heat is produced as a by-product when contracts and relaxes. true/false

Answers

Answer 1
Yes there is heat. This is to have the by product make the muscles relax.
Answer 2

The statement “Heat is produced as a by-product when contracts and relaxes” is false because Heat is not produced as a direct by-product when a muscle contract and relaxes.

Heat production in the body is mainly attributed to metabolic processes, such as cellular respiration, which occurs in all cells. When nutrients are broken down to produce energy, heat is released as a result. Muscle contractions contribute to heat generation because they require energy derived from metabolism.

However, the amount of heat produced by muscle contractions is relatively small compared to the overall heat production in the body. The primary function of muscle contractions is to produce force, and movement, and enable various bodily functions rather than to generate heat, the statement is false.

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Related Questions

Fluoridation of public water reduces a population's rate of __________ .
-dental caries
-dehydration
-cancer
-goiter

Answers

Answer:goiter

Explanation:

When Tamara feels tired at work and needs energy she eats a candy bar. what chemical reaction is occurring in her body?

Answers

Answer:

When Tamara eats a candy bar, her body breaks down the carbohydrates in the candy bar to glucose in a process called glycolysis. The glucose is then transported into her cells, where it undergoes a series of chemical reactions called cellular respiration that result in the production of ATP, a molecule that provides energy to the cells. In short, the chemical reaction that occurs in Tamara's body when she eats a candy bar is cellular respiration, which converts glucose into ATP to provide the energy needed for her cells to function.

When measuring respirations, which of the following must you do? Choose the
answer.
A. Tell the patient you are taking his respirations.
B. Ask the patient to sit in a chair.
C. Refrain from telling the patient you are taking his respirations.
D. Place your hand over the patient's heart.

Answers

Answer:c and

Explanation:

telling the patient you are taking resp could cause them to breath at a different rate so you would not get a true answer

Which of the following is true of ball-and-socket joints?

A. They're very susceptible to injury.
B. You have three pairs of them in your body.
C. They have a very limited range of motion.
D. They aren't very flexible

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

Which statement describes peer pressure?

A teen lets her friends give her used makeup even though she is worried about passing germs.
A teen decides not to drink alcohol at a party even though she sees other people drinking.
A teen lets his friends know how much their support means to him even though he does not have to.
A teen decides to go to a party and makes some new friends there even though he did not think he would

Answers

Answer:

A teen lets her friend give her used makeup even though she is worried about passing germs.

Explanation:

The girl goes with what her friends want instead of what she feels is best. This is describes peer pressure.

Health problems caused by doing too much physical activity are called_

Answers

Answer:

hyperkinetic condition

Explanation:

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what is one function of the lower esophageal sphincter?

Answers

Normal LES function allows food transit from the esophagus into the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents back into the esophagus

at a company picnic you see an elderly man grab his chest and fall to the ground what the first thing you do

Answers

Call 911 and try to help the elderly man while help is on the way

Excess gas can form when bacteria in the intestines break down the indigestible part of a meal and produce a lot of gas.

Answers

When fibre, some starches, and some sugars that are not digested in the small intestine are Excess gas by bacteria in the large intestine (colon), gas is produced.

What is the term for intestinal gas that is too much?

Flatulence is the term for excessive gas in the gastrointestinal tract that results in gas discharge. Flatus refers to the petrol that is expelled. Individuals who experience problems with flatulence can think they pass too much gas or that the flatus smells bad. Sulfur in the flatus could be the cause of the smell.

What kind of bacteria causes gas production in the intestine?

Among the most common bacteria that cause intestinal gas are Bacteroides, Ruminococcus, Roseburia, Clostridium, Eubacterium, Desulfovibrio, and Methanobrevibacter. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen make up more than 99% of intestinal gas.

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health condition that may require reduced intake of saturated and trans fats is called____

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Cardiovascular disease, also known as heart disease, is a health condition that may require reduced intake of saturated and trans fats. Saturated fats are found in animal products such as butter, red meat, and cheese, and are also found in some vegetable oils such as coconut oil, palm oil, and cocoa butter.

Trans fats, on the other hand, are found in processed foods such as snack foods, baked goods, and fried foods. Eating too many saturated and trans fats can increase levels of bad cholesterol (LDL) in the blood, which can lead to an increased risk of heart disease.

Eating a diet that is low in saturated and trans fats can help to reduce the risk of heart disease, such as coronary heart disease, stroke, and congestive heart failure. Replacing saturated and trans fats with unsaturated fats, such as those found in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils, can help to reduce cholesterol levels and improve heart health.

Additionally, following a healthy and balanced diet, exercising regularly, and maintaining a healthy body weight can also help to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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what is the minimum percent of vitamins a, c, calcium, & iron you should you try to consume each day?

Answers

The minimum percent of vitamins A and C, calcium, and iron that you should aim to consume each day can vary based on factors such as age, sex, and overall health status.

However, in the United States, the recommended daily values (RDVs) for these nutrients are: Vitamin A: 900 micrograms (mcg) for adult men and 700 mcg for adult women, Vitamin C: 90 milligrams (mg) for adult men and 75 mg for adult women, Calcium: 1000 mg for most adults, and 1200 mg for women over 50 and men over 70, Iron: 8 mg for adult men and postmenopausal women, and 18 mg for premenopausal women.

These values represent the minimum amount of these nutrients that are recommended for most healthy adults to consume each day. However, individual nutrient needs can vary based on factors such as age, sex, and health status, and it is always best to consult with a healthcare provider or registered dietitian for personalized recommendations.

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why do you think teenagers are so susceptible to being introduced to drug use?

Answers

Answer: Because it's natural for them to experiment with party drugs.

Explanation: picture is explanation

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease, in that symptoms:
A) are specific for a particular disease.
B) are changes felt by the patient.
C) Always includes the patient's temperature.
D) are changes observed by the physician.
E) always occur as part of a syndrome.

Answers

Answer: B, C, E

Explanation: B) are changes felt by the patient. C) Always includes the patient's temperature.  E) always occur as part of a syndrome.

Two people are having a discussion. What should they do to ensure that the discussion is positive and rewarding?

A.
They should withhold their views to avoid being judged.

B.
They should speak openly with few inhibitions.

C.
They should steer the conversation in their favor.

D.
They should speak more than they listen.

Answers

B is the best course of action because it allows them to speak freely and without much restraint, which will ensure that the conversation is fruitful and rewarding. It's crucial for both parties to actively listen, clarify their understanding with questions, and look for areas of agreement. A productive and satisfying conversation can be sparked by attempting to comprehend the other person's viewpoint and demonstrating respect for their opinion. Options A, C, and D can make it harder to communicate clearly and result in a less fruitful discussion.

4. Discuss Erikson's Psychosocial Development Theory and focus on the adolescent stages of development including the roles peers play
during this stage.

Answers

Erikson's Psychosocial Development Theory proposes that individuals go through eight stages of psychosocial development throughout their lifespan, with each stage characterized by a unique developmental crisis that individuals must resolve to progress to the next stage. The fifth stage, which occurs during adolescence, is Identity vs. Role Confusion.

During adolescence, individuals begin to develop a sense of identity, including their sense of self, their values, and their goals for the future. This stage is marked by a sense of exploration and experimentation as individuals try out different identities and roles to find one that fits them best. The primary conflict in this stage is between developing a stable sense of self and experiencing role confusion.

Peers play a crucial role during this stage, as they provide social support and opportunities for social comparison. Adolescents often turn to their peers for validation, acceptance, and feedback, and they may model their behaviors and attitudes after their peers. Peers can also be a source of pressure and influence, and adolescents may feel pressure to conform to peer norms and expectations, even if it conflicts with their own sense of self.

Moreover, Erikson proposed that the successful resolution of the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage leads to the development of a sense of fidelity or loyalty, which includes a sense of commitment to oneself, one's values, and one's relationships with others. Adolescents who have a strong sense of identity and fidelity are more likely to have positive self-esteem, better mental health, and successful interpersonal relationships.

In summary, during the adolescent stage of development, individuals go through the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage of Erikson's Psychosocial Development Theory. Peers play a significant role during this stage, providing social support, opportunities for social comparison, and potential sources of pressure and influence. The successful resolution of this stage leads to the development of a sense of fidelity or loyalty, which is important for healthy psychosocial development.

What is the name of the condition that is caused by eating excessive?

Answers

Answer: Binge-eating disorder

Explanation: Consuming large amount of foods in one sitting while still feeling hungry. It's often caused by stress, emotional, or psychological related problems.

__________ are threatening events that have a relatively short duration and a clear end point. a. chronic stressors b. frustrations c. acute stressors d. conflicts

Answers

Answer: Hello there, the answer you're looking for is C or the third option: Acute Stressors. Good luck and have a nice day. I'm glad I was able to help.

Explanation:

what type of medication is most likely to cause patient harm

Answers

Medications with a higher potential for harm are those with a narrow therapeutic index or those with a high risk of adverse effects.

What is a narrow therapeutic index medication and why is it more likely to cause harm to patients?

Narrow therapeutic index medications are drugs with a small difference between the dose required to produce a therapeutic effect and the dose that can cause harm. They are more likely to cause harm because a small change in dose can result in toxicity or lack of efficacy.

What are some factors that increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in patients?

Factors that increase the risk of adverse drug reactions include age, weight, liver or kidney function, genetics, drug interactions, and comorbidities.

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The purpose of a consumer advisory is to advise customers of the potential risk of a

Answers

The purpose of a consumer advisory is to advise customers of the potential risk of a product or service, so that they can make informed decisions about whether or not to purchase or use it.

A consumer advisory typically contains information about any known or potential hazards associated with a product or service, as well as instructions for safe use and handling.

Consumer advisories are often issued by government agencies, such as the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC), when there is evidence that a product or service may pose a risk to consumers. For example, a consumer advisory might be issued for a food product that has been linked to an outbreak of foodborne illness, or for a toy that has been found to pose a choking hazard to young children.

Consumer advisories can also be issued by private organizations, such as consumer advocacy groups or trade associations. In these cases, the advisory is typically intended to provide consumers with unbiased information about the potential risks and benefits of a product or service, so that they can make informed decisions about whether or not to purchase or use it.

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how long does it take for an allergic reaction rash to go away

Answers

Allergic reaction rashes can range from mild to severe and the length of time it takes for an allergic reaction rash to go away will depend on the severity of the reaction.

Generally, a mild allergic reaction rash should start to improve within a few hours or days of avoiding the allergen or by taking over-the-counter medications such as antihistamines.

Severe allergic reactions may require medical treatment and/or an emergency visit to the hospital as well as avoiding the allergen and taking medications. In some cases, a severe allergic reaction can take weeks to fully resolve.

If a rash does not improve even after avoiding the allergen or after taking antihistamines, it is important to visit a doctor to determine the cause and find an appropriate treatment plan.

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medication that is effective in preventing and treating shifts in feelings

Answers

There is no single medication that is effective in preventing and treating shifts in feelings, as shifts in feelings can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions such as depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, and other mental health disorders.

The treatment for shifts in feelings depends on the underlying cause and may involve a combination of medications and psychotherapy. Antidepressants, mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, and anti-anxiety.

Medications are some of the medications that may be used to treat shifts in feelings, depending on the underlying diagnosis and the severity of the symptoms. It's important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate treatment plan for individual needs.

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fda advisers recommended approval of a vaccine for people over 60 to prevent which illness?

Answers

The vaccine approved by FDA advisors is for the prevention of shingles among people aged 60 and above. The vaccination has an effective rate of 90% and is recommended for adults who have already had shingles.

The drug could reduce the severity and risk of complications from a repeat occurrence of shingles. Shingles is a skin rash caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which is the same virus that causes chickenpox. This disease can cause severe pain, itching, and a blistering rash that usually appears on one side of the face or body.

It can also cause fever, headache, chills, and upset stomach. Shingles can last for several weeks and can lead to long-term nerve damage, especially in older adults. It can cause chronic pain, vision loss, and even blindness in some cases.

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internal statesthat prompts inquisitive, stimulation-seeking, and exploratory behavior

Answers

The internal state that prompts inquisitive, stimulation-seeking, and exploratory behavior is curiosity.

Curiosity is an important motivator for learning and exploration, and it is present in humans and many other animals.Curiosity is defined as the desire to learn or know something new or unknown. It is a strong motivator for learning and exploration, driving people to seek out new experiences and information. Curiosity is linked to inquisitive, stimulation-seeking, and exploratory behavior because it prompts individuals to ask questions, seek out new experiences, and explore their environment.

When people are curious, they are more likely to engage in activities that help them learn and grow. For example, a curious student may ask their teacher questions, seek out new books to read, or experiment with different ideas to better understand a concept. Curiosity is often seen as a positive trait because it can lead to increased knowledge, creativity, and innovation. However, it can also be dangerous if not balanced with other important traits like caution and critical thinking.

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Why do studies that use probability samples have excellent external validity?
- They also ensure excellent internal validity.
- They study every member of the population of interest.
- They use a large number of measures.
- All members of the population are equally likely to be represented in the sample.

Answers

Studies that use probability samples have excellent external validity because all members of the population are equally likely to be represented in the sample.

This means that the results of the study can be generalized to the entire population of interest with a high degree of confidence. Probability sampling methods, such as simple random sampling, stratified sampling, and cluster sampling, are designed to ensure that every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for inclusion in the study.

This reduces the risk of sampling bias and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. While probability sampling methods do not guarantee excellent internal validity or the use of a large number of measures, they are considered the gold standard for achieving excellent external validity.

Hence, the correct option is D.

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what is exercise induced Amenorrhea and how does it affect females ?

Answers

Answer: Exercise-induced amenorrhea (EIA) is a condition in which the menstrual cycle stops or becomes irregular due to excessive physical exercise. It is most common in female athletes or women who engage in intense physical activity.EIA can occur due to a combination of factors, including low body weight, low body fat percentage, and high levels of physical activity. When the body is under stress from excessive exercise, it may shift resources away from the reproductive system, leading to irregular or absent menstrual cycles.EIA can have several effects on females, including:Infertility: EIA can affect a woman's ability to conceive, as irregular menstrual cycles can make it difficult to predict ovulation.Bone Loss: Women with EIA are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis due to decreased levels of estrogen. This can lead to weaker bones and an increased risk of fractures.Hormonal Imbalances: EIA can lead to imbalances in hormone levels, which can cause a range of symptoms such as acne, hair loss, and mood changes.Increased Risk of Cardiovascular Disease: Studies have shown that women with EIA may be at a higher risk of developing cardiovascular disease due to decreased levels of estrogen.

Answer: Its a condition that occurs in female athletes due to environmental, nutritional, and metabolic stressors.

Explanation:  The Journal of Clinical Endocrinology & Metabolism states that the reproductive system's sensitivity to these stressors causes the suppression of menstruation in athletes.

Of the following options, which would be the best way for a college student to increase his or her intake of folate? A. Consume a spinach salad topped with strawberries and slivered almonds for lunch. B. Choose an animal source of protein rather than a plant source of protein at dinner. C. Choose skim milk instead of calcium-fortified orange juice as a beverage at breakfast. D. To prepare a sandwich, choose whole grain bread instead of bread made from enriched wheat flour.

Answers

Answer: a

Explanation: i got it from a ".gov" website.

A. Consume a spinach salad topped with strawberries and slivered almonds for lunch would be the best way for a college student to increase their intake of folate. Spinach is a good source of folate, and strawberries and almonds also contain folate.

What is folate?

Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is a crucial nutrient that is necessary for many bodily functions, including the production of red and white blood cells, the formation of DNA and RNA, and the metabolism of certain amino acids. It is especially important for pregnant women, as folate deficiency can lead to birth defects in the baby's brain and spinal cord.

Of the given options, A would be the best way for a college student to increase their intake of folate. Spinach is an excellent source of folate, and strawberries and almonds also contain some folate. By consuming a spinach salad topped with strawberries and slivered almonds for lunch, the college student would be getting a good dose of this important nutrient.

Option B, choosing an animal source of protein over a plant source, would not be the best way to increase folate intake as animal products typically do not contain folate.

Option C, choosing skim milk over calcium-fortified orange juice, would not be helpful in increasing folate intake either, as neither of these beverages contain much folate.

Option D, choosing whole grain bread over bread made from enriched wheat flour, is a healthy choice, but does not directly increase folate intake.

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How will self improvement elevate your community?​

Answers

Answer: Answer is below <3

Explanation: Self-improvement helps enhance strengths, improve mental health, and even heal relationships. Some ways of self-improvement include simple tasks such as reading a book, trying something new, mediating, or even waking up early. There are so many simple, effective ways to start a self-improvement process.

activities that incorporate balance, coordination, gait, agility and proprioception are part of health-related fitness called _____________.

Answers

Activities that incorporate balance, coordination, gait, agility and proprioception are part of health-related fitness called neuromotor functional fitness training.

This two-way communication between the brain and the body is enhanced by neuromotor training. Functional fitness is to train the physiological systems of the body to make them more effective in carrying out daily tasks, or the numerous ways we move, lift, bend, and twist thousands of times a day. When you combine neuromotor and functional training, you are educating your muscles to cooperate rather than to act independently.

It enhances your brain's capacity for deciphering and processing kinesthetic feedback, or where you are in space. Balance depends heavily on this, which usually deteriorates with age.

Movement, not only muscles, are the main focus. More efficient, skilled, safe, and successful movement patterns are developed as a result. Through improved body alignment and body awareness, the quality of our movements also improves as a result.

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Which is a short-term effect of mole. Station?

Answers

Answer: regressive behaviors

Explanation:

a disease in which a person has a physical or psychological dependence on alcohol is called?

Answers

Alcoholism or Alcohol dependence
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