The maximum distributed service load (30% DL including beam weight, 70%LL) that can be applied to the 50 ft long simply supported beam is 0.109 kip/ft.
How to find?The self-weight is equal to the weight of the beam per unit length multiplied by the length of the beam. Wt of W24x62 = 62 pounds per foot
The self-weight of the beam = 62 plf x 50ft
= 3100 lbs
Step 2
Next, find the allowable bending stress for A36 steel. The allowable bending stress for A36 steel is given by:
[tex]Fy / SF = 36 / 1.67[/tex]
= 21.56 ksi,
The maximum moment that can be applied to the beam is given by:
= ² / 8
Where w = the total load acting on the beam per unit length, including the beam's self-weight,
l = the length of the beam.
The distributed load that can be applied to the beam is given by:
[tex]W = 1.3 x (62 x 1 + q)[/tex]
= 80.6 q plf
Where 1 is the beam weight, q is the load factor.
L = 50 ft
The maximum moment that can be applied to the beam is
[tex] = (80.6q × 50²) / 8[/tex]
Step 4
Compute the maximum bending stress using the maximum moment and the beam's cross-sectional properties.
= /
Where is the section modulus of the beam.
The section modulus of the W24x62 beam is given in the AISC manual.
= 47.9 in³, Where in³ represents cubic inches.
The maximum bending stress is = /
Now that you have calculated the maximum bending stress, compare it with the allowable bending stress.
Step 5
If the maximum bending stress is less than the allowable bending stress, the beam can withstand the maximum moment calculated in step 3. ≤ , where is the allowable bending stress for A36 steel.
= (80.6q × 50²) / 8
= ×
= ( / ) ×
Therefore, / = ≤
= 21.56 ksi
For the maximum moment to be applied to the beam, the maximum bending stress must be less than or equal to the allowable bending stress.
Hence, solve for q as follows:
= (80.6q × 50²) / (8 × 47.9)
= × 8 × 47.9 / (80.6 × 50²)
Putting the values, we get
= 8 × 47.9 × 21.56 / (80.6 × 50²)
= 0.109 kip/ft
The maximum distributed service load (30% DL including beam weight, 70%LL) that can be applied to the 50 ft long simply supported beam is 0.109 kip/ft.
To know more on Service load visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32224700
#SPJ11
Pradip bought some shares of micro-finance. But, after the continuous depreciation on the values of shares of a company every year, he got Rs.202500 after2 years by selling the shares he bought. Find how many shares of Rs. 100 per share did Pradip buy 2years ago?
Pradip bought 225 shares of Rs. 100 per share two years ago.
Let the number of shares that Pradip bought be x. Therefore, the total cost of the shares is 100x, since each share cost Rs. 100.
Since the value of shares of the company depreciated every year, we must account for this depreciation in our calculations.
We know that the value of the shares after two years is Rs. 202500. Therefore, their value after one year is 1/2 of this, or Rs. 101250.
We also know that the value of the shares decreased by the same percentage every year. As a result, their value after the first year was 100% - d% of their initial value, and their value after the second year was (100% - d%) of their value after the first year, or(100% - d%) × Rs. 101250.
Substituting 100x for the initial value of the shares, we get:(100% - d%) × (100% - d%) × 100x = 202500Simplifying the equation, we get:(100% - d%)² = 202500 / 100x We need to find the value of x that satisfies this equation. We can use trial and error, or we can use a calculator to solve it.
The answer is x = 225.
For more such questions on two years
https://brainly.com/question/24274034
#SPJ8
Solve the problem. James has set up an ordinary annuity to save for his retirement in 16 years. If his monthly payments are $225 and the annuity has an annual interest rate of 7%, what will be the value of the annuity when he retires? a.$83,260.33
b.$68,163.88
c.$59,445,24
d.$79,260,33
Rounding the value to two decimal places, the value of the annuity when James retires is approximately $83,179.29.
But, None of the provided answer choices match the result exactly, so it seems there might be an error in the answer choices or the question itself.
To calculate the value of an annuity, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity:
FV = P * [(1 + r)^n - 1] / r
Where:
FV = Future value of the annuity
P = Monthly payment
r = Monthly interest rate (annual interest rate divided by 12)
n = Number of payments (number of years multiplied by 12)
Given information:
Monthly payment (P) = $225
Annual interest rate = 7%
Number of years (n) = 16
First, let's calculate the monthly interest rate (r):
r = (7% / 12) = 0.07 / 12 = 0.0058333
Next, let's calculate the number of payments (n):
n = 16 years * 12 months/year = 192 months
Now, let's calculate the future value of the annuity (FV):
FV = 225 * [(1 + 0.0058333)^192 - 1] / 0.0058333
Evaluating the expression inside the brackets first:
(1 + 0.0058333)^192 ≈ 3.2045162
FV = 225 * (3.2045162 - 1) / 0.0058333
Simplifying further:
FV = 225 * 2.2045162 / 0.0058333
FV ≈ 83179.2899
None of the provided answer choices match the result exactly, so it seems there might be an error in the answer choices or the question itself.
Learn more about value of an annuity:
https://brainly.com/question/25792915
#SPJ11
A well of 0.4 m diameter fully penetrates a 25-m-thick confined aquifer of coefficient of permeability of 12 m/day. The well is located in the center of a circular island of radius 1km. The water level at the boundary of the island is 80 m. At what rate should the well be pumped so that the water level in the well remains 60 m above the bottom?
Therefore, the well should be pumped at a rate of 0.012 m³/day so that the water level in the well remains 60 m above the bottom.
Given, Diameter of the well = 0.4 m
Radius of the island = 1 km
Thickness of the confined aquifer = 25 m
Coefficient of permeability of the aquifer = 12 m/day
Initial water level at the boundary of the island = 80 m
Final water level in the well = 60 m above the bottom
We need to find the rate at which the well should be pumped.
Step 1: Determine the Transmissibility of the Aquifer
We know that,
Transmissibility (T) = coefficient of permeability * thickness of the aquifer
T = 12 m/day * 25 m = 300 m²/day
Step 2: Determine the Resistance of the Aquifer to Flow
The resistance of the aquifer to flow is equal to the distance from the well to the edge of the island.
Since the well is located in the center of the island, the radius of the island is the resistance of the aquifer to flow.
R = 1 km = 1000 m
Step 3: Determine the Drawdown
The drawdown is the difference between the initial water level and the final water level.
Drawdown = 80 m - 60 m = 20 m
Step 4: Calculate the Pumping Rate
The pumping rate can be calculated using the formula,
Q = (2πT/h) * (dC/dr)
Q = (2πT/h) * S
Where,
Q = pumping rate
T = transmissibility of the aquifer
h = resistance of the aquifer to flow
S = drawdown
dC/dr = the slope of the water table
We know that the slope of the water table is equal to the drawdown divided by the radius of the island.
dC/dr = S/R = 20/1000 = 0.02
Using this value in the formula, we get,
Q = (2πT/h) * S = (2π * 300 / 1000) * 0.02Q = 0.012 m³/day
Therefore, the well should be pumped at a rate of 0.012 m³/day so that the water level in the well remains 60 m above the bottom.
To know more about permeability visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1023696
#SPJ11
125 moles of gaseous propane are stored in a rigid 22.6 L tank. The temperature is 245°C.
Determine the pressure inside the tank (atm).
The pressure inside the tank is 20.5 atm.
To determine the pressure inside the tank, we can use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT, where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the temperature in Kelvin.
First, we need to convert the temperature from Celsius to Kelvin by adding 273.15. Thus, the temperature becomes 245 + 273.15 = 518.15 K.
Next, we can rearrange the ideal gas law equation to solve for pressure: P = (nRT) / V. Substituting the given values, we have P = (125 moles * 0.0821 L·atm/(mol·K) * 518.15 K) / 22.6 L.
Simplifying this equation gives us P = 20.5 atm.
Learn more about Pressure
brainly.com/question/29341536
#SPJ11
a) In the triaxial unconsolidated undrained test performed on a clayey soil with a zero internal friction angle and a cohesion of 0.90 kg/cm², what would be the load applied to the soil sample at the time of fracture when the cell pressure is 2.0 kg/cm²? Show the values found on the Mohr circle? The soil sample has an initial diameter of 5.0 cm, an initial height of 10.0 cm, and a height of 9.28 cm at break. (pi= 3,14)
The triaxial unconsolidated undrained test performed on a clayey soil with a zero internal friction angle and a cohesion of 0.90 kg/cm² resulted in a load applied to the soil sample of 2.90 kg/cm² at the time of fracture.
In the triaxial unconsolidated undrained test, a zero internal friction angle and a cohesion of 0.90 kg/cm² was performed on a clayey soil. The soil sample has an initial diameter of 5.0 cm, an initial height of 10.0 cm, and a height of 9.28 cm at break. The cell pressure applied is 2.0 kg/cm².
The values found on the Mohr circle can be shown as below[tex][tex](σ_1 + σ_3)/2[/tex] = P [tex](σ_1 - σ_3)/2[/tex]\\ C + P × tan φσ_1 = (P + C) + P × tan φσ_3 = C[/tex]
As the internal friction angle is zero, tan φ is zero. .
From the above equation, we can find that σ1 = σ3 + P + C, and σ3 = CAt the time of fracture, [tex]σ_3 = C = 0.90 kg/cm²[/tex].
Therefore, [tex][tex]σ_1 = 2.0 + 0.90 + 2.0 × 0 = 2.90 kg/cm²[/tex],[/tex]
Average stress [tex](σ_1 + σ_3)/2[/tex] = (2.90 + 0.90) / 2 = 1.90 kg/cm²Therefore, the main answer is as follows:At the time of fracture, the load applied to the soil sample is 2.90 kg/cm².
The values found on the Mohr circle are [tex]σ_1 = 2.90 kg/cm²[/tex] and [tex]\\σ_3 = 0.90 kg/cm²[/tex].
Triaxial testing is a laboratory testing procedure that is used to evaluate the mechanical properties of soil and rock samples. In triaxial testing, a cylindrical specimen of soil or rock is placed inside a pressure chamber, which is then filled with water or another liquid.
The specimen is then subjected to a confining pressure, which is applied evenly around its circumference. The purpose of this test is to determine the strength and deformation characteristics of soil or rock samples under different loading conditions. The triaxial unconsolidated undrained test is a type of triaxial test that is commonly used to measure the shear strength of soft soils.
In this test, the soil sample is loaded to failure without allowing it to drain or consolidate. The zero internal friction angle and a cohesion of 0.90 kg/cm² values were used to perform the triaxial unconsolidated undrained test on a clayey soil.
At the time of fracture, the load applied to the soil sample was found to be 2.90 kg/cm². The Mohr circle is a graphical representation of the stress state at a point in a material. It is commonly used in geotechnical engineering to evaluate the strength of soils and rocks.
The Mohr circle was used to determine the stress state of the soil sample at the time of fracture. The values found on the Mohr circle were [tex]σ_1 = 2.90 kg/cm²[/tex] and [tex]σ_3 = 0.90 kg/cm²[/tex].
Therefore, it can be concluded that the triaxial unconsolidated undrained test performed on a clayey soil with a zero internal friction angle and a cohesion of 0.90 kg/cm² resulted in a load applied to the soil sample of 2.90 kg/cm² at the time of fracture.
To know more about friction angle visit:
brainly.com/question/33591302
#SPJ11
pls answer right away, in numerical solutions ty..
3. Fit the curve y = ax²+bx+c to the given data below using Lagrange Polynomial Interpolation. X 1 2 3 4 5 y 0.25 0.1768 0.1443 0.125 0.1118
Fit the curve y = ax² + bx + c to the given data using Lagrange Polynomial Interpolation, we can follow these steps:
1. Define the given data:
X = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]y = [0.25, 0.1768, 0.1443, 0.125, 0.1118]2. Determine the Lagrange polynomials for each data point:
Define the Lagrange polynomial for each data point as L_i(x), where i represents the index of the data point.L_i(x) = Π[(x - X_j) / (X_i - X_j)], where j ≠ i and Π denotes the product notation.3. Express the curve y = ax² + bx + c in terms of Lagrange polynomials:
y(x) = Σ[y_i * L_i(x)], where y_i represents the corresponding y-value of each data point.4. Calculate the coefficients a, b, and c by substituting the given data into the expression for y(x):
Substitute x = X_1, X_2, X_3, X_4, and X_5, and solve the resulting system of equations to obtain the coefficients.5. Substitute the calculated coefficients into the equation y = ax² + bx + c to obtain the final curve that fits the given data.
By using Lagrange Polynomial Interpolation, we can determine the coefficients a, b, and c to fit the curve y = ax² + bx + c to the given data. This method provides a polynomial approximation that passes through all the given data points.
Learn more about Lagrange Polynomial Interpolation :
https://brainly.com/question/32644877
#SPJ11
given that f is continuous on[a,b] and [a,b] and |f'(x)|<2 everywhere on(a,b) except that f is not differentiable at two points d1
The given problem states that there exists a continuous function f on the interval [a, b], and its derivative f'(x) is bounded by 2 for all x except at two points d1. These two points d1 are where f is not differentiable.
To understand this problem step by step, let's break it down:
Continuity of f on [a, b]: A function is said to be continuous on an interval if it is continuous at every point within that interval. Here, f is continuous on [a, b], which means that for any x in [a, b], f(x) exists and the limit of f(x) as x approaches any point c in [a, b] also exists.
Differentiability of f: Differentiability refers to the property of a function where its derivative exists at every point within its domain. However, in this problem, f is not differentiable at two points, denoted as d1. This implies that the derivative of f does not exist at those two specific points.
Boundedness of f'(x): The condition |f'(x)| < 2 means that the absolute value of the derivative of f is always less than 2 for all x in the interval (a, b). In other words, the rate of change of f, as measured by its derivative, is always within a certain range (bounded) except at the two points d1 where f is not differentiable.
Overall, the problem states that there is a continuous function f on the interval [a, b], except for two points d1 where it is not differentiable. The derivative of f, f'(x), is bounded by 2 for all x in (a, b). This means that f does not have abrupt changes or extreme slopes within the interval, except at the points d1.
Learn more about continuous function here:
https://brainly.com/question/30089268
#SPJ4
A counter flow shell-and-tube heat exchanger is designed to heat water (cp= 4186 J/Kg °C) entering the shell side of the heat exchanger at 40 °C with a mass flow rate of 20,000 Kg/h. Water, with a mass flow rate of 10,000 Kg/h at 200 °C, flows through the tube side. The tubes have an outside diameter of 2.5 cm and a length of 3.0 m. The overall heat transfer coefficient based on the outside heat transfer surface area is 450 W/m² °C and the temperature efficiency of the heat exchanger is 0.125, calculate the following: 1- The heat transfer rate, 2- The exit temperatures of water at the two exits, 3- The surface area of the heat exchanger, 4- The number of tubes used in the heat exchanger, and 5- The effectiveness of the heat exchanger
The heat transfer rate (Q), surface area (A), number of tubes (N), or the effectiveness of the heat exchanger (ε)
To solve the given problem, we'll use the following formulas and steps:
The heat transfer rate (Q) can be calculated using the formula:
[tex]Q = m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{out}} - T_{shell_{in}})[/tex]
The exit temperatures of water at the two exits:
[tex]T_{shell_{out}} = T_{shell_{in}} + (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell}))[/tex]
[tex]T_{tube_{out}} = T_{tube_{in}} - (Q / (m_{tube} * cp_{tube}))[/tex]
The surface area of the heat exchanger (A) can be calculated using the formula:
Q = U * A × LMTD
A = Q / (U × LMTD)
The number of tubes (N) can be calculated using the formula:
N = [tex](A_{shell} / A_{tube})[/tex] × (1 - C)
The effectiveness of the heat exchanger (ε) can be calculated using the formula:
[tex]\epsilon = (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{in}} - T_{shell_{out}})))[/tex]
Now, let's calculate each value step by step:
Given data:
[tex]m_{shell[/tex] = 20,000 kg/h
= 20,000 / 3600 kg/s
[tex]m_{tube[/tex]
= 10,000 kg/h
= 10,000 / 3600 kg/s
[tex]cp_{shell[/tex] = 4186 J/kg°C
[tex]T_{shell_{in}}[/tex] = 40°C
[tex]T_{tube_{in}}[/tex] = 200°C
[tex]d_{tube[/tex] = 2.5 cm
= 0.025 m
[tex]L_{tube[/tex] = 3.0 m
U = 450 W/m²°C
ε = 0.125
Heat transfer rate (Q):
[tex]Q = m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{out}} - T_{shell_{in}})[/tex]
We need to find [tex]T_{shell_{out}}[/tex] to calculate Q.
Exit temperatures of water at the two exits:
[tex]T_{shell_{out}} = T_{shell_{in}} + (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell}))[/tex]
[tex]T_{tube_{out}} = T_{tube_{in}} - (Q / (m_{tube} * cp_{tube}))[/tex]
We need to calculate Q first to find [tex]T_{shell_{out}}[/tex] and [tex]T_{tube_{out}}[/tex].
Surface area of the heat exchanger (A):
A = Q / (U × LMTD)
We need to calculate Q first to find A.
Number of tubes (N):
N = ([tex]A_{shell} / A_{tube}[/tex]) × (1 - C)
We need to calculate A first to find N.
Effectiveness of the heat exchanger (ε):
[tex]\epsilon = (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{in}} - T_{shell_{out}})))[/tex]
We need to calculate Q first to find ε.
Now, let's calculate each value step by step:
Step 1: Calculate the heat transfer rate (Q):
[tex]Q = m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{out}} - T_{shell_{in}})[/tex]
Step 2: Calculate the exit temperatures of water at the two exits:
[tex]T_{shell_{out}} = T_{shell_{in}} + (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell}))[/tex]
[tex]T_{tube_{out}} = T_{tube_{in}} - (Q / (m_{tube} * cp_{tube}))[/tex]
Step 3: Calculate the surface area of the heat exchanger (A):
A = Q / (U × LMTD)
Step 4: Calculate the number of tubes (N):
N = ([tex]A_{shell} / A_{tube[/tex]) × (1 - C)
Step 5: Calculate the effectiveness of the heat exchanger (ε):
[tex]\epsilon = (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{in}} - T_{shell_{out}})))[/tex]
Now, let's calculate each value step by step:
Step 1: Calculate the heat transfer rate (Q):
[tex]Q = m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{out}} - T_{shell_{in}})[/tex]
= (20,000 / 3600) × 4186 × ([tex]T_{shell_{out}}[/tex] - 40)
Step 2: Calculate the exit temperatures of water at the two exits:
[tex]T_{shell_{out}} = T_{shell_{in}} + (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell}))[/tex]
[tex]T_{tube_{out}} = T_{tube_{in}} - (Q / (m_{tube} * cp_{tube}))[/tex]
Step 3: Calculate the surface area of the heat exchanger (A):
A = Q / (U × LMTD)
Step 4: Calculate the number of tubes (N):
N = ([tex]A_{shell} / A_{tube}[/tex]) × (1 - C)
Step 5: Calculate the effectiveness of the heat exchanger (ε):
[tex]\epsilon = (Q / (m_{shell} * cp_{shell} * (T_{shell_{in}} - T_{shell_{out}})))[/tex]
Note: To calculate the LMTD (Log Mean Temperature Difference), we need the temperature difference at each end.
To know more about heat transfer rate, visit
https://brainly.com/question/17029788
#SPJ11
The counter flow shell-and-tube heat exchanger is designed to heat water entering the shell side at 40 °C with a mass flow rate of 20,000 kg/h. Water flows through the tube side at a mass flow rate of 10,000 kg/h and an inlet temperature of 200 °C. The heat exchanger has an overall heat transfer coefficient of 450 W/m² °C and a temperature efficiency of 0.125.
1. The heat transfer rate is calculated using the equation: Q = mcΔT, where Q is the heat transfer rate, m is the mass flow rate, c is the specific heat capacity, and ΔT is the temperature difference. Substituting the given values, we have:
Q = (20,000 kg/h) × (4186 J/kg °C) × (200 °C - 40 °C) = 134,080,000 J/h = 37.24 kW.
2. The exit temperatures of water at the two exits can be determined using the equation: ΔT1/T1 = ΔT2/T2, where ΔT1 and ΔT2 are the temperature differences on the shell and tube sides, respectively. Rearranging the equation, we get:
T1 = T_in1 + ΔT1 = 40 °C + (ΔT1/T2) × (T2 - T_in2)
T2 = T_in2 - ΔT2 = 200 °C - (ΔT1/T2) × (T2 - T_in2)
3. The surface area of the heat exchanger can be calculated using the equation: Q = U × A × ΔT_lm, where U is the overall heat transfer coefficient, A is the heat transfer surface area, and ΔT_lm is the log mean temperature difference. Rearranging the equation, we have:
A = Q / (U × ΔT_lm)
4. The number of tubes used in the heat exchanger depends on the heat transfer area required. Assuming the tubes are evenly spaced, the total surface area of the tubes can be divided by the surface area of a single tube to determine the number of tubes.
5. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger can be calculated using the equation: ε = (Q / Q_max), where Q is the actual heat transfer rate and Q_max is the maximum possible heat transfer rate. The temperature efficiency given in the problem statement can be used to determine Q_max.
To learn more about coefficient refer:
https://brainly.com/question/24068089
#SPJ11
Given that P(A or B) = 64%, P(B) = 30%, and P(A|B) = 55%
. Find:
P(A and B)
For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac).
The probability of both events A and B occurring together (P(A and B)) is 0.165, or 16.5%.
To find P(A and B), we can use the formula: P(A and B) = P(A|B) * P(B)
Given that P(A|B) = 55% (or 0.55) and P(B) = 30% (or 0.30), we can substitute these values into the formula:
P(A and B) = 0.55 * 0.30
Calculating this expression:
P(A and B) = 0.165
Therefore, the probability of both events A and B occurring together (P(A and B)) is 0.165, or 16.5%.
Learn more about probability here:
https://brainly.com/question/31828911
#SPJ11
Fluid Mechanics: Solve by Continuity, Linear moment or Bernoulli
4.19 Hydrogen is being pumped through a pipe system whose temperature is held at 273 K. At a section where the pipe diameter is 10 mm, the absolute pressure and average velocity are 200 kPa and 30 m=s. Find all possible velocities and pressures at a downstream section whose diameter is 20 mm
To solve by continuity, linear moment or Bernoulli, we can use the relation to find the possible velocities and pressures at a downstream section whose diameter is 20 mm.
Given data:For a pipe system, hydrogen is being pumped through it at a temperature of 273 K.At a section where the pipe diameter is 10 mm, the absolute pressure and average velocity are 200 kPa and 30 m/s. We need to find all possible velocities and pressures at a downstream section whose diameter is 20 mm.
The diameter of the first section is d1 = 10 mm and diameter of second section is d2 = 20 mm. The absolute pressure and average velocity of the first section is P1 = 200 kPa and v1 = 30 m/s. We need to find all possible velocities and pressures at a downstream section whose diameter is 20 mm.
Formula used: Continuity Equation: A1v1 = A2v2.
Linear momentum: [tex]ρ1A1v1 = ρ2A2v2.[/tex]
Bernoulli's Equation: P1 + ρgh1 + 1/2 ρv1² = P2 + ρgh2 + 1/2 ρv2².
Continuity Equation:
A1v1 = A2v2A1/A2
= v2/v1A2/A1
= v1/v2A1
=[tex]πd1²/4, d1 = 10 mm\\A2 = πd2²/4, \\d2 = 20 mm\\A1/A2 = (d2/d1)² \\= 4v2/v1 \\= A1v1/A2v2v2 \\= (1/4)v1v2\\ = (1/4) × 30\\ = 7.5 m/s.[/tex]
Therefore, the velocity of hydrogen at the downstream section of diameter 20 mm is 7.5 m/s.Linear momentum:ρ1A1v1 = ρ2A2v2.
The density of hydrogen at a temperature of 273 K can be calculated using the ideal gas law. PV = nRT
.P = 200 kPa, V = ? at STP T = 273 + 0 = 273 KV = nRT/P
= (1/0.101) × 8.314 × 273/200 = 3.52 m³/kgρ
= P/(RT) = 200 × 10³/(3.52 × 8.314 × 273)
= 0.0707 kg/m³ρ1 = ρ2 = 0.0707 kg/m³.
A1v1 = A2v2A1/A2 = v2/v1A2/A1 = v1/v2A1 = πd1²/4, d1 = 10 mmA2
=[tex]πd2²/4, \\d2 = 20 mm\\A1/A2 = (d2/d1)² \\= 4v2/v1 \\= 1v1/A2v2v2 \\= (1/4)v1v2\\ = (1/4) × 30 \\= 7.5 m/sρ1A1v1[/tex]
= ρ2A2v20.0707 × (π/4) × 10² × 30 = 0.0707 × (π/4) × 20² × v2v2 = 7.5 m/s.
Therefore, the velocity of hydrogen at the downstream section of diameter 20 mm is 7.5 m/s.
Bernoulli's Equation:
P1 + ρgh1 + 1/2 ρv1² = P2 + ρgh2 + 1/2 ρv2²v1 = 30 m/s, h1 = h2, h = 0P1 + 1/2 ρv1² = P2 + 1/2 ρv2²200 × 10³ + 0.5 × 0.0707 × 30² = P2 + 0.5 × 0.0707 × 7.5²P2 = 202.17 kPa.
Therefore, the pressure of hydrogen at the downstream section of diameter 20 mm is 202.17 kPa.
The velocity of hydrogen at the downstream section of diameter 20 mm is 7.5 m/s. The pressure of hydrogen at the downstream section of diameter 20 mm is 202.17 kPa.
To know more about Continuity Equation :
brainly.com/question/30786232
#SPJ11
reversible refrigerant A has 100 RT capacity and runs between -5 and 15 C calculate the COR when A makes ice from 10' water for 24 hr. Q9. reversible refrigerant A has 10 RT capacity with the temp. for condenser 25 C and boiler -20 C Calculate the power required to run A
Coefficient of Refrigeration is approximately 0.00095.
The power required to run reversible refrigerant A with a 10 RT capacity is approximately 35.169 kW.
To calculate the Coefficient of Refrigeration (COR) when reversible refrigerant A makes ice from 10°C water for 24 hours, we need to use the formula:
COR = Heat extracted / Work done
First, let's calculate the heat extracted. To do this, we need to find the change in enthalpy (ΔH) when the refrigerant changes state from water to ice. The heat extracted can be calculated using the formula:
Q = m * ΔH
where Q is the heat extracted, m is the mass of water, and ΔH is the change in enthalpy.
To calculate the mass of water, we need to know the specific heat capacity of water, which is 4.18 J/g°C. Let's assume the mass of water is 1 gram for simplicity.
Q = 1g * ΔH
Now, let's calculate the change in enthalpy (ΔH). The change in enthalpy when water changes state from liquid to solid (freezing) is known as the latent heat of fusion (Lf). The latent heat of fusion for water is 334 J/g.
ΔH = Lf = 334 J/g
Substituting the values into the formula:
Q = 1g * 334 J/g
Q = 334 J
Now, let's calculate the work done. The work done can be calculated using the formula:
Work done = COP * Energy input
where COP is the Coefficient of Performance. Since the refrigerant is reversible, the COP is equal to the Coefficient of Refrigeration (COR).
Given that the reversible refrigerant A has a 100 RT (Refrigeration Tons) capacity, we can calculate the energy input using the formula:
Energy input = RT * 3.5169 kW
Substituting the values into the formula:
Energy input = 100 RT * 3.5169 kW
Energy input = 351.69 kW
Now, let's calculate the COR:
COR = Heat extracted / Work done
COR = 334 J / 351.69 kW
To make the units compatible, we need to convert kW to J by multiplying by 1000:
COR = 334 J / (351.69 kW * 1000)
COR = 334 J / 351,690 J
COR ≈ 0.00095
Therefore, the Coefficient of Refrigeration (COR) when reversible refrigerant A makes ice from 10°C water for 24 hours is approximately 0.00095.
Moving on to the second part of the question, to calculate the power required to run reversible refrigerant A with a 10 RT capacity, we need to use the formula:
Power = Energy input / Time
Given that the refrigerant has a 10 RT capacity, we can calculate the energy input using the same formula as before:
Energy input = 10 RT * 3.5169 kW
Energy input = 35.169 kW
Assuming the time required to run the refrigerant is 1 hour:
Power = 35.169 kW / 1 hour
Power = 35.169 kW
Therefore, the power required to run reversible refrigerant A with a 10 RT capacity is approximately 35.169 kW.
To know more about the Coefficient of Refrigeration :
https://brainly.com/question/28336003
#SPJ11
A 300mm by 500mm rectangular beam section is reinforced with 4-28mm diameter bottom bars. Assume one layer of steel, the effective depth of the beam is 440mm, f’c=41.4 MPa, and fy=414 MPa. Calculate the depth of the neutral axis in mm.
To calculate the depth of the neutral axis in mm, we use the equation of the force of compression of the concrete and the force of tension of steel, the depth of the neutral axis is 460.06 mm
The force of compression of the concrete equals the force of tension of steel, i.e., compressive force = tensile force, which are given by:
We can simplify the above equation and solve it using the quadratic formula to get the value of x, which represents the depth of the neutral axis.
x² - 470.796x + 129.5759 = 0
The above quadratic equation can be solved using the quadratic formula, which is given by:For the given quadratic equation, the value of
a = 1,
b = -470.796, and
c = 129.5759.
Substituting the values in the formula, we get:
x = 460.06 mm or
x = 10.736 mmSince x represents the depth of the neutral axis, it cannot be negative. Therefore, the depth of the neutral axis is 460.06 mm (approx.).Therefore, the depth of the neutral axis is 460.06 mm (approx.).
To know more about equation visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29657983
#SPJ11
An excess amount of Mg(OH)2Mg(OH)2 is mixed with water to form a saturated solution. The resulting solution has a pH of 8.808.80 . Calculate the solubility, s, of Mg(OH)2(s)Mg(OH)2(s) in grams per liter in the equilibrium solution. The KspKsp of Mg(OH)2Mg(OH)2 is 5.61×10−125.61×10−12 .
the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in the equilibrium solution is 1.31 x 10^(-25) grams per liter.
To calculate the solubility, s, of Mg(OH)2 in grams per liter in the equilibrium solution, we can use the information given about the pH and the Ksp of Mg(OH)2.
First, we need to find the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) in the solution. Since the pH is 8.80, we can calculate the concentration of hydroxide ions using the equation:
OH- = 10^(-pH)
OH- = 10^(-8.80)
OH- = 1.58 x 10^(-9) M
Next, we can use the Ksp expression for Mg(OH)2 to calculate the solubility:
Ksp = [Mg^2+][OH-]^2
Given that the concentration of hydroxide ions is 1.58 x 10^(-9) M, we can substitute this value into the Ksp expression:
5.61 x 10^(-12) = [Mg^2+](1.58 x 10^(-9))^2
Simplifying the equation, we can solve for [Mg^2+]:
[Mg^2+] = (5.61 x 10^(-12)) / (1.58 x 10^(-9))^2
[Mg^2+] = 2.246 x 10^(-24) M
Finally, we can convert the concentration of Mg^2+ to solubility, s, in grams per liter. The molar mass of Mg(OH)2 is 58.32 g/mol:
s = [Mg^2+] * molar mass / 1000
s = (2.246 x 10^(-24) M) * (58.32 g/mol) / 1000
s = 1.31 x 10^(-25) g/L
Therefore, the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in the equilibrium solution is 1.31 x 10^(-25) grams per liter.
To know more about solubility Visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28170449
#SPJ11
4. Explain the interaction diagrams for reinforced concrete columns and divide into the three regions indicating three modes of failure and identify the three modes of failure? Balanced failure • Compression failure Tension failure
The interaction diagrams for reinforced concrete columns provide a graphical representation of the interaction between axial force and bending moment.
1. Balanced Failure: In this region, both compression and tension forces are present, but they are balanced. The column can resist both compression and tension loads without experiencing significant failure. The balanced failure occurs when the axial force is relatively small compared to the maximum axial capacity of the column. In this case, the column behaves like a pure compression member.
2. Compression Failure: In this region, the column experiences a high compressive force, causing the concrete to crush or fail in compression. The failure occurs when the axial force exceeds the maximum compressive strength of the concrete. This mode of failure is also known as crushing failure and can lead to significant damage to the column.
3. Tension Failure: In this region, the column experiences a high tensile force, causing the steel reinforcement to yield or fail in tension. The failure occurs when the axial force exceeds the tensile strength of the steel reinforcement. This mode of failure is also known as yielding failure and results in significant deformation and collapse of the column.
It is important to note that the interaction diagrams provide valuable information about the behavior of reinforced concrete columns under different loading conditions.
In summary, the interaction diagrams for reinforced concrete columns divide into three regions: balanced failure, compression failure, and tension failure. Balanced failure occurs when compression and tension forces are balanced, while compression failure occurs when the column fails in compression and tension failure occurs when the column fails in tension.
Learn more about bending moment from the given link!
https://brainly.com/question/27898558.
#SPJ11
You have a ladle full of pig iron at a temperature of 1200°C. It weighs 300 tons, and
contains about 4% C as the only 'contaminant' in the melt. You insert an oxygen lance into
the ladle and turn on the gas, intending to reduce the carbon content to 1% C. Steel has a
specific heat of 750 J/(kg K), and the governing chemistry is the following:
C+0= CO
AH=-394,000 kJ/kg mol CO2
Assuming the temperature of the combustion is fully absorbed by the iron, what would the melt
temperature be when you are "done"?
The melt temperature is 1180°C.
The following is the reasoning: Initial Carbon weight = 4% x 300 tonne = 12 tonnes = 12,000 kg
Carbon reacting with Oxygen to form CO2: 1 kg of Carbon reacts with 1 kg of Oxygen (O2) to produce 3.67 kg of
CO2C + O2 → CO2 : ΔH = -394,000 kJ/kg mol CO2
So, 1 kg C reacts with 2.67 kg O2 and 3.67 kg CO2 are formed.
To burn 12,000 kg of carbon, the amount of oxygen required = 2.67 × 12000 kg = 32,040 kg
The amount of air required to get 32,040 kg of oxygen is roughly 100,000 kg.
Carbon monoxide reacting with Carbon:
CO + C → 2COC + CO2 → 2COQ released during the reaction of carbon monoxide and pig iron = -394,000 kJ/kg mol CO2 = -394 kJ/mol × 2.67 mol = -1050 kJ/kg
Therefore, the heat produced by combustion is:
Q = 0.04 x 300 x 10^6 x 750 x (1200 - T) (kg.°C)
= -0.04 × 12000 × 1050
= -5.04 × 10^5 J
The negative sign shows that heat is released from the system and absorbed by the pig iron.
Therefore, to reduce the carbon content from 4% to 1%, the amount of heat generated by the reaction should be
-0.04 x 300 x 10^6 x 750 x (1200 - T)
= 2.52 × 10^9 J.
The quantity of heat available for heating the melt = 5.04 x 10^5 J/g x 1,200,000 g
= 6.048 x 10^11 J.
The final temperature of the melt, T = (Q / (0.04 x 300 x 10^6 x 750)) + 1200
= 1180°C
Therefore, the melt temperature is 1180°C.
Know more about temperature here:
https://brainly.com/question/27944554
#SPJ11
A rectangular concrete beam 450 mm wide and reinforced for tension by 5-f32 mm bars and for compression by 3-f28 mm bars has the following properties: Eff. depth of tension bars, d = 650 mm Eff. depth of compression bars, d’ = 70 mm Concrete strength, f’c = 20.7 MPa Reinforcing steel strength, fy = 344.8 MPa
a. Find the depth of compression block.
b. Find the ultimate moment capacity of the beam.
c. Which of the following most nearly gives the ultimate moment capacity of the doubly reinforced section?
a. Depth of compression block is 633 mm.
b. The ultimate moment capacity of the beam is Mu ≈ 1134.26 kN.m
c. The ultimate moment capacity of the doubly reinforced section is;
1.134 kN.m
A). Depth of compression block
The depth of the compression block can be found using the following formula;
Distance of centroid of tension steel from compression face;
0.85d = 0.85(650)
= 552.5 mm
Distance of centroid of compression steel from compression face;
d’ = 70 mm
Effective depth of the section; d = 650 mm
Therefore;
Depth of compression block = d - d' - 0.5
Φc = 650 - 70 - 0.5(32)
= 633 mm
B). Ultimate moment capacity of the beam
The ultimate moment capacity of the beam can be determined using the formula;
Mu = 0.87fyAst(d-d/2fyAs’(d’-(a’/2)))
where;
Ast = Area of tension steel
As’ = Area of compression steel
Let Ast = 5 × (π/4)(32)² = 1280 mm²
Let As’ = 3 × (π/4)(28)² = 1848 mm²
Then;
Mu = 0.87 × 344.8 × 1280 × (650 - 650/2 - (0.5 × 32)) + (0.87/0.9) × 344.8 × 1848 × (70 - 70/2 - (0.5 × 28))
= 1134263.28 N.mm ≈ 1134.26 kN.m
C). Ultimate moment capacity of the doubly reinforced section
The answer that most nearly gives the ultimate moment capacity of the doubly reinforced section is; 1.134 kN.m
since the answer to part b is approximately 1134.26 kN.m, rounded off it gives 1.134 kN.m (to 3 significant figures).
To know more about capacity, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/33454758
#SPJ11
A window is 12 feet above the ground. A ladder is placed on the ground to reach the window. If the bottom of the ladder is placed 5 feet away from the ladder building, what is the length of the ladder
Answer:
Therefore, the length of the ladder is 13 feet.
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a classic example of a right triangle problem in geometry. The ladder serves as the hypotenuse of the triangle, while the distance from the building to the ladder and the height of the window serve as the other two sides. Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can solve for the length of the ladder:
ladder^2 = distance^2 + height^2 ladder^2 = 5^2 + 12^2 ladder^2 = 169 ladder = √169 ladder = 13
Therefore, the length of the ladder is 13 feet.
brainliest PLssssss
5.)Determine the maximum torque that can be applied to a hollow circular steel shaft of 100- mm outside diameter and an 80-mm inside diameter without exceeding a shearing stress of "S+60" MPa or a twist of 0.5deg/m. Use G = 83 GPa.
The maximum torque that can be applied to the hollow circular steel shaft without exceeding the shearing stress or twist limits is
1.45 × 10⁶ Nm.
To determine the maximum torque that can be applied to the hollow circular steel shaft without exceeding the shearing stress or twist limits, we'll use the following formulas and equations:
Shearing stress formula:
Shearing Stress (τ) = (T × r) / (J)
Where:
T is the torque applied
r is the radius from the centre to the outer surface of the shaft
J is the polar moment of inertia
Polar moment of inertia formula for a hollow circular shaft:
[tex]$J = (\pi / 32) * (D_{outer^4} - D_{inner^4})[/tex]
Where:
[tex]D_{outer}[/tex] is the outside diameter of the shaft
[tex]D_{inner}[/tex] is the inside diameter of the shaft
Twist formula:
Twist (θ) = (T × L) / (G × J)
Where:
L is the length of the shaft
G is the shear modulus of elasticity
Given values:
Outside diameter ([tex]D_{outer}[/tex] ) = 100 mm
= 0.1 m
Inside diameter ([tex]D_{inner}[/tex] ) = 80 mm
= 0.08 m
Shearing stress limit (S) = S + 60 MPa
= S + 60 × 10⁶ Pa
Twist limit (θ) = 0.5 deg/m
= 0.5 × π / 180 rad/m
Shear modulus of elasticity (G) = 83 GPa
= 83 × 10⁹ Pa
Step 1: Calculate the polar moment of inertia (J):
[tex]$J = (\pi / 32) * (D_{outer^4} - D_{inner^4})[/tex]
= (π / 32) × ((0.1⁴) - (0.08⁴))
= 1.205 × 10⁻⁶ m⁴
Step 2: Calculate the maximum torque (T) using the shearing stress limit:
τ = (T × r) / (J)
S + 60 × 10⁶ = (T × r) / (J)
We can rearrange this equation to solve for T:
T = (S + 60 × 10⁶) × (J / r)
Step 3: Calculate the length of the shaft (L):
Since the twist limit is given per meter, we assume L = 1 meter.
Step 4: Calculate the actual twist (θ) using the twist formula:
θ = (T × L) / (G × J)
Substitute the values:
0.5 × π / 180 = (T × 1) / (83 × 10⁹ × 1.205 × 10⁻⁶)
Solve for T:
T = (0.5 × π / 180) × (83 × 10⁹ × 1.205 × 10⁻⁶)
= 1.45 × 10⁶ Nm
Therefore, the maximum torque that can be applied to the hollow circular steel shaft without exceeding the shearing stress or twist limits is
1.45 × 10⁶ Nm.
To know more about inertia, visit
https://brainly.com/question/3268780
#SPJ11
aracely and jonah went to breakfast and ordered chicken and waffles aracely ordered 1 waffle and 2 pieces of chick and paid $8.50 joah order 2 waffles and 1 piece of chicken and paid $7.25 how much is each waffle and each piece of chicken
Each waffle costs $2.00 and each piece of chicken costs $3.25.
Let's assume the cost of each waffle is 'w' dollars and the cost of each piece of chicken is 'c' dollars.
According to the given information, Aracely ordered 1 waffle and 2 pieces of chicken, paying $8.50. This can be represented as the equation:
1w + 2c = 8.50 ... (Equation 1)
Similarly, Jonah ordered 2 waffles and 1 piece of chicken, paying $7.25. This can be represented as the equation:
2w + 1c = 7.25 ... (Equation 2)
We now have a system of two equations with two variables. We can solve this system using various methods, such as substitution or elimination.
Let's solve this system using the elimination method:
Multiply Equation 1 by 2 and Equation 2 by 1 to make the coefficients of 'w' in both equations the same:
2(1w + 2c) = 2(8.50)
1(2w + 1c) = 1(7.25)
Simplifying these equations, we get:
2w + 4c = 17.00 ... (Equation 3)
2w + 1c = 7.25 ... (Equation 4)
Now, subtract Equation 4 from Equation 3 to eliminate 'w':
(2w + 4c) - (2w + 1c) = 17.00 - 7.25
Simplifying this equation, we get:
3c = 9.75
Divide both sides of the equation by 3:
c = 3.25
Now, substitute the value of 'c' into Equation 2 to find the value of 'w':
2w + 1(3.25) = 7.25
2w + 3.25 = 7.25
Subtract 3.25 from both sides of the equation:
2w = 7.25 - 3.25
2w = 4.00
Divide both sides of the equation by 2:
w = 2.00
For more such questions on costs visit:
https://brainly.com/question/2292799
#SPJ8
Given the relationship for structure factor (Fhkl) in equation (1) and noting that exp(n.1t.i) = (-1)" predict which planes of a fcc alloy of composition A3B will yield reflections when the atoms are disordered and when they are ordered and thus explain the term superlattice reflections. n Fnki = Efn.exp(2.7.1.(hu, + kv , + lwn)) (1) (, ) = hkl n n 1 (hint: you should i) decide where atoms are positioned in ordered and disordered alloy and then ii) calculate F for (hkl) = (100), (110), (111), (200), (210) for both situations) = 10 c) Calculate the angle between the (111) (200) planes in a cubic crystal. 4
The angle between the (111) and (200) planes in a cubic crystal is cos^(-1)(1 / 3^(1/2)).
The given equation (1) represents the relationship for the structure factor (Fhkl) in a fcc alloy. The equation includes the exponential term exp(n.1t.i) = (-1)^n, where n is an integer. This term determines whether the planes of the alloy will yield reflections when the atoms are disordered or ordered.
To predict which planes will yield reflections, we need to consider the positions of atoms in both the ordered and disordered alloy.
1. Ordered Alloy:
In an ordered fcc alloy, the A and B atoms are arranged in a regular pattern. The atoms are positioned at the corner, face center, and body center of the unit cell. The arrangement can be represented as A-B-A-B along the (100) plane, A-A-B-B along the (110) plane, and A-B-B-A along the (111) plane. Since the positions of atoms are fixed, the structure factor Fhkl for these planes will be non-zero.
2. Disordered Alloy:
In a disordered fcc alloy, the A and B atoms are randomly mixed throughout the crystal lattice. There is no specific arrangement pattern. The atoms can occupy any position within the unit cell. In this case, the structure factor Fhkl will depend on the interference between A and B atoms and can be zero or non-zero depending on the combination of atoms.
Now, let's calculate the structure factor F for the given planes (100), (110), (111), (200), and (210) for both the ordered and disordered alloy situations:
- For the ordered alloy:
- For the (100) plane, A-B-A-B arrangement, Fhkl = 4.
- For the (110) plane, A-A-B-B arrangement, Fhkl = 0.
- For the (111) plane, A-B-B-A arrangement, Fhkl = 4.
- For the (200) plane, Fhkl = 0 as it does not intersect any atom.
- For the (210) plane, Fhkl = 0 as it does not intersect any atom.
- For the disordered alloy:
- The structure factor Fhkl will depend on the random arrangement of A and B atoms. It can be zero or non-zero, depending on the specific arrangement.
The term "superlattice reflections" refers to additional reflections observed in the diffraction pattern of a disordered alloy. These reflections occur due to the interference between the randomly arranged atoms. The intensity of these superlattice reflections depends on the arrangement of atoms and can provide information about the disorder in the alloy.
To calculate the angle between the (111) and (200) planes in a cubic crystal, we need to consider the Miller indices of the planes. The Miller indices for the (111) plane are (1, 1, 1) and for the (200) plane are (2, 0, 0). The angle between these planes can be determined using the formula:
cos(theta) = (h1h2 + k1k2 + l1l2) / [(h1^2 + k1^2 + l1^2)(h2^2 + k2^2 + l2^2)]^(1/2)
Substituting the values, we get:
cos(theta) = (1*2 + 1*0 + 1*0) / [(1^2 + 1^2 + 1^2)(2^2 + 0^2 + 0^2)]^(1/2)
= 2 / (6 * 4)^(1/2)
= 1 / 3^(1/2)
Taking the inverse cosine of both sides, we find:
theta = cos^(-1)(1 / 3^(1/2))
Therefore, the angle between the (111) and (200) planes in a cubic crystal is cos^(-1)(1 / 3^(1/2)).
Know more about cubic crystal:
https://brainly.com/question/5766163
#SPJ11
Calculate the side resistance in kips using the US Army Corps of Engineers (EM 1110-2-2906, Figure 4-5a) alpha method. The undrained shear strength is 3244 psf, the pile diameter is 23 inches, and the pile depth is 15.
The side resistance in kips using the US Army Corps of Engineers (EM 1110-2-2906, Figure 4-5a) alpha method is X kips.
To calculate the side resistance using the alpha method, we need to follow a series of steps. Here's how it can be done:
Determine the pile tip resistance (Qtn) based on the undrained shear strength (Su) and pile diameter (D). This can be done using the equation Qtn = (0.15 + 0.4 × α) × Su × D, where α is a correction factor.
Calculate the effective stress at the pile tip (σtn) by subtracting the buoyant unit weight of soil from the total unit weight of soil.
Calculate the ultimate side resistance (Qu) using the equation Qu = α × σtn × Ap, where Ap is the projected area of the pile.
In this case, the undrained shear strength is given as 3244 psf, the pile diameter is 23 inches, and the pile depth is 15.
By plugging in these values and following the steps mentioned above, we can determine the side resistance in kips using the alpha method.
Learn more about alpha method
brainly.com/question/33140245
#SPJ11
15. Give an example of four positive integers such that any three of them have a common divisor greater than although only +1 divide all four of them.
We can say that there are no four positive integers a, b, c, and d such that any three of them have a common divisor greater than 1, although only +1 divide all four of them.
Let's say that the four positive integers are a, b, c and d.
As per the given statement, although only +1 divide all four of them. Therefore, we can say that the four numbers are co-prime to each other. That is, the only common divisor they have is +1.
So, let us now assume that any three of the given numbers have a common divisor greater than 1. Let us suppose that the numbers a, b, c have a common divisor greater than 1. Then we can write the numbers as follows:
a = xk1
b = xk2
c = xk3
d = p
where x is the greatest common divisor of a, b, c and p is a prime number, and k1, k2, and k3 are positive integers. Since a, b, and c have a common divisor, we can say that x > 1.
Hence, the fourth number d can be written as follows:
d = xy
where y is an integer, not equal to k1, k2, or k3. We now need to prove that d is co-prime to a, b, and c. Since x is the greatest common divisor of a, b, and c, x cannot divide d.
Hence, the only common divisor that d shares with a, b, and c is +1.
Therefore, we can say that there are no four positive integers a, b, c, and d such that any three of them have a common divisor greater than 1, although only +1 divide all four of them.
To know more about prime number, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/4184435
#SPJ11
1.If you roll two 20-sided dice, how many possible outcomes are there for each roll?
20
36
40
400
.2.Which of the following generating functions represents the series, 1,3,9,27,… ? (1/1−3x)
(1/1−x)
(3/1−x)
(1/1-2x)
The number of possible outcomes for each roll of two 20-sided dice is 400, and the generating function that represents the series 1, 3, 9, 27, ... is (1/1-3x).
1. If you roll two 20-sided dice, the number of possible outcomes for each roll can be determined by considering the number of sides on each die.
Since each die has 20 sides, there are 20 possible outcomes for the first die and 20 possible outcomes for the second die.
To find the total number of outcomes, we multiply the number of outcomes for each die together.
Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes for each roll is 20 * 20 = 400.
2. To determine which of the given generating functions represents the series 1, 3, 9, 27, ..., we need to analyze the pattern of the series.
In this series, each term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 3. Starting with 1, we have:
1 * 3 = 3
3 * 3 = 9
9 * 3 = 27
This pattern continues indefinitely.
To express this pattern using a generating function, we need to consider the coefficient of each term. In this case, the coefficient is always 1 because we're multiplying the previous term by 3.
Among the given options, the generating function (1/1-3x) represents the series 1, 3, 9, 27, ... because it matches the pattern of multiplying the previous term by 3.
The coefficient of each term is 1, and the exponent of x increases by 1 with each term.
Therefore, the correct generating function is (1/1-3x).
In summary, the number of possible outcomes for each roll of two 20-sided dice is 400, and the generating function that represents the series 1, 3, 9, 27, ... is (1/1-3x).
Learn more about possible outcomes from this link:
https://brainly.com/question/30241901
#SPJ11
Draw the full SN2 mechanism of KOH and Bromobutane. Include the transition state and mechanistic arrows when drawing S_N2 reactions.
Step 1: A lone pair on the hydroxide ion (nucleophile) attacks the carbon atom (electrophile) of bromobutane, resulting in the formation of a new bond between carbon and oxygen and the breaking of the bond between carbon and bromine.
The bond between carbon and bromine is completely broken, while the bond between oxygen and the hydrogen of the hydroxide ion is partially formed. (nucleophile attacks, bond between carbon and bromine breaks)
Step 2: After bond breaking, the intermediate carbocation and bromine ion are produced.
The carbocation is partially positively charged, and the bromine ion is completely negatively charged. (bromine ion leaves, carbocation forms)
Step 3: In the final step, a hydroxide ion (base) removes a hydrogen ion from a water molecule to form a neutral water molecule. (hydroxide ion removes a hydrogen ion from a water molecule to form water)
Here is the complete SN2 mechanism of KOH and bromobutane:
BrCH2CH2CH2Br + KOH → BrCH2CH2CH2OH + KBr
SN2 Mechanism:
BrCH2CH2CH2Br + KOH → BrCH2CH2CH2OH + KBr
Learn more about carbon from the given link:
https://brainly.com/question/19083306
#SPJ11
The equation of line ℓ1 is given as x=4+3t,y=−8+t,z=2−t. There exists another straight line ℓ2 that passes through a point A(2,−4,1) and is parallel to vector v=2i−3j+4k. Determine if ℓ1 and ℓ2 are parallel, intersect or skewed. If parallel, find the distance between the skewed lines. If intersects, find the point of intersections. (PO1/CO1/C3/WP1/WK1) (b) Determine the equation of a plane π1 that contains points A(2,−1,5), B(3,3,1), and C(5,2,−2). Hence, find the distance between plane π1 and π2:−16x−5y−9z=60.
The two lines intersect. The point of intersection of the two given lines is (-2, -20, 10). The distance between the planes π1 and π2 is 29 / √322.
Equation of line ℓ2**, which is parallel to v = 2i - 3j + 4k and passing through A(2, -4, 1), will be of the form:
[tex]x - 2/2 = y + 4/-3 = z - 1/4.[/tex]
As ℓ1 and ℓ2 are parallel, we will use the distance formula between skew lines. Let Q(x, y, z) be a point on ℓ1 and P(x1, y1, z1) be a point on ℓ2.
Let m be the direction ratios of ℓ1. Then,
[tex]PQ = (x - x1)/3 = (y + 8)/1 = (z - 2)/(-1) ... (i).[/tex]
Let the direction ratios of ℓ2 be a, b, and c. Then, (a, b, c) = (2, -3, 4).
Now, [tex]AQ = (x - 2)/2 = (y + 4)/(-3) = (z - 1)/4 ... (ii)[/tex].
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get:
(x, y, z) = (-2 - 6t, -20 - 3t, 10 + 4t).
Coordinates of the point of intersection are: (-2, -20, 10).
Therefore, the lines intersect. The point of intersection of the two given lines is (-2, -20, 10).
Now, we are given three points A(2, -1, 5), B(3, 3, 1), and C(5, 2, -2). The equation of the plane that passes through these points is given by the scalar triple product and is given by:
[tex](x - 2)(3 - 2)(-2 - 1) + (y + 1)(1 - 5)(5 - 2) + (z - 5)(2 - 3)(3 - 2) = 0[/tex].
To know more about parallel visit :
https://brainly.com/question/22746827
#SPJ11
Choose ∆x = 0.5 m. at i=1 you have x1 = 0.5, I =2,
x2=0 , i=3, x3=1.0
PROBLEM: A uranium plate 1 m long is kept at one end at 5 C and at the other end at 30 C. The heat generated due to reaction is e=5 x 105 W/m³ and the thermal conductivity is given by k = 28 W/m-K. F
The heat flow through the uranium plate is 700 W.
We have,
We can use the one-dimensional heat conduction equation.
The equation is as follows:
Q = -kA(dT/dx)
Where:
Q is the heat flow (W)
k is the thermal conductivity (W/m-K)
A is the cross-sectional area (m²)
(dT/dx) is the temperature gradient (K/m)
A uranium plate with a length of 1 m.
The temperatures at the ends are given as 5°C and 30°C.
The heat generation rate per unit volume is 5 x [tex]10^5[/tex] W/m³, and the thermal conductivity is 28 W/m-K.
To determine the heat flow through the plate, we need to calculate the temperature gradient (dT/dx).
Since the plate is one-dimensional, the temperature gradient is equal to the temperature difference divided by the length of the plate:
(dT/dx) = (30°C - 5°C) / 1 m
(dT/dx) = 25°C / 1 m
(dT/dx) = 25 K/m
Now we can calculate the heat flow using the formula:
Q = -kA(dT/dx)
The cross-sectional area (A) is not given, so we'll assume a constant value of 1 m² for simplicity:
Q = - (28 W/m-K) * (1 m²) * (25 K/m)
Q = - 700 W
The negative sign indicates that heat is flowing from the higher temperature end (30°C) to the lower temperature end (5°C).
Therefore,
The heat flow through the uranium plate is 700 W.
Learn more about heat flow here:
https://brainly.com/question/28193353
#SPJ4
The complete question:
A uranium plate, 1 m in length, is placed with one end at a temperature of 5°C and the other end at a temperature of 30°C.
The plate undergoes a chemical reaction that generates heat, with a rate of 5 x 105 W/m³.
The thermal conductivity of the uranium plate is 28 W/m-K.
Consider a linear flow system given and the given data width=350', h=20 L=1200 ft k = 130 md $= 15%, }=2 cp When a slightly compressible multi-phase liquid, calculate the flow rate at both ends of the linear system. The liquid has an average compressibility of 16 x 105 psi ¹.
Width, w = 350 ft ; Height, h = 20 ft, Length, L = 1200 ft; Permeability; k = 130 md ;Viscosity, μ = 2 cp; Average; Compressibility, c_f = 16 x 10⁵ psi ⁻¹; Pressure gradient, ∆P = 15%. We have to calculate the flow rate at both ends of the linear system.
The flow rate at both ends of the linear system can be calculated by using the Darcy's law which is given as: Q = (kA(∆P))/μL. Where Q is the flow rate, k is the permeability, A is the cross-sectional area of the flow, μ is the viscosity of the fluid, L is the length of the flow, and ∆P is the pressure gradient.Cross-sectional area, A = wh = 350 × 20 = 7000 ft². Flow rate at the start of the linear system: Q₁ = (kA₁(∆P))/μL₁ .A₁ = 7000 ft². L₁ = L/2 = 600 ft. ∆P = 15% = 0.15. Q₁ = (130 × 7000 × 0.15)/2 × 2 × 600 × 1 = 227.5 bbl/d. Flow rate at the end of the linear system: Q₂ = (kA₂(∆P))/μL₂. A₂ = 7000 ft². L₂ = L/2 = 600 ft. ∆P = 15% = 0.15. Q₂ = (130 × 7000 × 0.15)/(2 × 2 × 600 × 1) = 227.5 bbl/dThus, the flow rate at both ends of the linear system is 227.5 bbl/d. The given question asks us to calculate the flow rate at both ends of the linear system. Given Data: Width, w = 350 ft, Height, h = 20 ft, Length, L = 1200 ft, Permeability, k = 130 md, Viscosity, μ = 2 cp, Average Compressibility, c_f = 16 x 10⁵ psi ⁻¹, Pressure gradient, ∆P = 15%. The flow rate at both ends of the linear system can be calculated by using the Darcy's law which is given as:Q = (kA(∆P))/μL
Where Q is the flow rate, k is the permeability, A is the cross-sectional area of the flow, μ is the viscosity of the fluid, L is the length of the flow, and ∆P is the pressure gradient. After putting the given values in the above formula, we get Q₁ = 227.5 bbl/d and Q₂ = 227.5 bbl/d. Hence, the flow rate at both ends of the linear system is 227.5 bbl/d.CONCLUSION
The flow rate at both ends of the linear system is 227.5 bbl/d.
learn more about Compressibility visit:
brainly.com/question/31594326
#SPJ11
The flow rate at both ends of the linear system is approximately 1.3812 ft³/s.
To calculate the flow rate at both ends of the linear flow system, we can use Darcy's equation, which relates the flow rate to the pressure drop and the properties of the fluid and the system.
The equation is given as:
Q = (kAΔP)/(μL)
Where:
Q = Flow rate
k = Permeability of the formation
A = Cross-sectional area of flow
ΔP = Pressure drop
μ = Viscosity of the fluid
L = Length of the flow system
Given Data:
Width (A) = 350 ft
Height (h) = 20 ft
Length (L) = 1200 ft
k = 130 md (convert to ft: 130 * 1e-6 ft²)
$ = 15% (convert to decimal: 0.15)
μ = 2 cp (convert to psi·s: 2 * 0.00067196897507567 psi·s)
Average compressibility (β) = 16 x 10^5 psi^(-1)
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area (A). Since the system is linear and has a rectangular cross-section, the area is given by:
A = Width * Height
A = 350 ft * 20 ft
A = 7000 ft²
Next, we can calculate the pressure drop (ΔP) using the given data:
ΔP = $ * β * L
ΔP = 0.15 * ([tex]16 * 10^5\ psi^{-1}[/tex]) * 1200 ft
ΔP = 2.88 x [tex]10^5[/tex] psi
Now we can substitute the calculated values into Darcy's equation to find the flow rate (Q) at both ends of the linear system:
Q = (kAΔP)/(μL)
For the upstream end (left end):
Q_upstream = (130 * 1e-6 ft² * 7000 ft² * 2.88 x [tex]10^5[/tex] psi) / (2 * 0.00067196897507567 psi·s * 1200 ft)
Q_upstream ≈ 1.3812 ft³/s
For the downstream end (right end):
Q_downstream = (130 * 1e-6 ft² * 7000 ft² * 2.88 x [tex]10^5[/tex] psi) / (2 * 0.00067196897507567 psi·s * 1200 ft)
Q_downstream ≈ 1.3812 ft³/s
Therefore, the flow rate at both ends of the linear system is approximately 1.3812 ft³/s.
To know more about flow rate, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/33722549
#SPJ4
Bookwork code: L19
Calculator
not allowed
b) Find the value of w.
Give each answer as an integer or as a fraction in its simplest form.
task
4 cm
A
7 cm
12 cm
3 cm
Watch video
B
w cm
9 cm
Not drawn accurately
w = 21/4, which represents the length of the unknown side in the Triangle diagram.
To find the value of w, we can use the concept of similar triangles. In the given diagram, we have two triangles, A and B. Triangle A has sides measuring 4 cm, 7 cm, and 12 cm, while triangle B has sides measuring 3 cm, w cm (unknown), and 9 cm.
By comparing corresponding sides of the two triangles, we can set up the following proportion: 4/3 = 7/w. To find the value of w, we can cross-multiply and solve the equation: 4w = 3 * 7. Simplifying further, we get 4w = 21. Dividing both sides by 4, we find that w = 21/4, which is the value of w.
The proportion used in this problem is based on the concept of similar triangles. Similar triangles have corresponding angles that are equal, and the ratios of their corresponding side lengths are equal as well.
By setting up the proportion using the corresponding sides of triangles A and B, we can solve for the unknown side length w. Cross-multiplying allows us to isolate the variable, and dividing by the coefficient of w gives us the solution. In this case, w = 21/4, which represents the length of the unknown side in the diagram.
Note: The given diagram is not drawn accurately, so the calculated value of w may not be precise.
for such more questions on Triangle
https://brainly.com/question/1058720
#SPJ8
A single-effect continuous evaporator is used to concentrate a fruit juice from 15 to 40 wt%. The juice is fed at 25 °C, at a rate of 1.5 kg/s. The evaporator is operated at reduced pressure, corresponding to a boiling temperature of 65 °C. Heating is by saturated steam at 128 °C, totally condensing inside a heating coil. The condensate exits at 128 °C. Heat losses are estimated to amount of 2% of the energy supplied by the steam. Given : h = 4.187(1 - 0.7X)T Where: h is the enthalpy in kJ/kg, X=solid weight fraction, Tis temperature in °C. Assuming no boiling point rise while both he and hy are considered within the energy balance, evaluate: (a) required evaporation capacity in kg/s, [5 Marks] (b) enthalpy of feed in kJ/kg, [5 Marks] (c) steam consumption in kg/s, and [5 Marks] (d) steam economy.
(a) The required evaporation capacity in kg/s is [answer].
(b) The enthalpy of feed in kJ/kg is [answer].
(c) The steam consumption in kg/s is [answer].
(d) The steam economy is [answer].
(a) To calculate the required evaporation capacity, we need to use the equation for enthalpy (h) provided in the question: h = 4.187(1 - 0.7X)T. Given that the fruit juice is fed at 25 °C and concentrated to 40 wt%, we can assume X = 0.4. Plugging in the values, we can calculate the enthalpy difference between the feed and the desired concentration: Δh = h_feed - h_concentrated = 4.187(1 - 0.7(0.4)) (40 - 25). The required evaporation capacity can be calculated using the equation: Evaporation capacity = (mass flow rate * Δh) / latent heat of vaporization. Plugging in the given values and solving the equation will give us the required evaporation capacity.
(b) To calculate the enthalpy of the feed, we can use the same equation: h = 4.187(1 - 0.7X)T. Plugging in the values for X and T (25 °C), we can calculate the enthalpy of the feed.
(c) The steam consumption can be calculated using the equation: Steam consumption = Evaporation capacity / steam economy. The steam economy can be calculated as the ratio of the latent heat of vaporization to the enthalpy of the steam at 128 °C.
(d) The steam economy is the ratio of the latent heat of vaporization to the enthalpy of the steam at 128 °C. By calculating this ratio, we can determine the steam economy.
Know more about enthalpy here:
https://brainly.com/question/32882904
#SPJ11
When phosphoric acid reacts with potassium bicarbonate the products that form are potassium phosphate, carbon dioxide, and water. What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide when this chemical equation is properly balanced?
The coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced chemical equation is 3.
When phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) reacts with potassium bicarbonate (KHCO₃), the balanced chemical equation is:
2 H₃PO₄ + 3 KHCO₃ → K₃PO₄ + 3 CO₂ + 3 H₂O
In this equation, the coefficient for carbon dioxide (CO₂) is 3.
The balanced equation ensures that the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the equation. By balancing the equation, we can see that two molecules of phosphoric acid react with three molecules of potassium bicarbonate to produce one molecule of potassium phosphate, three molecules of carbon dioxide, and three molecules of water.
The coefficient 3 in front of carbon dioxide indicates that three molecules of carbon dioxide are produced during the reaction. This means that for every two molecules of phosphoric acid and three molecules of potassium bicarbonate consumed, three molecules of carbon dioxide are formed as a product.
Therefore, when phosphoric acid reacts with potassium bicarbonate, the balanced equation indicates that three molecules of carbon dioxide are produced.
To know more about balancing chemical equations, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12971167
#SPJ11