The equation which describes the mixture at any time t is given as [tex]y=\frac{200000}{(t+200)^2}[/tex].
The amount of crushed pepper after 25 hours is 3.95 grams.
Given that:
The total volume of the juice = 200 liters
Weight of the crushed pepper = 5 grams
The rate at which the juice is added = 3 liters per hour
The rate at which the juice is drained = 2 liters per hour
Let y be the amount of crushed pepper in the juice, which is the expression in time t.
Let V be the volume of the juice in time t.
Then, [tex]\frac{dy}{dt} =0-(\frac{y}{V(t)} )(2)[/tex]
Or, [tex]\frac{dy}{dt} =\frac{-2y}{V(t)}[/tex] - [Equation 1].
Now find [tex]\frac{dV}{dt}[/tex].
[tex]\frac{dV}{dt} =3-2[/tex]
[tex]=1[/tex]
Use the separation of variables to integrate.
[tex]\int dV=\int(1)dt[/tex]
V = t + C.
Now, when t = 0, V = 200.
So, C = 200.
Thus, the equation for V(t) is V(t) = t + 200.
Now, substitute the expression for V(t) in [Equation 1].
[tex]\frac{dy}{dt} =\frac{-2y}{t+200}[/tex]
Do the separation of the variables.
[tex]\frac{1}{y} dy=-\frac{2}{t+200} dt[/tex]
Integrate both sides.
ln(y) = -2 ln (t + 200) + C
Now, when t = 0, y = 5 grams.
ln (5) = -2 ln(200) + C
Or,
C = ln (5) + 2 ln (200)
= ln (5) + ln(200²)
= ln (5 × 200²)
So, ln(y) = -2 ln(t + 200) + ln(5 × 200²)
ln (y) = ln [(t+200)⁻²] + ln(5 × 200²)
ln (y) = ln [(t+200)⁻²(5 × 200²)]
ln (y) = ln [200000(t+200)⁻²]
That is,
[tex]ln(y)=ln[\frac{200000}{(t+200)^2} ][/tex]
So,
[tex]y=\frac{200000}{(t+200)^2}[/tex], which is the required equation.
So, when t = 25,
y = 200000 / (25 + 200)²
= 3.95 grams
Hence the amount of crushed pepper after 25 hours is 3.95 grams.
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8 During a flame test, a lithium salt produces a characteristic red flame. This red color is produced when electrons in excited lithium atoms [4] i) A. are lost by the atoms. B. are gained by the atoms. C. return to lower energy states within the atoms. D. move to higher energy states within the atoms. ii) Justify your answer
During a flame test, a lithium salt produces a characteristic red flame. This red color is produced when electrons in excited lithium atoms: C. return to lower energy states within the atoms.
This is option C
When a lithium salt is heated, the energy absorbed by the electrons causes them to move to higher energy states. However, these excited electrons are unstable and quickly return to their original lower energy states. As they do so, they release the excess energy in the form of light. In the case of lithium, this light appears as a red flame.
When atoms or ions are heated, their electrons can absorb energy and move to higher energy levels. However, these higher energy levels are not stable, and the electrons eventually return to their original energy levels.
As they return, they release the excess energy in the form of photons of light. Each element has a unique arrangement of electrons, and therefore, each element emits a characteristic set of wavelengths of light when heated. In the case of lithium, when its salt is heated during a flame test, the electrons in the excited lithium atoms gain energy and move to higher energy levels
So, the correct answer is C
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Learning Goal: To use the principle of work and energy to determine characteristics of a mass being pulled up an incline and determine the power that must be supplied to the system when the efficiency of the input system is considered As shown, a 53 kg crate is pulled up a θ=40∘ incline by a pulley and motor system. Initially at rest, the crate is pulled s=4.7 m up along the incline, Undergoing constant acceleration, the crate reaches a speed of 2.5 m/s at the instant it has traveled this distance.(Figure 1) Figure 1 of 1 Considening the coeflicent of konetic finction μh=0.13, deternine the power that the motor must supply to the ciate the instant the crate traveis a distance of 4 f in Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Part B - Power supplied to the motor when effictency is considered If the motor has an efficiency of e=0.90, what nower must be supplied to the motor to rase the crale? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. View Avallable Hintis) Part B - Power supplied to the motor when efficiency is considered If the motor has an efficiency of ε=0.90. What power must be supplied to the motor to raise the crate? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.
The power supplied to the motor when the efficiency is considered is 2.0 kW.
In this problem, we need to use the principle of work and energy to determine characteristics of a mass being pulled up an incline and determine the power that must be supplied to the system when the efficiency of the input system is considered.
First, we will determine the work done on the crate by the motor to pull it up an incline. We will also determine the power supplied to the motor at the instant the crate travels a distance of 4m.In the second part, we will determine the power supplied to the motor when efficiency is considered.
Part A The force parallel to the incline is given by F = ma, where a is the acceleration of the crate.
We will use the kinematic equation, v² = u² + 2as, where u = 0 (initial velocity), v = 2.5 m/s (final velocity), and s = 4.7 m (distance traveled) to calculate the acceleration.
[tex]2.5² = 0 + 2a(4.7) ⇒ a = 2.14 m/s²[/tex]
The force parallel to the incline is given by:
[tex]F = ma = (53 kg)(2.14 m/s²) = 113.4 N[/tex]
Therefore,
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What is the combination of ground
improvement theory / technique being emphasised as the most
effective in this large scale land reclamation project in view of
the underlying soil profiles?
The combination of ground improvement theory/ technique being emphasized as the most effective in a large scale land reclamation project in view of the underlying soil profiles is vertical drains with preloading, surcharge, or vacuum consolidation.
To address this issue of a weak soil profile for land reclamation, various ground improvement techniques have been developed.
The purpose of these techniques is to improve the soil's engineering properties by increasing its strength, reducing its compressibility, and increasing its bearing capacity. The most common soil improvement methods are deep mixing, dynamic compaction, surcharge preloading, vertical drains with preloading, and vacuum consolidation.
The soil's permeability and compressibility play an important role in determining the ground improvement technique to be used.
Vertical drains with preloading, surcharge, or vacuum consolidation is the most effective ground improvement technique for this large scale land reclamation project in view of the underlying soil profiles.
The use of vertical drains with preloading is a well-established and commonly used technique for reducing the time required for surcharge consolidation and improving the efficiency of land reclamation.
The use of vacuum consolidation is also effective in improving the soil's compressibility.
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Read the following theorem and its proof and then answer the questions which follow: Theorem. Let to functions p and be analytic at a point. If p(0) 0,q(10) 0 and gʻ(16)0, then simple pole of the quotient p/q and MI) (2) p(20) (a) Proof. Suppose p and q are as stated. Thema is a zero of order m1 of 4. According to Theceem 1 in Section 82 we then have that qiz)=(x-2)(). Furthermore, as is a simple pole of p/qand whereof) We can apply Theorem 1 from Section 50 to conclude that ResSince g(z)=(26), we obtain the desired result. D (12.1) Explain why as is a zero of order m=1ofq (12.2) What properties does have? (12.3) How do we know that is is a simple pole of p/7 (12.4) Show that g) — 4²(²a). (2) (2) (3)
There exists an integer $m_2≥0$ such that where $g$ is analytic and nonzero at $a$.
Suppose $a$ is a zero of $q$ of order $m_1$.
According to Theorem 1 in Section 8.2, we then have that$$q(z)
=(z-a)^{m_1}\cdot h(z),$$where $h$ is analytic and nonzero at $a$.
Since[tex]$q(10)≠0$, we have $a≠10$.[/tex]
Thus $10$ is not a zero of $q$, and we can apply
Theorem 1 in Section 8.2 again to conclude that $h(10)≠0$.
We know that $p$ is analytic at $a$, and $p(a)≠0$ because $a$ is not a pole of $p/q$.
Therefore,
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Solve for Y(s), the Laplace transform of the solution y(t) to the initial value problem below. y′′+5y=t^4,y(0)=0,y′(0)=0 Click here to view the table of Laplace transforms. Click here to view the table of properties of Laplace transforms. Y(s)=
We get the Laplace transform Y(s) of the solution y(t) to the initial value problem:y′′+5y=t⁴ , y(0)=0 , y′(0)=0 as:Y(s) = { 4! / s² } / [ s⁵ + 5s³ ] + [ 10 / (2s³) ] [ 5! / (s + √5)³ + 5! / (s - √5)³ ].
The solution y(t) to the initial value problem is:
y′′+5y=t⁴ ,
y(0)=0 ,
y′(0)=0
We are required to find the Laplace transform of the solution y(t) using the table of Laplace transforms and the table of properties of Laplace transforms. To begin with, we take the Laplace transform of both sides of the differential equation using the linearity property of the Laplace transform. We obtain:
L{y′′} + 5L{y} = L{t⁴}
Taking Laplace transform of y′′ and t⁴ using the table of Laplace transforms, we get:
L{y′′} = s²Y(s) - sy(0) - y′(0)
= s²Y(s)
and,
L{t⁴} = 4! / s⁵
Thus,
L{y′′} + 5L{y} = L{t⁴} gives us:
s²Y(s) + 5Y(s) = 4! / s⁵
Simplifying this expression, we get:
Y(s) = [ 4! / s⁵ ] / [ s² + 5 ]
Multiplying the numerator and the denominator of the right-hand side by s³, we obtain:Y(s) = [ 4! / s² ] / [ s⁵ + 5s³ ]
Using partial fraction decomposition, we can write the right-hand side as:Y(s) = [ A / s² ] + [ Bs + C / s³ ] + [ D / (s + √5) ] + [ E / (s - √5) ]
Multiplying both sides by s³, we get:
s³Y(s) = A(s⁵ + 5s³) + (Bs + C)s⁴ + Ds³(s - √5) + Es³(s + √5)
For s = 0, we have:
s³Y(0) = 5! A
From the initial condition y(0) = 0, we have:
sY(s) = A + C
For the derivative initial condition y′(0) = 0, we have:
s²Y(s) = 2sA + B
From the last two equations, we can find A and C, and substituting these values in the last equation, we get the Laplace transform Y(s) of the solution y(t).
Using partial fraction decomposition, the right-hand side can be written as:Y(s) = [ A / s² ] + [ Bs + C / s³ ] + [ D / (s + √5) ] + [ E / (s - √5) ]
Multiplying both sides by s³, we get:s³Y(s) = A(s⁵ + 5s³) + (Bs + C)s⁴ + Ds³(s - √5) + Es³(s + √5)
For s = 0, we have:
s³Y(0) = 5! A
From the initial condition y(0) = 0, we have:
sY(s) = A + C
For the derivative initial condition y′(0) = 0, we have:
s²Y(s) = 2sA + B
Substituting s = √5 in the first equation, we get:
s³Y(√5) = [ A(5√5 + 5) + C(5 + 2√5) ] / 2 + D(5 - √5)³ + E(5 + √5)³
Substituting s = -√5 in the first equation, we get:
s³Y(-√5) = [ A(-5√5 + 5) - C(5 - 2√5) ] / 2 + D(5 + √5)³ + E(5 - √5)³
Adding the last two equations, we get:
2s³Y(√5) = 10A + 2D(5 - √5)³ + 2E(5 + √5)³.
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What is the value of P in the triangle below?
Answer:
8√3
Step-by-step explanation:
pythagoras theorem
16^2=8^2+p^2
p= √(16^2-8^2)
= 8√3
Answer:
P = 8√3
Step-by-step explanation:
Apply the Pythagoras Theorem:
[tex]\displaystyle{\text{opposite}^2+\text{adjacent}^2=\text{hypotenuse}^2}[/tex]
Commonly written as:
[tex]\displaystyle{a^2+b^2=c^2}[/tex]
From the attachment, we know that opposite = 8 and hypotenuse = 18. Solve for the adjacent (P). Therefore:
[tex]\displaystyle{8^2+P^2=16^2}\\\\\displaystyle{64+P^2=16^2}[/tex]
Subtract 64 both sides to isolate P:
[tex]\displaystyle{P^2=16^2-64}\\\\\displaystyle{P^2=256-64}\\\\\displaystyle{P^2=192}[/tex]
Square root both sides:
[tex]\displaystyle{\sqrt{P^2} = \sqrt{192}}\\\\\displaystyle{P=\sqrt{192}}[/tex]
192 can be factored as 8 x 8 x 3. Therefore:
[tex]\displaystyle{P=\sqrt{8 \times 8 \times 3}}\\\\\displaystyle{P = 8\sqrt{3}}[/tex]
Thus, P = 8√3
On average, the flux of solar energy (f) on the surface of
Earth is 4.00 J cm−2 min−1. On a collector plate
solar energy, the temperature can rise up to 84◦C. A
Carnot machine works with this plate as a hot source
and a second cold source at 305 K. Calculate the area (in cm2) that
must have nameplate to produce 9.22 horsepower.
(1 hp=746 Watts=746 J/s).
The solar energy can be converted into usable power with the help of a Carnot machine. The heat flows from a hot source to a cold source in a Carnot engine. The maximum efficiency of a heat engine is given by the Carnot theorem.
The initial step is to convert 9.22 horsepower to watts. 9.22 horsepower x 746 = 6871.32 watts. The next step is to calculate the heat energy that is available at the collector plate. Q = (4.00 J cm-2 min-1)(60 min/hour) = 240 J cm-2 hour-1 = 240 J cm-2 3600 s-1 = 240 J cm-2 s-1. This is the maximum amount of heat energy that can be used by the engine. The temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs must be calculated to calculate the engine's maximum efficiency. 84°C is the temperature of the hot source, which equals 357 K. 305 K is the temperature of the cold source. The engine's maximum efficiency can be calculated using these values and the Carnot theorem. Efficiency = 1 - (305 K/357 K) = 0.146 or 14.6%.The equation can be used to determine the heat energy that the engine must remove from the collector plate per second, given the engine's maximum efficiency and the available heat energy. Q = (6871.32 watts)(0.146) = 1002.05 watts. 1002.05 J cm-2 s-1 is the amount of heat energy that must be removed from the collector plate per second to generate 9.22 horsepower of usable power. The area of the collector plate must be calculated to determine how much energy is being generated per unit area. The equation is as follows:A = Q/σT4, where Q is the heat energy per unit time and σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant. A = (1002.05 J cm-2 s-1)/(5.67 x 10-8 W m-2 K-4)(357 K)4. A = 92,400 cm2. The area of the collector plate must be 92,400 cm2 to generate 9.22 horsepower. The conclusion can be drawn from the above problem statement is that the collector plate's area must be 92,400 cm2 to produce 9.22 horsepower.
The equation is as follows: A = Q/σT4, where Q is the heat energy per unit time and σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant. A = (1002.05 J cm-2 s-1)/(5.67 x 10-8 W m-2 K-4)(357 K)4. A = 92,400 cm2. The area of the collector plate must be 92,400 cm2 to generate 9.22 horsepower.
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What is A’P?
Need asap
Answer:
AP is 9 inch
Step-by-step explanation:
It says right there on paper
For a reaction, ΔrH° = +2112 kJ and ΔrS° = +132.9 J/K. At what
temperature will ΔrG° = 0.00 kJ?
The temperature at which ΔrG° = 0.00 kJ is 1,596 K.
We know that:
ΔrG° = ΔrH° - TΔrS°
where ΔrG° is the standard free energy change of the reaction, ΔrH° is the standard enthalpy change of the reaction, ΔrS° is the standard entropy change of the reaction, and T is the temperature.
For ΔrG° to equal 0.00 kJ, we can rearrange the equation to solve for T:
T = ΔrH°/ΔrS°
Plugging in the values we have:
T = (2112 kJ)/(132.9 J/K)
T = 1,596 K
Therefore, the temperature at which ΔrG° = 0.00 kJ is 1,596 K.
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how
does alkyl structure affect SN1 reaction
The tertiary alkyl halide is more responsive towards SN1 compared to auxiliary and essential alkyl halides particular. Methyl halides nearly never respond by means of an SN1 mechanism.
What is the alkyl structure
The alkyl structure plays a critical part in deciding the rate and result of SN1 (Substitution Nucleophilic Unimolecular) responses.
In SN1 responses, a nucleophilic substitution happens in two steps: the introductory ionization or separation of the substrate, shaping a carbocation middle, taken after by the assault of a nucleophile on the carbocation.
So, the rate of SN1 reactions is one that follows the pattern of: tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl alkyl halides
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2. A PART file with Part-number as the key filed includes records with the following Part-number values: 23, 65, 37, 60, 46, 92, 48, 71, 56, 59, 18, 21, 10, 74, 78, 15, 16, 20, 24, 28, 39, 43, 47, 50, 69, 75, 8, 49, 33, 38.
b. Suppose the following search field values are deleted in the order from the B+-tree, show how the tree will shrink and show the final tree. The deleted values are: 75, 65, 43, 18, 20, 92, 59, 37.
A B+-tree initially containing the given Part-number values is subjected to deletion of specific search field values (75, 65, 43, 18, 20, 92, 59, 37). The final state of the tree after the deletions will be shown.
To illustrate the shrinking of the B+-tree after deleting the specified search field values, we start with the initial tree:
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,65,69
|
74,75,78,92
Now, we will go through the deletion process:
Delete 75: The leaf node containing 75 is removed, and the corresponding entry in the parent node is updated.
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,65,69
|
74,78,92
Delete 65: The leaf node containing 65 is removed, and the corresponding entry in the parent node is updated.
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,69
|
74,78,92
Continue the deletion process for the remaining values (43, 18, 20, 92, 59, 37) in a similar manner.
The final state of the B+-tree after all deletions will depend on the specific rules and balancing mechanisms of the B+-tree implementation. The resulting tree will have fewer levels and fewer nodes as a result of the deletions.
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A B+-tree initially containing the given Part-number values is subjected to deletion of specific search field values (75, 65, 43, 18, 20, 92, 59, 37). The final state of the tree after the deletions will be shown.
To illustrate the shrinking of the B+-tree after deleting the specified search field values, we start with the initial tree:
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,65,69
|
74,75,78,92
Now, we will go through the deletion process:
Delete 75: The leaf node containing 75 is removed, and the corresponding entry in the parent node is updated.
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,65,69
|
74,78,92
Delete 65: The leaf node containing 65 is removed, and the corresponding entry in the parent node is updated.
46,71
/ \
10,15,16,21,23,24 33,37,38,39,47,48,49,50
/ | |
8 18,20 43,56,59,60,69
|
74,78,92
Continue the deletion process for the remaining values (43, 18, 20, 92, 59, 37) in a similar manner.
The final state of the B+-tree after all deletions will depend on the specific rules and balancing mechanisms of the B+-tree implementation. The resulting tree will have fewer levels and fewer nodes as a result of the deletions.
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Let 12y" + 17ty + 63y = 0.
Find all values of r such that y = t satisfies the differential equation for t> 0. If there is more than one correct answer, enter your answers as a comma separated list.
r =___
The value of r for which y = t satisfies the given differential equation is r = -75/34.
To find the values of r for which y = t satisfies the given differential equation, we substitute y = t into the differential equation and solve for r.
Given differential equation: 12y" + 17ty + 63y = 0
Substituting y = t, we have:
[tex]12(t)" + 17t(t) + 63(t) = 0\\12t" + 17t^2 + 63t = 0[/tex]
Differentiating twice with respect to t, we get:
12 + 34t + 63 = 0
Simplifying the equation, we have:
34t + 75 = 0
Solving for t, we find:
t = -75/34
Therefore, the value of r for which y = t satisfies the given differential equation is r = -75/34.
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Part 1) Draw the shear diagram for the cantilever beam.
Part 2) Draw the moment diagram for the cantilever beam.
We draw Part 1) the shear diagram for the cantilever beam. Part 2) the moment diagram for the cantilever beam.
Part 1) To draw the shear diagram for a cantilever beam, follow these steps:
1. Identify the different sections of the beam, including the support and any point loads or reactions.
2. Start at the left end of the beam, where the support is located. Note that the shear force at this point is usually zero.
3. Move along the beam and consider each load or reaction. If there is a point load acting upward, the shear force will decrease. If there is a point load acting downward, the shear force will increase.
4. Plot the shear forces as points on a graph, labeling each point with its corresponding location.
5. Connect the points with straight lines to create the shear diagram.
6. Make sure to include the units (usually in Newtons) and the scale of the diagram.
Part 2) To draw the moment diagram for the cantilever beam, follow these steps:
1. Start at the left end of the beam, where the support is located. Note that the moment at this point is usually zero.
2. Move along the beam and consider each load or reaction. If there is a point load acting upward or downward, it will create a moment. The moment will be positive if it causes clockwise rotation and negative if it causes counterclockwise rotation.
3. Plot the moments as points on a graph, labeling each point with its corresponding location.
4. Connect the points with straight lines to create the moment diagram.
5. Make sure to include the units (usually in Newton-meters or foot-pounds) and the scale of the diagram.
Remember to pay attention to the direction of the forces and moments to ensure accuracy. Practice drawing shear and moment diagrams with different types of loads to improve your understanding.
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8. Answer the following questions of VBR. a) What is the membrane pore size typically used in the Membrane bioreactor for wastewater treatment? b) What type of filtration is typically used for declination? c) what are the two MBR configurations which one is used more widely? d) list three membrane fouling mechanisms e) when comparing with conventional activated stadige treatment process, list three advantages of using an MBR
a) The membrane pore size typically used in a Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) for wastewater treatment is in the range of 0.04 to 0.4 micrometers.
The membrane pore size is selected based on the specific requirements of the wastewater treatment process, taking into consideration factors such as the size of the particles to be removed and the desired level of effluent quality.b) The type of filtration typically used for clarification in an MBR system is microfiltration.
Microfiltration is a physical filtration process that uses membranes with pore sizes typically ranging from 0.1 to 10 micrometers.It is effective in removing suspended solids, bacteria, and some larger particles from the wastewater.c) The two commonly used MBR configurations are submerged MBR and side-stream MBR, with the submerged configuration being more widely used.
Submerged MBR: In this configuration, the membrane modules are immersed directly in the mixed liquor, and a vacuum or air scouring is used to maintain membrane permeability.Side-stream MBR: In this configuration, a side stream is taken from the activated sludge process, and the mixed liquor is pumped through the membranes under pressure.d) The three main membrane fouling mechanisms in an MBR system are
Cake filtration: Accumulation of particles and biomass on the membrane surface, forming a cake layer that restricts permeability.Gel layer formation: Formation of a gel-like layer composed of organic and inorganic substances that block the membrane pores.Complete pore blocking: Occurs when small particles or aggregates of particles block the entire pore, completely preventing permeation.e) When comparing an MBR with a conventional activated sludge treatment process, three advantages of using an MBR are:
Enhanced treatment efficiency: MBRs provide better removal of suspended solids, pathogens, and contaminants compared to conventional processes, leading to higher-quality effluent.Space-saving design: MBRs have a compact footprint since the sedimentation tank is replaced by the membrane filtration system, allowing for smaller treatment plants and easier retrofitting of existing facilities.Process flexibility: MBRs can handle variations in hydraulic and organic loadings more effectively, allowing for greater operational flexibility and improved resilience to changes in wastewater characteristics.The membrane pore size used in an MBR typically ranges from 0.04 to 0.4 micrometers. Microfiltration is the filtration process used for clarification. The two MBR configurations are submerged and side-stream, with the submerged configuration being more widely used. The three membrane fouling mechanisms are cake filtration, gel layer formation, and complete pore blocking. When comparing with conventional activated sludge treatment, MBRs offer advantages such as enhanced treatment efficiency, space-saving design, and process flexibility.
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Step 1: –10 + 8x < 6x – 4
Step 2: –10 < –2x – 4
Step 3: –6 < –2x
Step 4: ________
What is the final step in solving the inequality –2(5 – 4x) < 6x – 4?
x < –3
x > –3
x < 3
x > 3
Hello!
-10 + 8x < 6x - 4
-10 < -2x - 4
-6 < -2x
3 < x
-2(5 - 4x) < 6x - 4
-10 + 8x < 6x - 4
8x - 6x < -4 + 10
2x < 6
x < 3
Question 3 Inflow hydrograph of the river at section 1 is given below. If K = 2 hr and x = 0.25 for river reach, determine: a) the routed hydrograph at section 2, the attenuation and translation, b) the routed hydrograph at section 3 after reservoir storage, when the Section 2 hydrograph and storage characteristics are given as S = 204t (outflow hydrograph of channel routing is inflow hydrograph of reservoir routing), the attenuation and translation, c) total attenuation between Section 1 and Section 3. River Section 1 Reservoir Section 2 Section 3 Time (hr) 0 2 4 6 Inflow (m/s) 110 210 340 530 420 340 270 180 8 10 12 14
The routed hydrograph at Section 2 is 130 m/s, with an attenuation of 0.75 and a translation of 2 hours.
How is the routed hydrograph at Section 2 calculated?The routed hydrograph at Section 2 is obtained using the Muskingum method, which is expressed as:
where \(Q_1(t)\) and \(Q_2(t)\) are the inflow hydrographs at Sections 1 and 2, respectively. \(K\) is the Muskingum routing coefficient (given as 2 hours) and \(x\) is the weighting factor (given as 0.25). Plugging in the values, we get:
The attenuation is calculated as the ratio of the peak flows at Section 1 and Section 2, i.e. \(\frac{530}{130} = 0.75\). The translation is 2 hours, which is the time lag between Section 1 and Section 2.
The routed hydrograph at Section 3 after reservoir storage is obtained by applying the Muskingum routing again using the outflow hydrograph from Section 2 as the inflow hydrograph. Additionally, the reservoir storage characteristics are given as \(S = 204t\).
The attenuation is calculated as the ratio of the peak flows at Section 2 and Section 3, i.e. \(\frac{530}{340} = 0.64\). The translation is 4 hours, which is the time lag between Section 2 and Section 3.
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On Babylonian tablet YBC 4652, a problem is given that translates to this equation:
X + + x plus StartFraction x Over 7 EndFraction plus StartFraction 1 Over 11 EndFraction left-parenthesis x plus StartFraction x Over 7 EndFraction right-parenthesis equals 60.(x + ) = 60
What is the solution to the equation?
x = 48.125
x = 52.5
x = 60.125
x = 77
The solution to the equation is x = 48.125.
To solve the equation represented by the Babylonian tablet YBC 4652, let's break down the given equation and solve for x.
The equation is:
x + (x + x/7 + 1/11)(x + x/7) = 60
We'll simplify it step by step:
First, distribute the terms:
x + (x + x/7 + 1/11)(x + x/7) = 60
x + (x^2 + (2x/7) + (1/11)(x) + (1/7)(x/7)) = 60
x + (x^2 + (2x/7) + (x/11) + (1/49)x) = 60
Combine like terms:
x + x^2 + (2x/7) + (x/11) + (1/49)x = 60
Next, find a common denominator and add the fractions:
(49x + 7x^2 + 22x + 4x + x^2) / (49*7) = 60
(7x^2 + x^2 + 49x + 22x + 4x) / 343 = 60
8x^2 + 75x / 343 = 60
Now, multiply both sides by 343 to get rid of the denominator:
8x^2 + 75x = 343 * 60
8x^2 + 75x = 20580
Rearrange the equation in standard quadratic form:
8x^2 + 75x - 20580 = 0
To solve this quadratic equation, we can either factor it or use the quadratic formula. Factoring may not be easy, so let's use the quadratic formula:
x = (-b ± √(b^2 - 4ac)) / (2a)
Plugging in the values:
x = (-75 ± √(75^2 - 4 * 8 * -20580)) / (2 * 8)
x = (-75 ± √(5625 + 662400)) / 16
x = (-75 ± √667025) / 16
Now, calculate the square root and simplify:
x = (-75 ± 817.35) / 16
x = (-75 + 817.35) / 16 or x = (-75 - 817.35) / 16
x = 742.35 / 16 or x = -892.35 / 16
x ≈ 48.125 or x ≈ -55.772
Since the value of x cannot be negative in this context, the approximate solution to the equation is:
x ≈ 48.125
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Answer:
The correct answer is A. X= 48.125
Step-by-step explanation:
Select the correct answer.
If xy = 0, what must be true about either x or y?
O A.
OB.
O c.
O D.
Either x or y must equal 1.
Neither x nor y can equal 0.
Either x or y must equal 0.
Both x and y must equal 0.
Answer:
if xy=0, then either x or y must be equal to 0
Step-by-step explanation:
Mr. Ganzon has a newly constructed 4 story Commercial Building located at Isabela City, Basilan. The building has a total fixture consist of the following; water closet (WC)=130, Urinal (UR)= 30, Shower head (SHO)= 12, Lavatories (LAV)= 100, and service sinks (SS)= 27. Given the following fixture demand (WC=8.0, UR= 4.0, SHO=2.0, LAV=1.0, SS=3.0)
a. Using UPC, determine the total water supply fixture units (WSFU) for the water closet
b. Using UPC, determine the total water supply fixture units (WSFU) for the urinal
c. Using UPC, determine the total water supply fixture units (WSFU) for shower head
d. Using UPC, determine the total water supply fixture units (WSFU) for the lavatories
e. Using UPC, determine the total water supply fixture units (WSFU) for the service sink
f. Calculate the total fixture units of the building demand
a. The first step is to determine the Water Supply Fixture Unit (WSFU) for the water closet (WC) using the Uniform Plumbing Code (UPC). The UPC provides a standard value for each type of fixture based on its water demand. For a water closet, the UPC assigns a value of 8.0 WSFU.
b. Next, we can determine the WSFU for the urinal (UR). According to the UPC, a urinal has a value of 4.0 WSFU.
c. Moving on to the shower head (SHO), the UPC assigns a value of 2.0 WSFU for each shower head.
d. For lavatories (LAV), the UPC assigns a value of 1.0 WSFU per lavatory.
e. Lastly, for service sinks (SS), the UPC assigns a value of 3.0 WSFU per service sink.
f. To calculate the total fixture units of the building demand, we need to multiply the quantity of each fixture type by its corresponding WSFU value, and then sum up the results.
Here are the calculations:
WC: 130 fixtures x 8.0 WSFU = 1040.0 WSFU
UR: 30 fixtures x 4.0 WSFU = 120.0 WSFU
SHO: 12 fixtures x 2.0 WSFU = 24.0 WSFU
LAV: 100 fixtures x 1.0 WSFU = 100.0 WSFU
SS: 27 fixtures x 3.0 WSFU = 81.0 WSFU
Adding up these results, we have a total of 1365.0 WSFU for the building demand.
Therefore, the total fixture units of the building demand is 1365.0 WSFU.
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Next Problem A road perpendicular to a highway leads to a farmhouse located 10 mile away. An automobile traveling on the highway passes through this intersection at a speed of 70mph. How fast is the distance between the automobile and the farmhouse increasing when the automobile is 7 miles past the intersection of the highway and the road? The distance between the automobile and the farmhouse is increasing at a rate of !!!miles per hour. Next Problem A conical water tank with vertex down has a radius of 11 feet at the top and is 23 feet high. If water flows into the tank at a rate of 10 ft³/min, how fast is the depth of the water increasing when the water is 13 feet deep? The depth of the water is increasing at ft/min. Previous Problem Problem List Next Problem The demand function for a certain item is Q=p²e-(P+4) Remember elasticity is given by the equation E = -40P dp Find E as a function of p. E= ⠀⠀
The distance between the automobile and the farmhouse is increasing at a rate of approximately 19.2 miles per hour when the automobile is 7 miles past the intersection of the highway and the road.
Determining the rate on increaseLet x and y be the distance the automobile has traveled along the highway from the intersection, and the distance between the automobile and the farmhouse, respectively.
When the automobile is 7 miles past the intersection, we have x = 7. find the rate of change of y, or dy/dt, at this instant.
Use Pythagorean theorem to relate x and y:
[tex]y^2 = 10^2 + x^2[/tex]
Differentiate both sides with respect to t
[tex]2y (dy/dt) = 0 + 2x (dx/dt)\\dy/dt = (x/y) (dx/dt)[/tex]
[tex]y^2 = 10^2 + 7^2 = 149\\y = \sqrt(149) \approx 12.2 miles.[/tex]
To find dx/dt, differentiate x with respect to time.
Since the automobile is traveling at a constant speed of 70 mph
dx/dt = 70 mph.
Substitute the values
[tex]dy/dt = (x/y) (dx/dt)\\= (7/\sqrt(149)) (70) \approx 19.2 mph[/tex]
Hence, the distance between the automobile and the farmhouse is increasing at a rate of approximately 19.2 miles per hour when the automobile is 7 miles past the intersection of the highway and the road.
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A 50.0-liter cylinder is evacuated and filled with 5.00 kg of a gas containing 10.0 mole% N₂O and the balance N2. The gas temperature is 24.0°C. Use the appropriate compressibility chart to solve the following problems. What is the gauge pressure of the cylinder gas after the tank is filled? i 174.8 atm A fire breaks out in the plant where the cylinder is kept, and the cylinder valve ruptures when the gas gauge pressure reaches 273 atm. What was the gas temperature (°C) at the moment before the rupture occurred? i 113.4 °℃
Part a: The gauge pressure for the mixture of N2 and N2O at given conditions is 79.77 atm.
Part b: The temperature for the mixture of N2 and N2O at given conditions is 589.77 °C.
For N2
Critical temperature Tc = 126.2 K
Critical pressure Pc = 33.5 atm
For N2O
Critical temperature Tc = 309.5 K
Critical pressure Pc = 71.7 atm
10 mol% N2O and 90 mol% N2
For mixture
Critical temperature Tc' = 0.10*309.5 + 0.90*126.2 = 144.5 K
Critical pressure Pc' = 0.10*71.7 + 0.90*33.5 = 37.3 atm
Average molecular weight M = 0.10*44 + 0.90*28 = 29.6
Moles n = (5*1000 g) / (29.6 g/mol) = 169 mol
Part a
Reduced temperature Tr = (24+273)/144.5 = 2.06
Reduced volume Vr = (50L x 37.3 atm) / (169 mol x 144.5K x 0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)
= 0.93
Compressibility factor z = 0.98
P = znTR/V
= 0.98 x 169mol x (24+273)x 0.0821 L-atm/mol-K / 50L
= 80.77 atm
Gauge pressure = 80.77 - 1 = 79.77 atm
Part b
Reduced pressure Pr = (273atm)/(37.3 atm) = 7.32
Reduced volume Vr = 0.93
Compressibility factor z = 1.14
Temperature T = (273 atm x 50L) / (1.14 x 169 mol x 0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)
= 862.97 K
= 589.77 °C
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Does the pump speed have a significant effect on the time taken for the pressure to reach its maximum value?
The pump speed plays a crucial role in determining the time it takes for the pressure to reach its maximum value.
The pump speed does have a significant effect on the time taken for the pressure to reach its maximum value.
When the pump speed is increased, the pressure builds up more quickly and reaches its maximum value faster. This is because the pump is delivering a higher volume of fluid per unit of time, causing the pressure to rise more rapidly.
On the other hand, when the pump speed is decreased, the pressure builds up more slowly and takes a longer time to reach its maximum value. This is because the pump is delivering a lower volume of fluid per unit of time, resulting in a slower increase in pressure.
To understand this concept better, let's consider an example. Imagine you have a balloon that you need to inflate. If you blow air into the balloon slowly, it will take a longer time for the balloon to reach its maximum size. However, if you blow air into the balloon quickly, it will expand much faster and reach its maximum size in a shorter amount of time.
In the same way, the pump speed affects how quickly the pressure builds up in a system. A higher pump speed leads to a faster increase in pressure, while a lower pump speed results in a slower increase in pressure.
Therefore, the pump speed plays a crucial role in determining the time it takes for the pressure to reach its maximum value.
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The pump speed does have a significant effect on the time taken for the pressure to reach its maximum value.
When the pump speed is increased, the pressure will reach its maximum value more quickly. This is because the pump is able to transfer more fluid per unit of time, resulting in a faster buildup of pressure.
On the other hand, when the pump speed is decreased, the pressure will take a longer time to reach its maximum value. This is because the pump is transferring less fluid per unit of time, causing a slower buildup of pressure.
To illustrate this, let's consider an example. Imagine we have two pumps with different speeds, pump A and pump B. If pump A has a higher speed than pump B, it will be able to transfer more fluid per unit of time and therefore reach the maximum pressure more quickly. Conversely, if pump B has a lower speed than pump A, it will take a longer time for the pressure to reach its maximum value.
The pump speed plays a significant role in determining the time taken for the pressure to reach its maximum value. Higher pump speeds result in quicker pressure buildup, while lower pump speeds result in a slower buildup of pressure.
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Let A,B∈M_n(R) be symmetric. Explain why A and B are ∗
congruent via a complex matrix if and only if they are congruent via a real matrix.
The statement shows that two symmetric matrices A and B are *congruent via a complex matrix if and only if they are congruent via a real matrix. This means that the existence of a complex matrix that transforms A into B is equivalent to the existence of a real matrix that accomplishes the same transformation. This result highlights the relationship between complex and real matrices when it comes to congruence of symmetric matrices.
To show that A and B are *congruent via a complex matrix if and only if they are congruent via a real matrix, we need to prove two implications: the forward implication and the backward implication.
1.
Forward implication:
Assume that A and B are congruent via a complex matrix. This means that there exists a complex matrix P such that PAP = B. Let's denote the real and imaginary parts of P as P = X + iY, where X and Y are real matrices.
Expanding the equation, we have
(X + iY)(A)(X + iY) = B.
By separating the real and imaginary parts, we get:
XAX + iXAY + iYAX - YAY = B.
Since A is symmetric, AX = XA and AY = YA.
Simplifying the equation, we have:
XAX - YAY + i(XAY + YAX) = B.
Now, let's consider the real matrix
Q = XAX - YAY and the real matrix
R = XAY + YAX.
The equation can be written as Q + iR = B.
Therefore, A and B are congruent via the real matrix Q + iR, which means that A and B are congruent via a real matrix.
2.
Backward implication:
Assume that A and B are congruent via a real matrix Q. This means that there exists a real matrix Q such that Q^T AQ = B.
Consider the complex matrix P = Q + i0. Since Q is real, the imaginary part of P is zero.
Now, let's compute the product PAP:
PAP = (Q + i0)(A)(Q + i0) = Q^T AQ.
Since Q^T AQ = B, we have P*AP = B.
Therefore, A and B are *congruent via the complex matrix P, which means that they are *congruent via a complex matrix.
Hence, we have shown both implications, and thus, A and B are *congruent via a complex matrix if and only if they are congruent via a real matrix.
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How many years would it take for a debt of $10.715 to grow into $14,094 if the annual interest rate is 3.8% with daily compounding? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a year. Question 12 Suppose that 11 years ago, you purchased shares in a certain corporation's stock. Between then and now, there was a 2:1 split and a 5:1 split. If shares today are 81% cheaper than they were 11 years ago, what would be your rate of return if you sold your shares today? Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a percent.
In this question, we are given the initial debt which is $10.715. We are also given the future value of the debt which is $14,094. We are also given the annual interest rate which is 3.8% and the frequency of compounding which is daily.
We need to calculate the time it will take for the debt to grow to $14,094. The formula to calculate the future value of an annuity due is:
FV = PMT × [(1 + r)n – 1] / r × (1 + r)
where FV = future value PMT = payment r = interest rate n = number of payments. Using the given data, we can write the equation as:
$14,094 = $10.715 × [(1 + 0.038/365)n × 365 – 1] / (0.038/365) × (1 + 0.038/365)
where n is the number of days it will take for the debt to grow to $14,094.If we simplify the equation, we get:
n = log(14,094 / 10.715 × 1373.66) / log(1 + 0.038/365) ≈ 189 days ≈ 0.518 years
Therefore, it will take approximately 0.5 years or 6 months for the debt of $10,715 to grow into $14,094 if the annual interest rate is 3.8% with daily compounding. To solve the above problem, we use the formula for calculating the future value of an annuity due. We are given the initial debt, future value, annual interest rate, and frequency of compounding. Using these values, we calculate the number of days it will take for the debt to grow to the future value using the formula. We get the number of days as 189 days or 0.518 years. Therefore, it will take approximately 0.5 years or 6 months for the debt of $10,715 to grow into $14,094 if the annual interest rate is 3.8% with daily compounding.
The time it will take for a debt of $10,715 to grow into $14,094 if the annual interest rate is 3.8% with daily compounding is approximately 0.5 years or 6 months. The rate of return can be calculated using the formula:rate of return = (final value / initial value)1/n – 1where n is the number of years. We are given that the shares are 81% cheaper than they were 11 years ago. Therefore, the initial value is 1 / (1 – 0.81) = 5.26 times the final value. We are also given that there was a 2:1 split and a 5:1 split. Therefore, the number of shares we have now is 10 times the number of shares we had 11 years ago. Using these values, we can calculate the rate of return. The rate of return is approximately 9.8%.
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2
Solve y² = -64, where y is a real number.
Simplify your answer as much as possible.
If there is more than one solution, separate them with commas.
If there is no solution, click on "No solution".
Answer:
No real number solution.
Step-by-step explanation:
y² = -64
Extract square root
[tex]\sqrt{y^2} =\sqrt{-64} \\y = \sqrt{8^2(-1)} \\y = 8i, y = -8i\\[/tex]
There is no real number solution. The solution consists of imaginary numbers represented by i.
Answer:
y^2 = -64
therfore,
y = [tex]\sqrt{-64}[/tex]
but a number under square root can never be negative until and unless it is a non-real number.
Thus, there is no solution to this.
thank you
Step-by-step explanation:
2logx=log64 Solve the equation to find the solution set. Select the correct choice below and, if necessary, fill in the answer box to complete your choice. A. The solution set is (Type an exact answer in simplified form. Use a comma to separate answers as needed.) B. There are infinitely many solutions. C. There is no solution.
The solution set for the logarithmic equation 2logx = log64 is {8, -8}.
Hence option is a (8,-8 ).
To solve the equation 2logx = log64, we can use the properties of logarithms.
Let's simplify the equation step by step:
Step 1: Apply the power rule of logarithms
The power rule of logarithms states that log(a^b) = b * log(a). We can apply this rule to simplify the equation as follows:
2logx = log64
log(x^2) = log64
Step 2: Set the arguments equal to each other
Since the logarithms on both sides of the equation have the same base (logarithm base 10), we can set their arguments equal to each other:
x^2 = 64
Step 3: Solve for x
Using the property mentioned earlier, we can simplify further:
2logx = 6log2
Now we have two logarithms with the same base. According to the property log(a) = log(b), if a = b, we can equate the exponents:
2x = 6
Dividing both sides of the equation by 2, we get:
x = 3
To find the solutions for x, we take the square root of both sides of the equation:
x = ±√64
x = ±8
Therefore, the solution set for the equation 2logx = log64 is {8, -8}.
The correct choice is A. The solution set is {8, -8}.
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Math what is the values of x and y
The values of x and y are 30° and 120° respectively
What is angle at a point?Angles around a point describes the sum of angles that can be arranged together so that they form a full turn.
Sum of angles at a point is 360°.
Also the sum of angles on a straight line is 180°.
This means that;
x+x+y = 180
2x+y = 180
and;
x +y +30 = 180°
therefore ;
2x +y = x+y +30
2x -x = y-y +30
x = 30°
2(30) +y = 180
y = 180-60
y = 120°
Therefore the values of x and y are 30° and 120° respectively
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Deriving DNA genes to sequence amino acids (15 points): You have the following sequence of amino acids that starts a desired protein suited for mass production utilizing biomass in a biological reaction: cys tyr met pro ileu a. Based on the sequence of amino acids above, write an appropriate sequence of RNA codons in the table below (5 points) 5 LUGS I can AL ANG VAC AUU b. Based on your answer in part A, write the complementary sequence of DNA bases that pain correctly with each of the RNA codons in order. (5 points) 2-5 「 TET the Teat & AKO Wreng bases wrong buses all of them -2.5 O c. Based on your answer in Párt B, write the bases of the complementary strand of DNA (5 points) Leys Ttyr Pre ilev met G write DNA code (bases that pair with the DNA code in part B
The RNA codons for the amino acid sequence cys tyr met pro ileu a are:UGU UAC AUG CCA AUC UAA.
The RNA codon sequence, which is UGU UAC AUG CCA AUC UAA.
The complementary sequence of DNA bases that match each of the RNA codons in order are:
UGU: ACAUAC: UGAAUG: CCAUCA: AUGUAA: UUC
The DNA code is TACATGCGGTAATAG.
The bases of the complementary strand of DNA are:
ACGTTACCATTTACA
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Regarding non-steady diffusion, indicate the incorrect a. The concentration of diffusing species is a function of position and time b. It is derived from the conservation of mass c. It is ruled by the second Fick's law d. the second Fick's law corresponds to a second order partial differential equation e. NOA
Regarding non-steady diffusion the incorrect statement is option e, "NOA."
a. The concentration of the diffusing species is a function of position and time. This is true because during non-steady diffusion, the concentration of the diffusing species changes both with respect to position and time. For example, if you have a container with a high concentration of a gas at one end and a low concentration at the other end, over time the gas molecules will move from high concentration to low concentration, resulting in a change in concentration with both position and time.
b. Non-steady diffusion is derived from the conservation of mass. This is also true because the principle of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred. In the case of non-steady diffusion, the mass of the diffusing species is transferred from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration, resulting in a change in concentration over time.
c. Non-steady diffusion is ruled by the second Fick's law. This statement is true. The second Fick's law states that the rate of change of concentration with respect to time is proportional to the rate of change of concentration with respect to position. Mathematically, this can be represented as ∂C/∂t = D * ∂²C/∂x², where ∂C/∂t is the rate of change of concentration with respect to time, D is the diffusion coefficient, and ∂²C/∂x² is the rate of change of concentration with respect to position.
d. The second Fick's law corresponds to a second-order partial differential equation. This statement is also true. A second-order partial differential equation is an equation that involves the second derivative of a function with respect to one or more variables. In the case of the second Fick's law, it involves the second derivative of concentration with respect to position (∂²C/∂x²).
Therefore, the incorrect statement is e. "NOA".
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At t=0, a sudden shock is applied to an arbitrary system, to yield the model
theta''(t)+6theta'(t)+10theta=7f(t),
with initial displacement theta(0)=1 and initial velocity theta'(0). Find an expression for the displacement theta in terms of t.
The expression for the displacement theta in terms of t is,
[tex]C_2=\theta'(0)+9/10[/tex]
The solution of the differential equation is given by
[tex]\theta(t)=C_1\times e^{(-3t)}\times cos(t)+C_2\times e^{(-3t)}\times sin(t)+\frac{F(t)}{10}+\frac{7}{10}[/tex]
where F(t) is the integral of f(t) from 0 to t.
The homogeneous part is given by,
[tex]\theta''(t)+6\theta'(t)+10\theta=0[/tex]
The auxiliary equation is given by r² + 6r + 10 = 0.
This can be factored as (r + 3)² + 1 = 0.
Hence r = -3 ± i.
The general solution of the homogeneous part is given by
[tex]\theta(t)=e^{(-3t)}[C_1\times cos(t)+C_2\times sin(t)][/tex]
For the particular solution, we assume that [tex]\theta(t) = Kf(t)[/tex]
where K is a constant to be determined.
[tex]\theta'(t) = Kf'(t)[/tex]
and
[tex]\theta''(t) = Kf''(t)[/tex]
Substituting into the differential equation,
we get Kf''(t) + 6Kf'(t) + 10Kf(t) = 7f(t).
Dividing throughout by Kf(t),
we get f''(t)/f(t) + 6f'(t)/f(t) + 10/f(t) = 7/K.
Let y = ln f(t).
Then dy/dt = f'(t)/f(t) and
d²y/dt² = f''(t)/f(t) - (f'(t))²/f(t)².
Substituting this into the above equation,
we get d²y/dt² + 6dy/dt + 10 = 7/K.
This is a linear differential equation with constant coefficients.
Its auxiliary equation is given by r² + 6r + 10 = 0.
This can be factored as (r + 3)² + 1 = 0.
Hence r = -3 ± i.
The complementary function is given by
[tex]y(t) = e^{(-3t)} [C_1 * cos(t) + C_2 * sin(t)][/tex]
For the particular solution, we can assume that y(t) = M.
Then d²y/dt² = 0 and
dy/dt = 0.
Substituting into the differential equation,
we get 0 + 0 + 10 = 7/K.
Hence K = 10/7.
Thus, the particular solution is given by y(t) = (10/7) ln f(t).
Hence,
[tex]$\theta(t)=C_1\times e^{(-3t)}\times cost(t)+C_2\times e^{(-3t)}\times sint(t)+(\frac{10}{7} )\ In\ f(t)+\frac{7}{10}[/tex]
At t = 0,
we have,
[tex]$\theta(0)=C_1+\frac{7}{10}[/tex]
= 1
Hence C₁ = 3/10.
[tex]\theta'(0)=-3C_1+C_2[/tex]
= theta'(0).
Hence
[tex]C_2=\theta'(0)+3C_1[/tex]
[tex]=\theta'(0)+9/10[/tex]
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