Flexible electronics is becoming an increasingly popular research topic due to their exciting potential applications such as artificial skin. You land a job at FlexSkin, a new startup company in Bethlehem trying to develop electrically conductive skin- like materials for prosthetics. Their newest material prototype (called CarboFlex) is synthesized by imbedding carbon nano-fibers (CNFs) as both a highly conductive and reinforcing phase into thin films of poly-methyl-meth-acrylate (PMMA). FlexSkin claims that CarboFlex can maintain its conductive properties under temperature conditions ranging from -100 °C to 100 °C. You are suspicious since this claim is made based on separate mechanical and electrical tests! Hence, you decide to run a stress-condition-simulating dynamic bending test of the PMMA-CNF composite while concurrently measuring its electrical properties. At freezing temperatures, the composite indeed behaves as claimed but as you approach 100 °C the conductivity begins to drop rapidly as a function of number of bending cycles. Your boss sees the data, freaks out and asks for an immediate explanation. How can you explain the high temperature-induced conductive property breakdown?

Answers

Answer 1

As the dynamic bending test is performed, the composite's temperature stress is applied, and the difference in thermal expansion coefficients between CNFs and PMMA plays a significant role in the conductive properties' breakdown.

As the temperature approaches 100 °C, the conductivity of the PMMA-CNF composite begins to drop rapidly as a function of the number of bending cycles. In this dynamic bending test, temperature stress is applied, which affects the conductivity of the material. This effect is due to two factors.

Firstly, carbon nanofibers and PMMA have different thermal expansion coefficients, which leads to differential thermal expansion when exposed to different temperatures.

Secondly, PMMA has a glass transition temperature (Tg) of approximately 100 °C, which is close to the highest temperature at which the composite can maintain its conductivity. The composite material that Flex.

Skin is using for their Carbo

Flex product contains carbon nano-fibers (CNFs) embedded in poly-methyl-meth-acrylate (PMMA) thin films, which is highly conductive and can maintain its conductive properties under temperatures from -100 °C to 100 °C.

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Related Questions

Which statement is true regarding seawater (pH8.0) ? a.The concentration of hydroxide ions in this solution is higher than the concentration of hydrogen ions. b.The concentration of hydrogen ions in this solution is higher than the concentration of hydroxide ions.

Answers

In relation to seawater with a pH of 8.0, the correct response is b. In saltwater with a pH of 8.0, there are more hydrogen ions present than hydroxide ions.

The pH scale is used to determine the amount of hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxide ions (OH-) in water. At pH 7, which is classified as neutral, the concentration of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is equal. A pH value below 7 is acidic and indicates a greater concentration of hydrogen ions, whereas a pH value over 7 is basic and indicates a greater concentration of hydroxide ions.

Seawater is often mildly basic, with a pH between 7.5 and 8.5. With a pH of 8.0, the concentration of hydrogen ions in this situation is greater than the concentration of hydrogen ions is higher than the concentration of hydroxide ions. This means that there are more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions present in seawater at this pH.

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Calculate the time period of an investment in a mutual
fund that matured to $69,741.60 yielding interest of $13,242.64 at
10.92% compounded monthly.

Answers

The time period of the investment in the mutual fund is approximately 3.0 years.

To calculate the time period of an investment in a mutual fund, we can use the formula for compound interest:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

A = $69,741.60 (the maturity amount)

P = the principal amount (not given, this is what we need to find)

r = 10.92% per annum = 0.1092 (in decimal form)

n = 12 (compounded monthly, so it's 12 times per year)

t = the time period in years (what we need to find)

We are also given that the investment yielded interest of $13,242.64.

We can set up two equations using the given information:

1. A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

  $69,741.60 = P(1 + 0.1092/12)^(12t)

2. Interest = A - P

  $13,242.64 = $69,741.60 - P

we can solve these equations to find the principal amount (P) and the time period (t).

Step 1: Solve for P using equation (2):

$13,242.64 = $69,741.60 - P

P = $69,741.60 - $13,242.64

P = $56,498.96

Step 2: Solve for t using equation (1):

$69,741.60 = $56,498.96(1 + 0.1092/12)^(12t)

Divide both sides by $56,498.96:

(1 + 0.1092/12)^(12t) = $69,741.60 / $56,498.96

Take the natural logarithm of both sides:

12t * ln(1 + 0.1092/12) = ln($69,741.60 / $56,498.96)

Now, solve for t:

t = ln($69,741.60 / $56,498.96) / (12 * ln(1 + 0.1092/12))

Using a calculator, we find that t ≈ 3.0 years (rounded to one decimal place).

Thus, the appropriate answer is approximately 3.0 years.

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Plot the shear and moment diagrams for the beam loaded with both the distributed and point loads. What are the values of the shear and moment at x=3 m ? Determine the maximum bending moment Mmax. Note: Please write the value of x in the space below.

Answers

Answer: Shear force at x=3m = -34 kN

The maximum bending moment Mmax = 14 kN.m occurs at x = 6 m.

Maximum bending moment: Mmax = 14 kN.m

Maximum bending moment occurs at x=6m.

Given the beam loaded with both distributed and point loads as shown in the figure below:  Let's plot the shear and moment diagrams for the beam loaded with both the distributed and point loads

To plot the shear and moment diagrams, first calculate the reactions at A and D:

RA + RB = 20 × 4 = 80 kN ……(1)20 × 4 × 2 + RD × 3 = 20 × 6RA × 2

RA = 16 kN ……(2)RD = 24 kN ……(3)

The reaction values can be calculated as follows:

Then, we can plot the shear and moment diagrams as shown below: Therefore, the shear force and moment at x=3m is as follows: Shear force at x=3m = -34 kN

Maximum bending moment: Maximum bending moment occurs where the shear force is zero.

Bending moment at x=0 is zero

So, the bending moment at x=6m is zero

Therefore, the maximum bending moment occurs between x=3m and x=6m.Bending moment at x=3m is given by:

[tex]M = RA × x - 20 × x/2 - 10 × (x - 2) - RD × (x - 3)M = 16 × 3 - 20 × 3/2 - 10 × (3 - 2) - 24 × (3 - 3)M = 12 kN.m[/tex]

Therefore,

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The difference of 1 1/4 and 1/5 is added to 5 6/10. What is the result?

Answers

Therefore, the result is 133/20

To find the result, we'll first calculate the difference between 1 1/4 and 1/5.

1 1/4 is equivalent to 5/4, and 1/5 can be written as

1/5 * 4/4 = 4/20.

Subtracting these fractions, we get

(5/4) - (4/20) = 25/20 - 4/20 = 21/20.

Next, we add this difference to 5 6/10. 5 6/10 is equivalent to 56/10. Adding the fractions, we get

(21/20) + (56/10) =

(21/20) + (112/20) = 133/20.

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Salesforce validation rule question.
An object called Student has two picklists. One is percentage and options: 90, 80, 70, 60,50 and other one is grade with options: A, B, C, D, F.
write a validation rule using ispickval when percentage is selected as 90, the grade automatically selects A.

Answers

To create a validation rule in Salesforce that automatically selects grade A when the percentage is set to 90, you can use the ISPICKVAL function. This function allows you to check the selected value of a picklist field and perform actions based on the value. By using ISPICKVAL in the validation rule, you can ensure that the grade field is populated with A when the percentage field is set to 90.

To implement this validation rule, follow these steps:

Go to the Object Manager in Salesforce and open the Student object.

Navigate to the Validation Rules section and click on "New Rule" to create a new validation rule.

Provide a suitable Rule Name and optionally, a Description for the rule.

In the Error Condition Formula field, enter the following formula:

AND(ISPICKVAL(Percentage__c, "90"), NOT(ISPICKVAL(Grade__c, "A")))

This formula checks if the percentage field is selected as 90 and the grade field is not set to A.

In the Error Message field, specify an appropriate error message to be displayed when the validation rule fails. For example, "When percentage is 90, grade must be A."

Save the validation rule.

With this validation rule in place, whenever a user selects 90 in the percentage field, the grade field will automatically be populated with A. If the grade is not set to A when the percentage is 90, the validation rule will be triggered and display the specified error message.

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A well was produced for 60 hours at a rate of 80 stb/d and then shut for another 60 hours. Sketch a typical rate profile at surface (q vs. time) for the following cases: a. The whole production is from the sandface b. 50% of the production is from the sandface c. The whole production is from the wellbore

Answers

a. The rate profile at the surface for the whole production from the sandface will show a constant rate of 80 stb/d for the first 60 hours, followed by a zero rate for the next 60 hours.

In case a, where the whole production is from the sandface, the rate profile at the surface can be visualized as follows:
- For the first 60 hours, the well produces at a constant rate of 80 stb/d. This is because the sandface is the only source of production, and it is capable of sustaining a constant rate.
- After 60 hours, the well is shut, and there is no production from the sandface. Therefore, the rate at the surface drops to zero. This period of shut-in allows the reservoir to build up pressure and replenish the fluids.

It's important to note that the rate profile assumes ideal conditions and doesn't account for any changes in reservoir pressure or well performance over time. The actual rate profile may vary depending on various factors such as reservoir characteristics, fluid properties, and wellbore configuration.

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Daily Enterprises is purchasing a $9.8 million machine. It will cost $45,000 to transport and install the machine. The machine has a depreciable life of five years using straight-line depreciation and will have no salvage value. The machine will generate incremental revenues of $4.1 million per year along with incremental costs of $1.3 million per year Daily's marginal tax rate is 21%. You are forecasting incremental free cash flows for Daily Enterprises. What are the incremental free cash flows associated with the new machine? The free cash flow for year 0 will bes ________(Round to the nearest dollar.) The free cash flow for years 1−5 will be $_________ (Round to the nearest dollar.)

Answers

The incremental free cash flows are

Free Cash Flow for Year 0: $9,845,000Free Cash Flow for Years 1-5: $2,212,000

1. Free Cash Flow for Year 0 (Initial Investment):

The initial investment includes the cost of the machine and the cost of transportation and installation:

Initial Investment = Machine Cost + Transportation and Installation Cost

                 = $9.8 million + $45,000

                 = $9,845,000

2. Free Cash Flow for Years 1-5 (Annual Cash Flows):

For each year, Incremental Cash Flow

= Incremental Revenues - Incremental Costs - Tax

The incremental revenues and costs per year are given as follows:

Incremental Revenues = $4.1 million

Incremental Costs = $1.3 million

Marginal Tax Rate = 21%

Now, we can calculate the incremental free cash flows for years 1-5:

Year 1:

Incremental Cash Flow = $4.1 million - $1.3 million - (0.21 * ($4.1 million - $1.3 million))

                    = $4.1 million - $1.3 million - (0.21 * $2.8 million)

                    = $4.1 million - $1.3 million - $588,000

                    = $2,212,000

Years 2-5:

Since the machine has a depreciable life of five years and uses straight-line depreciation with no salvage value, the incremental cash flows for years 2-5 will remain the same as in Year 1:

Incremental Cash Flow = $2,212,000

Therefore, the incremental free cash flows associated with the new machine are as follows:

Free Cash Flow for Year 0: $9,845,000

Free Cash Flow for Years 1-5: $2,212,000

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A mole of charge. One mole of calcium ions, for instance, contains two moles of charge. Choose the best matching term from the menu.

Answers

When we say "a mole of charge," we are referring to 6.022 × 10^23 elementary charges, such as electrons or protons.

A mole of charge refers to the amount of electric charge that corresponds to one mole of a particular charged particle or ion. In the case of calcium ions (Ca²⁺), one mole of calcium ions contains two moles of charge.

This is because calcium ions have a charge of +2, indicating the gain or loss of two electrons.

The concept of a mole of charge is based on Avogadro's number, which states that one mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 10^23 entities (atoms, ions, molecules, etc.).

In the context of charge, this means that one mole of charged particles contains a number of charges equal to Avogadro's number.

The concept of a mole allows us to quantitatively relate the amount of charge to the number of particles involved, providing a convenient way to work with and compare different quantities of charge in various chemical and physical processes.

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Using the limit as h goes to 0, find the slope of each of the following: 14 Marks, 5 Marks) a) f(x) = -6x2 + 7x – 3 at x=-2 X-8 b)f(x) = at x = 1 2x+5

Answers

a. The slope of the function f(x) = -6x^2 + 7x - 3 at x = -2 is 31.

b. The slope of the function f(x) = (2x + 5)^(1/2) at x = 1 is 1/(2√7).

a) To find the slope of the function f(x) = -6x^2 + 7x - 3 at x = -2, we can use the derivative of the function. The derivative represents the slope of the tangent line to the function at a given point.

Let's find the derivative of f(x) with respect to x:

f'(x) = d/dx (-6x^2 + 7x - 3)

= -12x + 7

Now, we can find the slope by evaluating f'(-2):

slope = f'(-2) = -12(-2) + 7

= 24 + 7

= 31

Therefore, the slope of the function f(x) = -6x^2 + 7x - 3 at x = -2 is 31.

b) To find the slope of the function f(x) = (2x + 5)^(1/2) at x = 1, we need to take the derivative of the function.

Let's find the derivative of f(x) with respect to x:

f'(x) = d/dx ((2x + 5)^(1/2))

= (1/2)(2x + 5)^(-1/2)(2)

= (1/2)(2)/(2x + 5)^(1/2)

= 1/(2(2x + 5)^(1/2))

Now, we can find the slope by evaluating f'(1):

slope = f'(1) = 1/(2(2(1) + 5)^(1/2))

= 1/(2(7)^(1/2))

= 1/(2√7)

Therefore, the slope of the function f(x) = (2x + 5)^(1/2) at x = 1 is 1/(2√7).

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The water velocity in a river is 1.5 miles per day. At a certain point the COD in the river is 10 mg/L. If the first-order decay rate is 0.25 per day, what will the COD be 5.0 miles downstream? Express the answer in mg/L, to three significant digits.

Answers

The COD at a point 5.0 miles downstream from the initial point will be approximately 7.220 mg/L.COD is reduced through decay as it moves downstream. The decay rate is given as 0.25 per day.

To calculate the COD at a certain distance downstream, we use the equation:

COD_downstream = COD_initial * exp(-decay_rate * distance / velocity)

Plugging in the given values:

COD_downstream = 10 * exp(-0.25 * 5.0 / 1.5)

Calculating the expression:

COD_downstream ≈ 10 * exp(-0.8333)

COD_downstream ≈ 10 * 0.4346

COD_downstream ≈ 4.346

Rounding to three significant digits:

COD_downstream ≈ 4.35 mg/L

After traveling 5.0 miles downstream in a river with a water velocity of 1.5 miles per day and a first-order decay rate of 0.25 per day, the COD concentration is estimated to be 8.746 mg/L. Therefore, the COD at a point 5.0 miles downstream is approximately 4.35 mg/L.

the COD at a distance of 5.0 miles downstream from the initial point is estimated to be approximately 4.35 mg/L, considering the given water velocity .

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Find all x values between 0≤x<2π of f(x)=2sinx−x where the tangent line is horizontal.

Answers

The x-values between 0≤x<2π where the tangent line of f(x) = 2sinx - x is horizontal are π/3 and 5π/3.

The tangent line of a function is horizontal when the derivative of the function is equal to zero. To find the x-values where the tangent line of the function f(x) = 2sinx - x is horizontal, we need to find the critical points of the function.

1: Find the derivative of f(x) using the chain rule.
f'(x) = 2cosx - 1

2: Set the derivative equal to zero and solve for x.
2cosx - 1 = 0
2cosx = 1
cosx = 1/2

3: Find the values of x between 0 and 2π that satisfy the equation cos x = 1/2. These values are where the tangent line of the function is horizontal.

The cosine function has a value of 1/2 at two points within 0 to 2π: x = π/3 and x = 5π/3.

Therefore, the x-values between 0≤x<2π where the tangent line of f(x) = 2sinx - x is horizontal are π/3 and 5π/3

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At the watershed outlet (2), you will have to design a bridge. The water resource engineer gave you a 20-year return period flow, so you based on your design on this value. What is your risk that during the next 10 years at least once the bridge will flood.

Answers

Therefore, the risk that during the next 10 years at least once the bridge will flood is 40.13%.1 - (1 - AEP)^nwhere AEP is the Annual Exceedance Probability and n is the number of years.

In this question, the design of the bridge is based on the 20-year return period flow given by the water resource engineer. The Annual Exceedance Probability (AEP) for the 20-year return period flow is calculated as:

1 / 20 = 0.05 or 5%

This means that there is a 5% chance of the flow being exceeded in any given year.

Using the formula above, we can now calculate the risk that during the next 10 years at least once the bridge will flood as follows:

1 - (1 - 0.05)^10=

1 - (0.95)^10=

1 - 0.5987= 0.4013 or 40.13%

Therefore, the risk that during the next 10 years at least once the bridge will flood is 40.13%.

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A certain vibrating system satisfies the equation u" + yu' + u = 0. Find the value of the damping coefficient y for which the quasi period of the damped motion is 66% greater than the period of the corresponding undamped motion. Round you answer to three decimal places. Y = i

Answers

Rounding to three decimal places, we have:
[tex]y = 2 * \sqrt(1 - (1/1.66)^2) = 1.384[/tex].The equation u" + yu' + u = 0 represents a vibrating system with damping, where u is the displacement of the system, u' is the velocity, and u" is the acceleration.

The damping coefficient y determines the amount of damping in the system.To find the value of y for which the quasi period of the damped motion is 66% greater than the period of the corresponding undamped motion, we can compare the formulas for the periods.The period of the undamped motion is given by[tex]T_undamped = 2π/ω[/tex], where ω is the natural frequency of the system. In this case, ω is the square root of 1, since the equation is u" + u = 0.

The period of the damped motion is given by

[tex]T_damped = 2π/ω_damped[/tex],

where [tex]ω_damped[/tex]is the damped natural frequency of the system. The damped natural frequency can be expressed as

[tex]ω_d_a_m_p_e_d = \sqrt(ω^2 - (y/2)^2).[/tex]

Given that the quasi period of the damped motion is 66% greater than the period of the undamped motion, we can write the equation:

[tex]T_damped = 1.66 * T_undamped[/tex]

Substituting the formulas for [tex]T_damped[/tex] and[tex]T_undamped,[/tex] we get:

[tex]2π/ω_d_a_m_p_e_d = 1.66 * (2π/ω)[/tex]

Simplifying, we have:

[tex]ω_d_a_m_p_e_d = (1/1.66) * ω[/tex]

Substituting [tex]ω_d_a_m_p_e_d = \sqrt(ω^2 - (y/2)^2)[/tex]and ω = 1, we get:

[tex]\sqrt(1 - (y/2)^2) = 1/1.66[/tex]

Squaring both sides, we have:

[tex]1 - (y/2)^2 = (1/1.66)^2[/tex]

Simplifying, we get:

[tex](y/2)^2 = 1 - (1/1.66)^2[/tex]

Solving for y, we have:
[tex]y/2 = \sqrt(1 - (1/1.66)^2)[/tex]

Multiplying both sides by 2, we get:

[tex]y = 2 * \sqrt(1 - (1/1.66)^2)[/tex]

Using a calculator, we can velocity this expression to find the value of y.

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1.68. Calculate the approximate viscosity of the oil. 2'x2' square plate W = 25 lb 13 5 V=0.64 ft/s Problem 1.68 12 0.05" oil film

Answers

We calculate the approximate viscosity of the oil as 7.858 lbf·s/ft².

To calculate the approximate viscosity of the oil, we can use the formula for flow between parallel plates.

Weight of the 2'x2' square plate (W) = 25 lb
Velocity (V) = 0.64 ft/s
Thickness of the oil film (h) = 0.05"

Convert the weight to force in pounds-force (lbf).
1 lb = 32.174 lbf (approximately)
So, W = 25 lb * 32.174 lbf/lb

W = 804.35 lbf

Calculate the shear stress (τ) between the plates.
τ = W / (2 * A)
where A is the area of one plate.

The area of one plate (A) = 2' * 2'

A = 4 ft²

So, τ = 804.35 lbf / (2 * 4 ft²)

τ = 100.54375 lbf/ft²

Calculate the velocity gradient (dv/dy).
The velocity gradient is the change in velocity (dv) per unit distance (dy). Since the flow is between parallel plates, the distance between the plates is equal to the thickness of the oil film (h).

dv/dy = V / h

dv/dy = 0.64 ft/s / 0.05"

dv/dy = 12.8 ft/s²

Calculate the viscosity (η).
The viscosity (η) is given by the formula:
η = τ / (dv/dy)

So, η = (100.54375 lbf/ft²) / (12.8 ft/s²)

η = 7.858 lbf·s/ft²

Therefore, the approximate viscosity of the oil is 7.858 lbf·s/ft².

Please note that the calculated viscosity is given in lbf·s/ft², which is a non-standard unit. In most cases, viscosity is measured in units such as poise (P) or centipoise (cP). To convert the calculated viscosity to poise, you would divide by 32.174.

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QUESTION 6 5 points Save Answer The degradation of organic waste to methane and other gases requires water content. Determine the minimum water amount (in gram) to degrade 1 tone of organic solid wast

Answers

The minimum water amount required to degrade 1 tonne of organic solid waste is approximately 300-500 liters.

In order to efficiently degrade organic waste, a certain level of moisture is necessary. The presence of water promotes the growth of microorganisms responsible for breaking down the organic matter. These microorganisms, such as bacteria and archaea, require water for their metabolic processes. The ideal moisture content for anaerobic digestion, the process that converts organic waste into methane and other gases, is typically around 70-80%.

When considering the degradation of organic waste, it is important to maintain an optimal moisture balance. If the waste is too dry, the microbial activity can be hindered, leading to slower degradation rates. Conversely, if the waste is too wet, it can become anaerobic, resulting in the production of undesirable byproducts like hydrogen sulfide and volatile fatty acids.

The specific water requirement can vary depending on the composition of the organic waste. Materials with higher lignin content, such as woody materials, may require more water to facilitate degradation compared to materials with higher cellulose and hemicellulose content, like food waste or crop residues.

In summary, the minimum water amount required to degrade 1 tonne of organic solid waste is approximately 300-500 liters. This range ensures the proper moisture content for efficient microbial activity and the production of methane and other gases through anaerobic digestion.

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A rectangular beam section, 250mm x 500mm, is subjected to a shear of 95KN. a. Determine the shear flow at a point 100mm below the top of the beam. b. Find the maximum shearing stress of the beam.

Answers

a. The shear flow at a point 100mm below the top of the beam is 380 N/mm.

b. The maximum shearing stress of the beam is 0.76 N/mm².

To determine the shear flow at a point 100mm below the top of the beam (a), we can use the formula:

Shear Flow (q) = Shear Force (V) / Area Moment of Inertia (I)

Given that the beam section is rectangular with dimensions 250mm x 500mm, the area moment of inertia can be calculated as follows:

I = (b * h³) / 12

Where b is the width of the beam (250mm) and h is the height of the beam (500mm). Plugging in the values, we get:

I = (250 * 500³) / 12

Next, we calculate the shear flow:

q = 95,000 N / [(250 * 500³) / 12]

Simplifying the equation, we find:

q = 380 N/mm

Thus, the shear flow at a point 100mm below the top of the beam is 380 N/mm.

To find the maximum shearing stress of the beam (b), we use the formula:

Maximum Shearing Stress = (3/2) * Shear Force / (b * h)

Plugging in the values, we get:

Maximum Shearing Stress = (3/2) * 95,000 N / (250 mm * 500 mm)

Simplifying the equation, we find:

Maximum Shearing Stress = 0.76 N/mm²

Therefore, the maximum shearing stress of the beam is 0.76 N/mm².

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Solve the following initial value problems (ODE) with the Laplace transform: (a) y'+y= cos 2t, y(0) = -2 (b) y'+2y=6e", y(0) = 1, a is a constant (c) "+2y+y=38(1-2), y(0)=1, y'(0) = 1

Answers

Given the differential equation y' + y = cos(2t), we can solve this initial value problem using the Laplace transform. The differential equation is of the form y' + py = q(t).

a). Taking the Laplace transform of y' + py with respect to t, we have:

L{y' + py} = L{q(t)}  ⇒  sY(s) - y(0) + pY(s) = Q(s)

Where Y(s) and Q(s) are the Laplace transforms of y(t) and q(t), respectively.

Substituting p = 1, y(0) = -2, and q(t) = cos(2t), we have Q(s) = s / (s^2 + 4).

Now we have:

(s + 1)Y(s) = (s / (s^2 + 4)) - 2 / (s + 1)

Simplifying, we get:

Y(s) = -2 / (s + 1) + (s / (s^2 + 4))

To find the inverse Laplace transform, we can rewrite Y(s) as:

Y(s) = -2 / (s + 1) + (s / (s^2 + 4)) - 2 / (s + 1)^2 + (1/2) * (1 / (s^2 + 4)) * 2s

Taking the inverse Laplace transform, we obtain the solution:

y(t) = -2e^(-t) + (1/2)sin(2t) - cos(2t)e^(-t)

b) Given the differential equation y' + 2y = 6e^a, where "a" is a constant, we can solve the initial value problem using the Laplace transform.

The differential equation is of the form y' + py = q(t). Taking the Laplace transform of y' + py with respect to t, we have:

L{y' + py} = L{q(t)}  ⇒  sY(s) - y(0) + pY(s) = Q(s)

Substituting p = 2, y(0) = 1, and q(t) = 6e^at, we have Q(s) = 6 / (s - a).

Now we have:

(s + 2)Y(s) = 6 / (s - a) + 1

Simplifying, we get:

Y(s) = (6 / (s - a) + 1) / (s + 2)

Taking the inverse Laplace transform, we obtain the solution:

y(t) = e^(-2t) + (3/2)e^(at) - (3/2)e^(-2t-at)

c) Given the differential equation y' + 2y + y = 38(1 - 2), we can solve this initial value problem using the Laplace transform.

The differential equation is of the form y' + py = q(t). Taking the Laplace transform of y' + py with respect to t, we have:

L{y' + py} = L{q(t)}  ⇒  sY(s) - y(0) + pY(s) = Q(s).

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You have 75.0 mL of 0.17 M HA. After adding 30.0 mL of 0.10 M
NaOH, the pH is 5.50. What is the Ka value of
HA?
Group of answer choices
3.2 × 10–6
9.7 × 10–7
0.31
7.4 × 10–7
none of these

Answers

The Ka value of HA is 1.94 × 10⁻⁷.

To determine the Ka value of HA, we need to use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA])

Given that the pH is 5.50, we can rearrange the equation to solve for pKa:

pKa = pH - log([A-]/[HA])

First, let's calculate the concentrations of [A-] and [HA] after the reaction:

Initial moles of HA = (0.17 mol/L) * (0.075 L) = 0.01275 mol

Moles of HA remaining after reaction = 0.01275 mol - 0.003 mol (from NaOH) = 0.00975 mol

Moles of A- formed = (0.10 mol/L) * (0.030 L) = 0.003 mol

[A-] = 0.003 mol / (0.075 L + 0.030 L) = 0.027 mol/L

[HA] = 0.00975 mol / (0.075 L) = 0.13 mol/L

Now, substitute these values into the equation:

pKa = 5.50 - log(0.027/0.13)

pKa = 5.50 - log(0.2077)

pKa = 5.50 - (-0.682)

pKa = 6.182

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The Solubility Product Constant for cobalt(II) carbonate is 8.0 x 10-13 The molar solubility of cobalt(II) carbonate in a 0.234 M potassium carbonate solution is Submit

Answers

The molar solubility of cobalt(II) carbonate in a 0.234 M potassium carbonate solution is 2.56 x 10^-8 mol/L.

The solubility product constant (Ksp) is a measure of the solubility of a compound in a solution. It is the product of the concentrations of the ions in the equilibrium expression for the dissociation of the compound. For cobalt(II) carbonate, the Ksp value is 8.0 x 10^-13.

To find the molar solubility of cobalt(II) carbonate in a potassium carbonate solution, we need to compare the Ksp value to the concentration of carbonate ions (CO3^2-) in the solution. In this case, the concentration of carbonate ions is given as 0.234 M.

The balanced equation for the dissociation of cobalt(II) carbonate is:

CoCO3(s) ↔ Co^2+(aq) + CO3^2-(aq)

Since the coefficient of cobalt(II) carbonate is 1, the molar solubility of cobalt(II) carbonate will be equal to the concentration of cobalt(II) ions in the solution.

Using the equilibrium expression, we can write:

Ksp = [Co^2+][CO3^2-]

Substituting the given values:

8.0 x 10^-13 = [Co^2+][0.234]

Solving for [Co^2+], we find:

[Co^2+] = (8.0 x 10^-13) / 0.234 = 3.42 x 10^-12 M

Therefore, the molar solubility of cobalt(II) carbonate in a 0.234 M potassium carbonate solution is 3.42 x 10^-12 mol/L.

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0 Question 2 Choose the reaction that demonstrates Kc = Kp. O CO(g) + 2 H₂(g) = CH₂OH(g) ON₂O4(g) = 2NO₂(g) ON₂(g) + 3 H₂(g) = 2 NH₂(g) O CH%B) + H2O) = COg) + 3 Hyg) H₂(g) +1₂(g) = 2 HI(g) 4 pts

Answers

The reaction 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) demonstrates Kc = Kp, indicating that the molar concentration ratio is directly proportional to the partial pressure ratio of the products to the reactants.

The given equation that demonstrates Kc = Kp is:

2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g)

To understand why Kc = Kp in this reaction, we need to consider the relationship between the two equilibrium constants.

Kc represents the equilibrium constant expressed in terms of molar concentrations of the reactants and products. It is calculated by taking the ratio of the concentrations of the products raised to their stoichiometric coefficients over the concentrations of the reactants raised to their stoichiometric coefficients, all at equilibrium.

Kp, on the other hand, represents the equilibrium constant expressed in terms of partial pressures of the gases involved in the reaction. It is calculated using the same principle as Kc, but using partial pressures instead of concentrations.

In the given reaction, the coefficients of the balanced equation (2 and 1) are the same for both NO2 and N2O4. This means that the stoichiometry of the reaction is 1:2 for NO2 and N2O4. As a result, the molar concentration ratio of the products to the reactants is directly proportional to the partial pressure ratio of the products to the reactants. Therefore, Kc = Kp for this specific reaction.

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Need 6 and 7 done please and thank you

Answers

Answer:

black

black

Step-by-step explanation:

The 12 key principles of green chemistry were formulated by P.T. Anastas and J.C. Warner in 1998. It outlines an early conception of what would make a greener chemical, process, or product.choose which principles aim at reducing:
(i). materials (ii). waste (iii). hazards

Answers

These principles collectively aim at reducing materials, waste, and hazards in chemical processes and products, promoting sustainability and environmental stewardship.

The 12 principles of green chemistry aim at reducing materials, waste, and hazards in chemical processes and products. The principles that specifically address these reductions are:

(i) Materials:

1. Prevention: It is better to prevent waste generation than to treat or clean up waste after it is formed.

2. Atom Economy: Designing syntheses to maximize the incorporation of all materials used into the final product, minimizing waste generation.

3. Less Hazardous Chemical Syntheses: Designing and using chemicals that are less hazardous to human health and the environment.

(ii) Waste:

4. Designing Safer Chemicals: Designing chemical products to be fully effective while minimizing toxicity.

5. Safer Solvents and Auxiliaries: Selecting solvents and reaction conditions that minimize the use of hazardous substances and reduce waste.

6. Design for Energy Efficiency: Designing chemical processes that are energy-efficient, reducing energy consumption and waste generation.

(iii) Hazards:

7. Use of Renewable Feedstocks: Using raw materials and feedstocks from renewable resources to reduce the dependence on non-renewable resources and the associated environmental impacts.

8. Reduce Derivatives: Minimizing or eliminating the use of unnecessary derivatives in chemical processes, reducing waste generation.

9. Catalysis: Using catalytic reactions whenever possible to minimize the use of stoichiometric reagents, reducing waste and energy consumption.

10. Design for Degradation: Designing chemical products to be easily degradable, reducing their persistence and potential for environmental accumulation.

11. Real-time Analysis for Pollution Prevention: Developing analytical methodologies that enable real-time monitoring and control to prevent the formation of hazardous substances.

12. Inherently Safer Chemistry for Accident Prevention: Designing chemicals and processes to minimize the potential for accidents, releases, and explosions.

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1. what is the LIMITATIONS & PRECAUTIONS needed / measures to determine the empirical formula of zinc iodide.

Answers

The limitations in determining the empirical formula of zinc iodide include the assumption that the reaction goes to completion, the possibility of side reactions, and the need for accurate measurements. Precautions needed include ensuring proper mixing and uniform distribution of reactants, avoiding contamination, and conducting the experiment in controlled conditions to minimize external influences.

To determine the empirical formula of zinc iodide, one must first react zinc with iodine to form zinc iodide. The reaction is assumed to go to completion, converting all the reactants into the product. The mass of zinc and iodine can be measured before and after the reaction. The difference in mass will correspond to the mass of iodine that reacted with the zinc.

From the masses of zinc and iodine, the molar ratios can be determined, leading to the empirical formula of zinc iodide. It is important to handle the chemicals carefully, ensure accurate measurements, and conduct the experiment in a controlled environment to obtain reliable results.

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USing Convolution theorem find Inverse Laplace of 1/(s+1)(s+9)^2

Answers

Convolution of e(-t) and t*e(-9t) yields 1/(s+1)(s+9)2, which is the inverse Laplace transform.

A mathematical notion known as the convolution theorem connects the Laplace transform of two functions converging to the sum of their individual Laplace transforms.

Use the Convolution theorem to represent a function as a convolution of smaller functions, and then perform the inverse Laplace transform on each component to determine the function's inverse Laplace transform.

We have the function 1/(s+1)(s+9)2 in this situation. This function can be expressed as the convolution of the functions 1/(s+1) and 1/(s+9)2.

By using the equation L(-1)1/(s+a) = e(-at), we may determine the inverse Laplace transform of 1/(s+1). Therefore, e(-t) is the inverse Laplace transform of 1/(s+1).

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Let {an} be a sequence such that the subsequences {azk}, {a2k+1} and {a3k) are convergent. Prove that the sequence {an} also converges. b) Prove that if every subsequence {an} of {a} had a further subsequence {anx₁} {ant} converging to a then the sequence {an} also converges to a.

Answers

Both parts (a) and (b) have been proven: if the subsequences of a sequence are convergent, then the sequence itself is also convergent.

To prove both statements, we will use the fact that any convergent sequence is a bounded sequence. Let's begin with part a).

a) Assume that the subsequences {azk}, {a2k+1}, and {a3k} are convergent. Since a convergent sequence is bounded, each of these subsequences is bounded. Now, consider the sequence {an} itself. For any positive integer k, we can find a subsequence {an(k)} by selecting every k-th term from {an}. By the given information, we know that {an(k)} is convergent for all positive integers k.

Since each subsequence {an(k)} is bounded, the entire sequence {an} must also be bounded. We can conclude that {an} is bounded by choosing the maximum of the bounds of each subsequence.

By the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem, any bounded sequence contains a convergent subsequence. Since {an} is bounded, it contains a convergent subsequence. But if {an} contains a convergent subsequence, then {an} itself must converge.

b) Assume that every subsequence {an} has a further subsequence {anx₁}, {anx₂}, ..., {ant} converging to a. We want to prove that {an} also converges to a.

Let's suppose, by contradiction, that {an} does not converge to a. Then there exists an ε > 0 such that for all N, there exists an n > N such that |an - a| ≥ ε.

Consider the subsequence {an₁} such that |an₁ - a| ≥ ε₁ for some ε₁ > 0. Since {an} does not converge to a, we can choose an N₁ such that for all n > N₁, |an - a| ≥ ε₁.

However, this contradicts the assumption that {an} has a further subsequence {anx₁}, {anx₂}, ..., {ant} converging to a, since by choosing N = N₁, we can find an nx₁ > N such that |anx₁ - a| < ε₁.

Hence, our assumption was incorrect, and we conclude that {an} must converge to a.

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(c) A horizontal curve is designed for a two-lane road in mountainous terrain. The following data are for geometric design purposes: = 2700 + 32.0 Station (point of intersection) Intersection angle Tangent length = 40° to 50° = 130 to 140 metre Side friction factor = 0.10 to 0.12 Superelevation rate = 8% to 10% Based on the information: (i) Provide the descripton for A, B and C in Figure Q2(c).

Answers

A represents the point of intersection, B represents the tangent length, and C represents the curve on the two-lane road in mountainous terrain.

In the given geometric design for a two-lane road in mountainous terrain, the points A, B, and C are crucial elements. A represents the point of intersection, which is the starting point of the horizontal curve. This is where the road deviates from its straight path and begins to curve. B represents the tangent length, which is the straight portion of the road between the point of intersection (A) and the beginning of the curve (C). It provides a transitional section that allows drivers to adjust their speed and position before entering the curve.

C represents the curve itself, which is the curved portion of the road. The intersection angle at point C determines the sharpness of the curve, typically ranging from 40° to 50°. The curve's superelevation rate, which is the banking of the road, is given as 8% to 10%. This helps to counteract the centrifugal force experienced by vehicles when driving through the curve, improving safety and stability. The side friction factor, ranging from 0.10 to 0.12, indicates the friction between the tires and the road surface, which affects the vehicle's maneuverability while negotiating the curve.

In summary, A represents the point of intersection, B represents the tangent length, and C represents the curve on the two-lane road in mountainous terrain. These elements are essential for the safe and efficient design of the road, ensuring smooth transitions and proper alignment for drivers.

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Find the surface area of this pyramid. *
15 cm
Square pyramid
60 square cm
O457.5 square cm
1800 square cm
O 465 square cm
8 cm

Answers

Answer:

15² + 4(1/2)(15)(8) = 225 + 240 = 465 cm²

Discuss the significance of ""Code of Conduct and Ethics"" for a professional quantity surveyor

Answers

A Code of Conduct and Ethics is essential for Quantity Surveyors as it helps to maintain high standards of professionalism, promotes trust and confidence in the profession, and provides a framework for dealing with ethical dilemmas.

Code of Conduct and Ethics refers to a set of principles and values that guides the behavior and decision-making processes of professionals. For professional Quantity Surveyors, adhering to a Code of Conduct and Ethics is important for a number of reasons.

Firstly, it ensures that Quantity Surveyors act with integrity, honesty, and transparency when dealing with clients, stakeholders, and other professionals in the industry. It helps to promote trust and confidence in the profession, which is vital for the success of any Quantity Surveyor. It also helps to protect the reputation of the profession and ensures that Quantity Surveyors maintain high standards of professionalism.

Secondly, a Code of Conduct and Ethics provides guidelines for Quantity Surveyors to follow when carrying out their professional duties. This can include guidelines on the use of appropriate methodologies, tools, and techniques to ensure that the work is carried out to a high standard. It can also include guidelines on how to deal with conflicts of interest, how to maintain confidentiality, and how to respect the rights of others.

Thirdly, a Code of Conduct and Ethics provides a framework for dealing with ethical dilemmas. For example, a Quantity Surveyor may be faced with a situation where they have to decide between maximizing profits for a client or providing accurate and honest advice. A Code of Conduct and Ethics can help Quantity Surveyors to navigate these types of situations and make decisions that are in line with their professional obligations and responsibilities.

In conclusion, a Code of Conduct and Ethics is essential for Quantity Surveyors as it helps to maintain high standards of professionalism, promotes trust and confidence in the profession, and provides a framework for dealing with ethical dilemmas. By adhering to a Code of Conduct and Ethics, Quantity Surveyors can ensure that they act with integrity and provide the best possible service to their clients and stakeholders.

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7 x is a whole number.
x≥ 0.5
Write down the smallest possible value of x. Pls I have a test tmrw

Answers

Answer:

x = 4/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 7(0.5) = 3.5 is not a whole number, the smallest possible value of x that makes 7x a whole number would be x=4/7 because 7(4/7)=4.

x should equal 4/7

It’s over 0.5 but not by much and will lead to a whole number

Roof beams are connected to foundation top plates with 8d box toenails. Lumber is DF-L. Roof beams are spaced 16 in O.C. Wind pressure -40 psf; Wall height is 12ft. Determine the required number of to

Answers

There will need to be at least 9 toenails on each roof beam in order to secure it. We will first calculate the total uplift force on each roof beam and then determine the number of toenails required to secure them in place.

Given parameters:

The lumber is DF-L.

Roof beams are connected to foundation top plates with 8d box toenails.

Roof beams are spaced 16 in O.C.

Wind pressure -40 psf; Wall height is 12ft.

First, let's calculate the total uplift force on each roof beam:

Wind uplift force = Wind pressure x Roof area

Roof area = (Length of roof/2) x (Distance between rafters)^2

Roof area = (12/2) x (16/12)^2

Roof area = 17.78 sq.ft.

Wind uplift force = -40 psf x 17.78 sq.ft.

Wind uplift force = -711.2 lb

We will now use the uplift force and the allowable load capacity of the toenails to calculate the required number of toenails per beam.

Allowable load capacity of 8d box toenails = 87 lb

Total uplift force on each roof beam = 711.2 lb

Number of toenails required per beam = Total uplift force/Allowable load capacity of toenails

Number of toenails required per beam = 711.2/87

Number of toenails required per beam = 8.17 ~ 9

To secure each roof beam, a minimum of 9 toenails will be required.

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