disclose any financial or personal relationships that may influence their medical decision-making.

Finally, the current AMA Code of Ethics places a greater emphasis on the importance of cultural competency and the need for physicians to be sensitive to the cultural and social needs of their patients. The original Code of Ethics did not specifically address these issues, but the current Code of Ethics includes guidelines for providing culturally appropriate care and the need for physicians to be aware of and address any biases that may impact their care of patients.

Overall, the AMA Code of Ethics has evolved significantly since it was first created in 1847, reflecting the changing needs and values of the medical community and the importance of providing ethical, patient-centered care.

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describ transcription, what is GTFs are,(b) what are
proteasomes?how do the work?

Answers

Transcription is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. GTFs are General Transcription Factors, while Proteasomes are protein complexes that degrade unneeded or damaged proteins, working by breaking them down into small peptides.

During transcription, the DNA double helix is unwound and one of the strands serves as a template for RNA synthesis. RNA polymerase, aided by General Transcription Factors (GTFs), binds to the promoter region of the DNA and initiates RNA synthesis. GTFs help to recruit RNA polymerase to the correct site and to stabilize its interaction with the DNA.

Proteasomes, on the other hand, are protein complexes that play a critical role in maintaining cellular homeostasis by degrading unneeded or damaged proteins. Proteins that need to be degraded are tagged with ubiquitin molecules, which serve as a signal for recognition and degradation by proteasomes.

The proteasome complex recognizes the ubiquitin tag and unfolds the protein before breaking it down into small peptides. This process is critical for removing abnormal or misfolded proteins, as well as for regulating the levels of important signaling proteins in the cell.

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If members of two species are in direct competition with each other and one of those species is outcompeting the other species, what are at least two outcomes the losing species would face?

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If members of two species are in direct competition with each other and one of those species is outcompeting the other species. The two outcomes that the losing species would face are:  Reduction in population size and Extinction.

Reduction in population size: If one species is outcompeting the other species, it will lead to a reduction in the population size of the losing species. This is because the losing species will have less access to resources such as food, water, and shelter, which are necessary for survival and reproduction.

Extinction: If the losing species is unable to adapt to the competition and cannot find alternative resources, it may eventually become extinct. Extinction occurs when there are no more individuals of a species left alive.
Overall, competition between species can have a significant impact on the losing species, leading to a reduction in population size or even extinction.

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