Firms in competitive industries must sell at market price, while firms in monopolistically competitive industries can charge more.
2.) Monopolistically competitive firms use markup to increase profits, while markup is not possible in competitive industries.
3.) In monopolistically competitive industries, products are more differentiated than in competitive industries.
Incorrect Answer(s) 1.) The barriers to entry are high in competitive industries and very low in monopolistically competitive industries.
2.) There are usually few competitors in a monopolistically competitive industry, while there can be many competitors in a competitive industry.
3.) There are strict government regulations on monopolistically competitive industries, while competitive industries are regulation free.

Answers

Answer 1

Incorrect answer:

1.) Barriers to entry are not necessarily high in competitive industries and very low in monopolistically competitive industries. In fact, both competitive and monopolistically competitive industries generally have low barriers to entry, allowing new firms to enter the market.

2.) There are usually many competitors in both competitive and monopoly industries. The difference is that firms in competitive industries sell similar products, while firms in monopolistically competitive industries sell differentiated products.

3.) Monopoly competitive industries do not necessarily have strict government regulation, but competitive industries do not. Competitive and monopoly competitive industries may be subject to government regulation depending on industry and market conditions.

The correct answer is:

1.) Firms in competitive industries must sell at market prices, but firms in monopolistically competitive industries have some control over the prices they charge, because firms in highly competitive industries are price takers. . In other words, we must accept market prices determined by supply and demand. However, companies in monopolistically competitive industries have market power through product differentiation and can charge above market prices.

2.) Exclusively competing companies use markup to increase their profits, but markup is not possible in a highly competitive industry. Markup is the difference between the price a company charges for a product and the cost to manufacture it. In a highly competitive industry, companies must sell at market prices. This means you cannot charge a premium. However, companies in monopolistically competitive industries may charge a premium based on market power.

3.) In a monopolistic competitive sector, the product is more differentiated than in the competitive sector. Product differentiation is a key feature of an industry that competes monopolistically as it allows companies to differentiate themselves from their competitors and charge higher prices. In a highly competitive industry, products are more homogeneous. That is, they are similar and interchangeable.

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Related Questions

A​ company's MARR is
6​%
per year. Two mutually exclusive alternatives are being considered. Compare the two alternatives​ utilizing:
a. The repeatability assumption with a 10 year study period.
b. A 5 year study period
​(MV5of Alt. 1 is $45,000​).

Answers

The Minimum Attractive Rate of Return (MARR) is the lowest rate of return that a company is willing to accept on an investment project. In this case, the company's MARR is 6% per year. The two mutually exclusive alternatives being considered are compared using the repeatability assumption with a 10 year study period and a 5 year study period with a market value (MV) of $45,000 for Alternative 1.

a. The repeatability assumption with a 10 year study period: This assumption states that the project can be repeated over and over again for the same return. In this case, the 10 year study period would be used to compare the two alternatives.

The net present value (NPV) of each alternative would be calculated using the MARR of 6% and the cash flows for each year of the 10 year study period. The alternative with the higher NPV would be the preferred alternative.

b. A 5 year study period with a market value (MV) of $45,000 for Alternative 1: In this case, the 5 year study period would be used to compare the two alternatives. The net present value (NPV) of each alternative would be calculated using the MARR of 6% and the cash flows for each year of the 5 year study period.

The market value of Alternative 1 at the end of the 5 year study period would also be included in the NPV calculation. The alternative with the higher NPV would be the preferred alternative.

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If an insurance company is thinking of providing insurance policy to travellers and estimates that 30 million passengers will buy the insurance where they will pay 25 taka for each trip. The company will earn 6% interest for six months by depositing the premium and the underwriting costs will be 2 million taka. If the dead passengers are given 1 million taka each and injured are 1/4 million taka and there are 320 travelers died and 550 injured then how much will be the profit or loss of the insurance company?

Answers

If the dead passengers are given 1 million taka each and injured are 1/4 million taka and there are 320 travelers died and 550 injured the insurance company will have a profit of 1.375 million taka.

The insurance company will make a profit or loss can be calculated as follows:

Revenue from premiums: 30 million passengers x 25 taka/trip = 750 million takaInterest earned on premiums: 750 million taka x 6% = 45 million takaUnderwriting costs: 2 million takaPayouts to dead passengers: 320 passengers x 1 million taka/passenger = 320 million takaPayouts to injured passengers: 550 passengers x 0.25 million taka/passenger = 137.5 million taka



Total costs: 2 million + 320 million + 137.5 million = 459.5 million taka

Profit/Loss: 750 million + 45 million - 459.5 million = 1.375 million taka

Therefore, the insurance company will have a profit of 1.375 million taka

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On June 10, 2019, S sold to B a specific car which S acquired from a friend last June 1, 2019. On August 10, 2019, the car was totally destroyed which was traced to a crack in the engine block. S was not aware of the defect. Is S, the seller, liable to B? Give reason/s.

Answers

No, S is not liable to B for the car's destruction. The reason for this is because the defect was not known to S at the time of the sale. In this case, S is not at fault for the car's destruction and cannot be held liable for something that they were not aware of.

Additionally, it is the buyer's responsibility to inspect the car before purchasing it and to be aware of any potential defects. Therefore, B cannot hold S liable for the car's destruction.

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1a) BP has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, a $1,000 par value, a coupon rate of 6.2%, with coupons paid semiannually, and a price of 85.21 (percent of par).
What is the cost of debt?
1b) BP has just paid an annual dividend of $0.45 per share. Analysts expect the firm's dividends to grow by 2% forever. Its stock price is $35.3 and its beta is 0.9. The risk-free rate is 2% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 8%.
What is the best guess for the cost of equity?

Answers

1a) To calculate the cost of debt, we need to find the yield to maturity (YTM) of the bond. We can use the formula:

YTM = (C + (F - P)/N)/(F + P)/2

Where:
C = coupon payment = ($1,000 x 6.2%)/2 = $31
F = face value = $1,000
P = price = $852.10 (85.21% of $1,000)
N = number of periods = 15 x 2 = 30

Plugging in the values, we get:

YTM = ($31 + ($1,000 - $852.10)/30)/($1,000 + $852.10)/2
YTM = ($31 + $4.93)/$926.05
YTM = $35.93/$926.05
YTM = 0.0388

Therefore, the cost of debt is 3.88%.

1b) To calculate the cost of equity, we can use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula:

Cost of equity = Rf + Beta(Rm - Rf)

Where:
Rf = risk-free rate = 2%
Beta = 0.9
Rm = expected return on the market portfolio = 8%

Plugging in the values, we get:

Cost of equity = 2% + 0.9(8% - 2%)
Cost of equity = 2% + 0.9(6%)
Cost of equity = 2% + 5.4%
Cost of equity = 7.4%

Therefore, the best guess for the cost of equity is 7.4%.

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True/False and Explain:
when a firm takes on greater leverage, its free cash flows will
increase due to greater debt tax shields.

Answers

The statement "When a firm takes on greater leverage, its free cash flows will not necessarily increase due to greater debt tax shields" is false.

While it is true that taking on greater leverage can result in greater debt tax shields, it can also lead to increased interest payments, which can decrease free cash flows. Additionally, taking on greater leverage can increase the risk of the firm, potentially leading to higher required rates of return and lower stock prices. Therefore, it is not a guarantee that greater leverage will result in increased free cash flows.

It is important for firms to carefully consider the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of taking on greater leverage before making a decision.

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What does this statement mean in accounting, "investing todevelop future capabilities technology"

Answers

In accounting, the phrase "investing to develop future capabilities technology" means investing resources in the development of technology that will provide the company with the ability to do more in the future.

What Does Investing To Develop Future Capabilities Technology Means In Accounting?

This statement in accounting means that the company is investing in technology and development in order to improve and enhance its future capabilities. This can include purchasing new software, and hardware or training employees to use new technology. By investing in these areas, the company hopes to increase productivity, efficiency, and profitability in the future. This type of investment is often referred to as capital expenditure or capital investment. It is an important aspect of financial planning and decision-making for businesses, as it can have a significant impact on their long-term success.

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Distinguish between a primary and a secondary market and discuss
the relationship between the two types of market.

Answers

The relationship between the primary and secondary markets is that the primary market creates the securities that are traded in the secondary market

A primary market is a financial market where new securities are issued and sold to the public for the first time. This is where companies, governments, or public sector institutions raise capital through the sale of new securities such as stocks, bonds, or other financial instruments. The primary market is also known as the new issue market or the IPO market.

A secondary market, on the other hand, is where existing securities are traded among investors. This is where securities that have already been issued and sold in the primary market are bought and sold among investors. The secondary market is also known as the aftermarket or the stock market.


The primary market is where companies raise capital through the sale of new securities, while the secondary market is where investors trade those securities. The primary market is important because it provides companies with the capital they need to grow and expand, while the secondary market is important because it provides investors with a way to buy and sell securities and to make a profit from their investments. Both markets are essential components of the financial system and play important roles in the functioning of the economy.

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eBook Problem Walk-Through Parramore Corp has $14 million of sales, $3 million of inventories, $3 million of receivables, and $1.5 million of payables. Its cost of goods sold is 65% of sales, and it finances working capital with bank loans at an 8% rate. Assume 365 days in year for your calculations.
What is Parramore's cash conversion cycle (CCC)? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places. days
If Parramore could lower its inventories and receivables by 7% each and increase its payables by 7%, all without affecting sales or cost of goods sold, what would be the new CCC? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places. days
How much cash would be freed up, if Parramore could lower its inventories and receivables by 7% each and increase its payables by 7%, all without affecting sales or cost of goods sold? Write out your answer completely. For Example, 13.2 million should be entered as 13,200,000. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest dollar. $
By how much would pretax profits change, if Parramore could lower its inventories and receivables by 7% each and increase its payables by 7%, all without affecting sales or cost of goods sold? Write out your answer completely. For Example, 13.2 million should be entered as 13,200,000. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest dollar.

Answers

Parramore's cash conversion cycle is 118.6 days. Parramore new cash conversion cycle is 104.65 days. The cash that would be freed up is $251,433. The pretax profits would be $1,115.60.

The cash conversion cycle (CCC) is a measure of how quickly a company can convert its inventory into cash. It is calculated as the sum of the days sales outstanding (DSO), days inventory outstanding (DIO), and days payables outstanding (DPO).

To calculate the CCC for Parramore Corp, we first need to calculate the DSO, DIO, and DPO.

DSO = (Receivables / Sales) * 365 = (3 / 14) * 365 = 78.21 days
DIO = (Inventories / Cost of Goods Sold) * 365 = (3 / (0.65 * 14)) * 365 = 80.77 days
DPO = (Payables / Cost of Goods Sold) * 365 = (1.5 / (0.65 * 14)) * 365 = 40.38 days

CCC = DSO + DIO - DPO = 78.21 + 80.77 - 40.38 = 118.6 days

If Parramore could lower its inventories and receivables by 7% each and increase its payables by 7%, the new CCC would be:

New DSO = (0.93 * 3 / 14) * 365 = 72.74 days
New DIO = (0.93 * 3 / (0.65 * 14)) * 365 = 75.12 days
New DPO = (1.07 * 1.5 / (0.65 * 14)) * 365 = 43.21 days

New CCC = 72.74 + 75.12 - 43.21 = 104.65 days

The amount of cash freed up would be the difference between the old and new CCC multiplied by the cost of goods sold:

Cash freed up = (118.6 - 104.65) * (0.65 * 14) = $251,433

The change in pretax profits would be the difference between the old and new CCC multiplied by the bank loan rate:

Change in pretax profits = (118.6 - 104.65) * 0.08 = $1,115.60

Therefore, the new CCC would be 104.65 days, the amount of cash freed up would be $251,433, and the change in pretax profits would be $1,115.60.

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3. How many days are in the operating cycle if the cash cycle is70 days, inventory period is 72 days, and accounts payable periodis 29 days? round final answer to 2 decimals

Answers

There are 99 days in the operating cycle if the cash cycle is 70 days, inventory period is 72 days, and accounts payable period is 29 days.

The operating cycle is the sum of the inventory period and the accounts receivable period. In this case, we are given the cash cycle, inventory period, and accounts payable period. We can use these values to find the accounts receivable period and then calculate the operating cycle.

First, we need to find the accounts receivable period. The cash cycle is equal to the operating cycle minus the accounts payable period. Rearranging this equation gives us:

Operating cycle = Cash cycle + Accounts payable period

Substituting in the given values:

Operating cycle = 70 days + 29 days = 99 days

Now we can find the accounts receivable period by subtracting the inventory period from the operating cycle:

Accounts receivable period = Operating cycle - Inventory period = 99 days - 72 days = 27 days

Finally, we can calculate the operating cycle by adding the inventory period and the accounts receivable period:

Operating cycle = Inventory period + Accounts receivable period = 72 days + 27 days = 99 days

Therefore, the operating cycle is 99 days.

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2. As a department supervisor, what decision(s) should Destiny make in regard to this romance?

Answers

As a supervisor, Destiny has a responsibility to maintain a professional and fair work environment for all employees.

What  decision(s) should Destiny make in regard to this romance?

Address the situation with the employees involved: Destiny should have a private conversation with the employees involved in the romance and make it clear that their behavior should not affect their work performance or the work of their colleagues.

Establish clear workplace policies: Destiny should establish clear policies regarding workplace relationships and communicate them to all employees. This can include guidelines on how to conduct themselves professionally while at work and the consequences of violating these policies.

Consider reassigning one of the employees: Depending on the situation and the nature of the work, Destiny may consider reassigning one of the employees involved in the romance to a different team or department to avoid any potential conflicts of interest.

Seek advice from HR: If the company has a human resources department, Destiny should seek their advice on how to handle the situation in a professional and legal manner.

Overall, Destiny's decisions should prioritize maintaining a professional work environment while also respecting the privacy and personal lives of her employees.

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Choose any two social media posts of one business leader from two different industry sectors and describe (in a table), the seven Cs of communication (Completeness, Conciseness, Concreteness, Correctness, Clarity, Courtesy, Consideration) used in each of them. Append a SCREENSHOT of the social media posts of both the leaders. You may choose business leaders from any part of the world including India.

Answers

Users of social networking sites can hold conversations, share information, and produce web content. Blogs, micro-blogs, wikis, social networking sites, photo-sharing sites, instant messaging, video-sharing sites, podcasts, widgets, virtual worlds, and other types of social media exist.


Communication C's
Social Media Post #1

Social Media Post #2  
 
Completeness
Post #1 was complete, providing all the relevant information about the event.
Post #2 was complete, providing all the relevant information about the launch.  
 
Conciseness
Post #1 was concise and to the point, providing only the necessary information.
Post #2 was also concise, keeping the description short and to the point.
 
Concreteness
Post #1 used concrete language and images to demonstrate the event.
Post #2 used concrete language and images to describe the launch.  
 
Correctness
Post #1 was correct, providing accurate information about the event.
Post #2 was correct, providing accurate information about the launch  
 
Clarity
Post #1 was clear and easy to understand.
Post #2 was clear and easy to understand.
   
Courtesy
Post #1 was polite and respectful.
Post #2 was polite and respectful.
 
Consideration
Post #1 showed consideration for the reader by providing an appropriate level of detail.
Post #2 also showed consideration for the reader by providing an appropriate level of detail.
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Suppose that for retirement purposes, over the course of 20 years, you make monthly deposits of $380.00 into an account that pays an annual interest rate of 3.339% compounded monthly. After those 20 years, you then want to make monthly withdrawals for 23 years, reducing the balance in the account to zero dollars.
a) Find the amount of money you have accumulated in the account over the first 20 years:
b) How much should you withdrawing monthly from your account so that the balance reaches zero dollars after the final 23 years?
(Note: Include a dollar sign in your answers. Round your answers to the nearest penny.)

Answers

The amount of money you have accumulated in the account over the first 20 years is $104,623.31. You should withdrawing $8,131.82 monthly from your account so that the balance reaches zero dollars after the final 23 years.

To find the amount of money accumulated in the account over the first 20 years, we can use the formula for the future value of an annuity:

FV = PMT × [(1 + i)^n - 1] / i

Where FV is the future value, PMT is the monthly payment, i is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of months.

For this problem, PMT = $380.00, i = 3.339% / 12 = 0.003349, and n = 20 years × 12 months/year = 240 months.

Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

FV = $380.00 × [(1 + 0.003349)^240 - 1] / 0.003349

FV = $380.00 × 9.2171 / 0.003349

FV = $104,623.31

So the amount of money accumulated in the account over the first 20 years is $104,623.31.

To find the monthly withdrawal amount for the next 23 years, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity:

PV = PMT × [1 - (1 + i)^-n] / i

Where PV is the present value, PMT is the monthly payment, i is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of months.

For this problem, PV = $104,623.31, i = 0.003349, and n = 23 years × 12 months/year = 276 months.

Plugging these values into the formula and solving for PMT, we get:

$104,623.31 = PMT × [1 - (1 + 0.003349)^-276] / 0.003349

$104,623.31 = PMT × 12.862

PMT = $104,623.31 / 12.862

PMT = $8,131.82

So the monthly withdrawal amount for the next 23 years is $8,131.82.

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One of the final steps in terminating a partnership is the distribution of remaining assets to the partners after all obligations have been met. What is the basis for distributing any remaining assets/cash among the partners? How would loans from partners affect the distribution of partnership assets?

Answers

The basis for distributing any remaining assets/cash among the partners is the partnership agreement. The partnership agreement outlines the terms and conditions for the distribution of assets and profits among the partners. It is a legally binding document that all partners must adhere to.

In the event that there are loans from partners, these loans must be repaid before the distribution of any remaining assets/cash can take place. Loans from partners are considered liabilities and must be paid off before the distribution of assets can occur. Once all loans and other liabilities have been paid, the remaining assets/cash can be distributed among the partners according to the terms outlined in the partnership agreement.

In summary, the distribution of remaining assets/cash among partners is based on the partnership agreement and loans from partners must be repaid before any distribution can occur.

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Mary is unmarried with no dependents. She had 2021 taxable income of $45,000 which included $16,000 of 0%/15%/20% net long-term capital gain. What is her tax on taxable income using the alternative tax on net long-term capital gain method?

Answers

Mary's tax on taxable income using the alternative tax on net long-term capital gain method is $7,593.50.

Mary's tax on taxable income using the alternative tax on net long-term capital gain method can be calculated as follows:


1. First, we need to calculate her tax on ordinary income. Since she had a taxable income of $45,000, her tax on ordinary income will be:

$987.50 + (0.12 × ($45,000 - $9,950)) = $987.50 + (0.12 × $35,050) = $987.50 + $4,206 = $5,193.50

2. Next, we need to calculate her tax on net long-term capital gain. Since she had a net long-term capital gain of $16,000, her tax on net long-term capital gain will be:

$0 + (0.15 × ($16,000 - $0)) = $0 + (0.15 × $16,000) = $0 + $2,400 = $2,400

3. Finally, we need to add her tax on ordinary income and her tax on net long-term capital gain to get her total tax on taxable income:

$5,193.50 + $2,400 = $7,593.50

Therefore, Mary's tax on taxable income using the alternative tax on net long-term capital gain method is $7,593.50.

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Cite a specific example of the application of gross profitvariance analysis. How will it help the company in its decisionmaking?

Answers

Gross profit variance analysis is a financial tool that is used to determine the difference between the actual gross profit and the budgeted gross profit. It helps companies to identify any discrepancies in their financial performance and make informed decisions to improve profitability.

One specific example of the application of gross profit variance analysis is in the retail industry. A retail company may use gross profit variance analysis to compare the actual gross profit of a particular product with the budgeted gross profit. If the actual gross profit is lower than the budgeted gross profit, the company may decide to increase the selling price of the product, decrease the cost of goods sold, or discontinue the product altogether.

By using gross profit variance analysis, the company can identify the areas of their business that are underperforming and take corrective action to improve their profitability. This helps the company to make informed decisions and achieve its financial goals.

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Mohammad Abdulla's Electric House
31, December 2021
Unadjusted Trail balance
Cash $200,000
Accounts Receivable 10,000
Supply 1,000
Prepaid Insurance 12,000
Equipment 80,000
Accumulated depreciation-Equipment $5,000
Accounts payable 15,000
Unearned service revenue 6,000
Loan payable 50,000
Owner’s Capital 184,000
Owner’s Drawings 2,000
Service Revenues 55,000
Salaries expense 8,000
Cleaning expense 2,000
$315,000 $315,000
1. Supplies on hand revealed at 31, December $300.
2. Prepaid insurance was paid on 1 July 2021 for 12 months.
3. Interest expense due on loan payable for last 4 months. Quarterly interest rate is 3%.
4. Salary expense per day $500, December 31 is Wednesday. Employees are paid on Monday for
the preceding 5 days work week.
5. One third of the unearned service revenue has been earned.

Answers

To prepare the adjusted trial balance for Mohammad Abdulla's Electric House as of December 31, 2021, we need to make the following adjustments:

Supplies on hand revealed at 31, December $300.

Prepaid insurance was paid on 1 July 2021 for 12 months. Therefore, the amount of prepaid insurance that has been used up until December 31, 2021, is 6 months * $12,000/12 = $6,000.

Interest expense due on loan payable for last 4 months. Quarterly interest rate is 3%. The interest expense for 4 months is calculated as follows: $50,000 * 3% * 4/12 = $500.

Salary expense per day $500, December 31 is Wednesday. Employees are paid on Monday for the preceding 5 days work week. Therefore, the accrued salary expense for December 31 is calculated as follows: 3 days * $500/day = $1,500.

One third of the unearned service revenue has been earned. Therefore, the amount of earned service revenue is $6,000 * 1/3 = $2,000.

Adjusted trial balance for Mohammad Abdulla's Electric House as of December 31, 2021:

Cash $200,000

Accounts Receivable 10,000

Supplies 300

Prepaid Insurance 6,000

Equipment 80,000

Accumulated depreciation-Equipment 5,000

Accounts payable 15,000

Interest payable 500

Unearned service revenue 4,000

Loan payable 50,000

Owner’s Capital 184,000

Owner’s Drawings 2,000

Service Revenues 57,000

Salaries expense 9,500

Cleaning expense 2,000

Total $348,300 $348,300

Note that the supplies account has been adjusted to reflect the $300 of supplies on hand at the end of the year. The prepaid insurance account has been adjusted to reflect the $6,000 of prepaid insurance that has been used up. An interest payable account has been added to reflect the interest expense that has accrued on the loan payable. The unearned service revenue account has been adjusted to reflect the $4,000 of unearned service revenue that has not yet been earned. The service revenue and salary expense accounts have been adjusted to reflect the earned service revenue and accrued salary expense.

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Question 13 The UAE Federal Commercial Companies Law applies to: 1 commercial companies registered in the UAE only. 2 all commercial companies registered in the UAE and foreign companies conducting businesses in the UAE 3 companies wholly owned by the federal government. 4 Free Zone companies conducting their operations onshore (ie, outside their designated free zone). hich of the above statement(s) is correct? 1 only
1 dan 3
3 dan 4
2 only
What is the main difference between a Limited Liability Company (LLC) and a Limited Partnership (LP)? shareholders in an LLC are liable to the extent of their investment, whereas in an LP, lability of all partners is unlimited. a shareholder in an LLC may not be appointed as manager, whereas in a LP, management is restricted to the acting partners an LLC may be held by a single corporate shareholder an LLC offers shares for public subscription

Answers

1. The UAE Federal Commercial Companies Law applies to all commercial companies registered in the UAE and foreign companies conducting businesses in the UAE. Therefore, the correct answer is D. 2. The main difference between a Limited Liability Company (LLC) and a Limited Partnership (LP) is that shareholders in an LLC are liable to the extent of their investment, whereas in an LP, the liability of all partners is unlimited. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

1. The UAE Federal Commercial Companies Law is applicable to any economic entity which practice commercial, financial, industrial, agricultural, real estate or other kinds of economic activity on the mainland of the country. It applies to all commercial companies registered in the UAE and foreign companies conducting businesses in the UAE.

2. The main difference between a Limited Liability Company (LLC) and a Limited Partnership (LP) is that shareholders in an LLC are liable to the extent of their investment, whereas in an LP, the liability of all partners is unlimited. Shareholders in an LLC are liable to the extent of their investment, whereas in an LP, the liability of all partners is unlimited.

It is important to note that there are other differences between LLCs and LPs, such as the fact that a shareholder in an LLC may not be appointed as manager, whereas in a LP, management is restricted to the acting partners. Additionally, an LLC may be held by a single corporate shareholder, whereas an LP requires at least two partners. Finally, an LLC offers shares for public subscription, whereas an LP does not. However, the main difference between the two is the extent of liability for shareholders and partners.

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A bank manager lends a client $1,000,000 for six months. The corporate borrower repays $1,050,000 in six months. The bank charges a $1,000 fee to set up the loan. What is the EAR or effective annual rate on the loan?

Answers

The Effective annual rate on the loan are 5.0625%.

The EAR or effective annual rate on the loan is the annual rate of interest that accounts for the effects of compounding.

In this case, the bank manager lends a client $1,000,000 for six months and the corporate borrower repays $1,050,000 in six months. The bank also charges a $1,000 fee to set up the loan.

To calculate the EAR, we need to use the following formula:

EAR = (1 + r/n)^(n) - 1

Where r is the annual interest rate, and n is the number of compounding periods per year.

In this case, r = ($1,050,000 - $1,000,000)/$1,000,000 = 0.05 or 5%

And n = 2, since the loan is for six months and there are two six-month periods in a year.

Plugging in the values into the formula, we get:

EAR = (1 + 0.05/2)^(2) - 1

EAR = 1.025^2 - 1

EAR = 1.050625 - 1

EAR = 0.050625 or 5.0625%

Therefore, the EAR or effective annual rate on the loan is 5.0625%.

It is important to note that the $1,000 fee is not included in the calculation of the EAR, as it is a one-time charge and not part of the interest rate.

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Question 7 (1.5 points) Over the past five years Elliot Ine's camings per share grew at 10%. If this growth rate were maintained in the forsccable futuro, how many years would it take for Elliot's EPS to triple?
cannot compute as all information is not available
A. 9.32
B. 11.53
C. 1.72
D. 14.77
E. 7.27

Answers

Elliot's EPS would triple in around 9.32 years if the 10% rate of growth was kept up. The correct answer is A. 9.32.

To find the number of years it would take for Elliot's EPS to triple, we can use the Rule of 72. This rule states that if you divide 72 by the annual growth rate, you can estimate the number of years it will take for an investment to double.

In this case, we want to find out how long it will take for Elliot's EPS to triple, so we need to adjust the Rule of 72 to account for this. We can do this by dividing 72 by the natural logarithm of 3, which is approximately 1.1.

So, the formula we will use is:

Years to triple = (72 / 1.1) / Annual growth rate

Plugging in the given annual growth rate of 10%, we get:

Years to triple = (72 / 1.1) / 10%

Years to triple = 9.32

Therefore, it would take approximately 9.32 years for Elliot's EPS to triple if the 10% growth rate were maintained.

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A company has average operating assets of $500,000 throughout the year. It has the following summarized income statement for the year ended December 31, 2019: $900,800 600,000 300,800 Revenues Cost of goods sold Gross profit Administrative expenses Income before interest and taxes Interest expense Income before taxes Income tax expense 150.200 150,600 62.000 88,600 36.000 Net income $52,600 What is the ROI for this company? (round your answer to 2 decimal places as a percentage.) a) 30.12% b) 35.27% c) 35.62% d) 60.12%

Answers

Therefore, the correct answer is none of the options provided. The ROI for this company is 10.52%.

The ROI (Return on Investment) for a company is calculated by dividing the net income by the average operating assets and then multiplying by 100 to get a percentage.

ROI = Margin on sales X asset turnover.

Now let's clarify what each of these things is:

Margin on sales: it is the result obtained from the calculation of profits / sales.

Asset rotation: this is the result obtained from the calculation of average total sales / assets.



In this case, the net income is $52,600 and the average operating assets are $500,000.

ROI = (Net income / Average operating assets) x 100

ROI = ($52,600 / $500,000) x 100

ROI = 0.1052 x 100

ROI = 10.52%

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Identify one or two futures contracts that are listed on any
Exchange or clearing house for any country.

Answers

The futures contract that is listed on an exchange are the ICE Brent Crude Oil futures contract and E-mini S&P 500 futures contract, which is traded on the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) in the United States.

E-mini S&P 500 futures contract -  This contract is based on the S&P 500 Index, which is a benchmark for the U.S. stock market, and allows traders to speculate on the future direction of the index.

ICE Brent Crude Oil futures contract - Futures contract that is listed on an exchange is the ICE Brent Crude Oil futures contract, which is traded on the Intercontinental Exchange (ICE) in the United Kingdom. This contract is based on the price of Brent crude oil, which is a benchmark for the global oil market, and allows traders to speculate on the future price of oil.

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2. Why are top-level managers important to large corporations?

Answers

Answer:

Top-level managers are crucial to the success of large corporations

Explanation:

because they are responsible for making strategic decisions that shape the direction and operations of the entire organization. Here are some reasons why top-level managers are important to large corporations:

1. They set the overall direction: Top-level managers set the vision and mission of the company, which helps to guide the decision-making process at all levels of the organization. They are responsible for setting strategic goals and developing plans to achieve them.

2. They allocate resources: Top-level managers are responsible for allocating resources such as funds, personnel, and technology to various departments and projects within the organization. They must balance the needs of different departments and ensure that resources are being used effectively.

3. They make key decisions: Top-level managers make key decisions that affect the entire organization. These decisions can include things like mergers and acquisitions, major investments, and changes in company structure or strategy.

4. They manage risk: Top-level managers are responsible for identifying and managing risks that could impact the organization. They must be able to evaluate risks and make decisions that minimize potential negative impacts.

5. They provide leadership: Top-level managers are leaders within the organization and are responsible for inspiring and motivating employees to achieve the company's goals. They must be able to communicate effectively and build strong relationships with employees at all levels of the organization.

Overall, top-level managers play a critical role in the success of large corporations. They are responsible for setting the direction of the organization, allocating resources, making key decisions, managing risk, and providing leadership. Without effective top-level management, large corporations can struggle to achieve their goals and remain competitive in their respective industries.

What is an example how the futures contract you’re following could be used for hedging purposes if I was following TSLA future contract
Call
TSLA221216C00750000
TSLA Dec 2022 750.000 call
PUT
TSLA221216P00800000
TSLA Dec 2022 800.000 put

Answers

If you were following a TSLA future contract, one example of how it could be used for hedging purposes would be to buy a call option and a put option at different strike prices.

A futures contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined future date and price. One of the main uses of futures contracts is for hedging purposes, which is the practice of reducing risk exposure by taking an offsetting position in a related asset or market.
If you were following a TSLA future contract, one example of how it could be used for hedging purposes would be to buy a call option and a put option at different strike prices. The call option (TSLA221216C00750000) gives you the right to buy TSLA stock at a predetermined price of $750.00 on or before December 16, 2022. The put option (TSLA221216P00800000) gives you the right to sell TSLA stock at a predetermined price of $800.00 on or before December 16, 2022.
By buying both the call and put options, you are hedging against the possibility of the stock price moving significantly in either direction. If the stock price rises above $800.00, you can exercise the call option and buy the stock at a lower price, while if the stock price falls below $750.00, you can exercise the put option and sell the stock at a higher price. This strategy, known as a straddle, allows you to limit your risk exposure and potentially profit from large price movements in either direction.

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A bond with a remaining maturity of 5 years pays a coupon of 8%.
If the face (par) value of the bond is £1000 and the yield on
similar bonds is 10%, what is the duration for this bond??

Answers

The duration of a bond is a measure of the bond's sensitivity to changes in interest rates. The duration for this bond 4.37 years.


To calculate the duration of this bond, we need to calculate the present value of each cash flow and then calculate the weighted average of the time to receive them. The formula for the present value of a cash flow is:

PV = C / (1 + r) ^ t

Where C is the cash flow, r is the yield, and t is the time to receive the cash flow.

The bond pays a coupon of 8% on a face value of £1000, which is £80 per year. The bond has a remaining maturity of 5 years, so the cash flows are:

Year 1: £80
Year 2: £80
Year 3: £80
Year 4: £80
Year 5: £1080 (the final coupon payment plus the face value)

The yield on similar bonds is 10%, so we can use this as the discount rate to calculate the present values of the cash flows:

PV1 = 80 / (1 + 0.10) ^ 1 = 72.73
PV2 = 80 / (1 + 0.10) ^ 2 = 66.12
PV3 = 80 / (1 + 0.10) ^ 3 = 60.11
PV4 = 80 / (1 + 0.10) ^ 4 = 54.64
PV5 = 1080 / (1 + 0.10) ^ 5 = 666.34

The total present value of the bond is the sum of the present values of the cash flows:

PV = 72.73 + 66.12 + 60.11 + 54.64 + 666.34 = 919.94

The duration of the bond is the weighted average of the time to receive the cash flows, where the weights are the present values of the cash flows:

Duration = (1 * 72.73 + 2 * 66.12 + 3 * 60.11 + 4 * 54.64 + 5 * 666.34) / 919.94 = 4.37

Therefore, the duration of this bond is 4.37 years.

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We discussed the management assertions that are implicit in a set of financial statements, specifically: (1) existence/occurrence; (2) completeness; (3) rights and obligations; (4) cutoff; (5) valuation/allocation/accuracy; and (6) presentation and disclosure.
Required: Answer the following questions regarding these assertions.
1. Explain why the existence assertion is generally more important for asset accounts than it is for liability accounts. (3)
2. Explain why the occurrence assumption is critically important for revenue. (3)
3. Completeness is considered the overriding concern for liability accounts. Explain why this is so. (3)
4. Give examples of two types of transactions for which the cutoff assertion is critically important and explain why it is important for each transaction type. Do not list more than two types of transactions. (4)
5. Identify two asset accounts for which the rights assertion should be considered particularly important and explain your reasoning. Do not list more than two accounts. (4)
6. Identify two balance sheet accounts for which the valuation assertion is high risk and explain your reasoning. Do not list more than two accounts. (4)
7. Identify two types of transactions for which presentation and disclosure is critically important and explain your reasoning. Do not list more than two transaction types. (4)

Answers

The answers are in occurrence with management assertions:

1. The existence assertion is generally more important for asset accounts because assets are more likely to be overstated or fraudulently recorded than liabilities. For example, an employee may fraudulently record an asset that does not exist in order to increase the company's net worth or to receive a bonus. Liabilities, on the other hand, are less likely to be overstated because they represent amounts owed by the company, and companies generally do not want to overstate their liabilities.

2. The occurrence assumption is critically important for revenue because it ensures that revenue is only recognized when it has actually been earned. If revenue is recognized before it is earned, it can lead to an overstatement of the company's net income and an inaccurate representation of the company's financial position.

3. Completeness is considered the overriding concern for liability accounts because it is important to ensure that all liabilities are recorded in the financial statements. If liabilities are not recorded, it can lead to an understatement of the company's liabilities and an overstatement of the company's net worth.

4. Two types of transactions for which the cutoff assertion is critically important are sales transactions and expense transactions. The cutoff assertion is important for sales transactions because it ensures that sales are recorded in the correct accounting period. If sales are recorded in the wrong accounting period, it can lead to an overstatement or understatement of the company's net income.

5. Two asset accounts for which the rights assertion should be considered particularly important are inventory and accounts receivable. The rights assertion is important for inventory because it ensures that the company has legal ownership of the inventory and that it is not being held on consignment.

6. Two balance sheet accounts for which the valuation assertion is high risk are goodwill and intangible assets. The valuation assertion is high risk for goodwill because it is difficult to accurately measure the value of goodwill and it is subject to impairment.

7. Two types of transactions for which presentation and disclosure is critically important are related party transactions and off-balance sheet transactions. Presentation and disclosure is also important for off-balance sheet transactions because they can have a significant impact on the company's financial position and it is important for investors and other stakeholders to be aware of them.

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You are a software developer for a large online retailing site with a cloud-based IT infrastructure with hundreds of small software applications that communicate with each other. What approach might you recommend for managing your software infrastructure?

Answers

As a software developer for a large online retailing site with a cloud-based IT infrastructure, one approach that I might recommend for managing the software infrastructure is to use containerization. Containerization is a type of virtualization that involves bundling an application together with all of its related configuration files, libraries, and dependencies required for it to run.

This allows for the efficient deployment and management of hundreds of small software applications that communicate with each other, as each application can be isolated in its own container and run independently of other applications. This also makes it easier to update and maintain the software infrastructure, as changes can be made to individual containers without affecting the entire system. Additionally, containerization allows for the easy scaling of applications, as new containers can be quickly deployed as needed. Overall, containerization is a powerful tool for managing a complex software infrastructure and can help ensure that the system runs smoothly and efficiently.

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If a
zero-coupon bond does not pay interest (coupon) each year, why do
investors buy it? Also, describe with examples, the major risks
Bonds are exposed to.

Answers


Zero-coupon bonds are attractive to investors because they are generally sold at a deep discount from their face value. This means that investors receive more money than they put in when the bond matures. Investors also benefit from the potential to defer taxation of any interest earned until the bond matures.

Examples of risks that bonds are exposed to include default risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk.

A zero-coupon bond does not pay interest each year, but instead, it is sold at a discount from its face value and pays the full face value at maturity. Investors buy zero-coupon bonds because they can be purchased at a lower price and have the potential for higher returns.

For example, a zero-coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 may be sold for $800. The investor will receive the full $1,000 at maturity, resulting in a $200 profit.

The major risks that bonds are exposed to include:
- Interest rate risk: When interest rates rise, the value of a bond decreases. This is because investors can get a higher return from new bonds with higher interest rates, making the existing bond less attractive.
- Credit risk: This is the risk that the issuer of the bond will default on their payments, resulting in a loss for the investor.
- Inflation risk: If inflation increases, the purchasing power of the bond's interest payments and principal will decrease, resulting in a lower return for the investor.
- Liquidity risk: This is the risk that the investor will not be able to sell the bond easily or at a fair price.

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Zane works out in the ocean installing huge wind turbines to provide the coastal communities with clean energy. The Energy cluster pathway that Zane works in is _____.

Answers

Answer: energy and power technology.

Explanation: trust me i took the quiz

Zane works out in the ocean installing huge wind turbines to provide the coastal communities with clean energy. The Energy cluster pathway that Zane works in is energy and power technology.

What is energy?

The phrase energy means the ability to accomplish work, which is the ability to apply a force that causes an item to move. Potential energy and kinetic energy are the two forms of energy. Each form can be converted or altered to another. Energy is what causes things to alter and move.

Zane is employed by the Energy cluster program, which trains students for employment in energy planning, generation, planning, maintenance, and distribution. Students are prepared for employment in the energy sector, especially those involving renewable energy sources like wind turbines, through the Energy Career Cluster.

As a result, the significance of the Energy cluster pathway that Zane works are the aforementioned.

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Your firm is the auditor of Trent Textiles, and you are planning your audit work on the inventory count, which will be carried out at the firm’s year end of 31 May. Trent Textiles manufactures knitted garments, including pullovers. The production process comprises: (a) Knitting the individual components (eg body and arms). (b) Sewing the components together to form the finished garment. (c) Cleaning, finishing, pressing, and folding the garments. (d) Packing the garments, ready for dispatch to the customer.
Trent Textiles does not have a perpetual inventory system, so the value of the stock in the accounts is found from the inventory count at the year end. For management purposes, Trent Textiles carries out a full stocktake every three months.
Your permanent file of the company confirms that it has a single factory and no internal audit department.
You have been asked by the manager in charge of the audit to suggest the work you will perform at the stages listed below.
Required:
You are required to describe:
(a) The work you will carry out prior to the commencement of the inventory count. (b) The procedures you will check and the work you will carry out during the inventory count to ensure the company’s staff have accurately recorded the stock.

Answers

Prior to the commencement of the inventory count, I would suggest performing a few key audit procedures, including analyzing the inventory system for internal control deficiencies, understanding the inventory control policies and procedures, reviewing historical counts and testing the accuracy of inventory records. Additionally, I would recommend assessing the risk of material misstatement and the likelihood of stock obsolescence.  

During the inventory count, I would check that the procedures carried out by the company’s staff are accurate and that they are in line with the inventory control policies and procedures. This includes verifying the accuracy of the stocktake sheets, conducting a physical inspection of the items, tracing items to source documents, and analyzing the results of the count.

To ensure a successful audit, it is important to complete all the necessary audit procedures and perform an inventory count. This will help to identify any areas of material misstatement, inaccuracies, and deficiencies in the inventory control system. By performing an audit of the inventory, I can ensure that the company’s staff have accurately recorded the stock and that all procedures are in line with the inventory control policies and procedures.

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Determine each scenario's business model (Amortized Cost, FVOCI, or FVPL), and why is it.
1st Scenario:
An entity acquires debt securities which the entity will hold until maturity to collect cash flows in the form of principals and interests.
However, in accordance with the entity's credit risk management, the entity will sell any investment in which the credit risk becomes high in order to minimize losses.
2nd Scenario:
An entity acquires debt securities which the entity will hold until maturity to collect cash flows in the form of principal and interests.
However, the entity will sell these investments when a 'stress case' or a 'worst case' scenario occurs (e.g., a run on the bank's deposits).
3rd Scenario:
An entity holds financial assets to meet its everyday liquidity needs and to settle maturing accounts payable and other accrued liabilities.
The entity actively manages its liquidity and therefore actively manages the return on the portfolio.
Accordingly, the entity holds financial assets to collect cash flows and sell financial assets to reinvest in higher-yielding financial assets. Also, the entity makes frequent buying and selling of financial assets to better match the duration of its liabilities.
4th Scenario:
An entity holds financial assets with the purpose of selling them to realize fair value gains.

Answers

1st Scenario: The business model of this scenario is Amortized Cost. This is because the entity's objective is to hold the debt securities until maturity in order to collect cash flows in the form of principals and interests. However, the entity may sell the investment if the credit risk becomes high in order to minimize losses. This is consistent with the Amortized Cost model, which allows for the sale of financial assets in response to an increase in credit risk.

2nd Scenario: The business model of this scenario is also Amortized Cost. Similar to the first scenario, the entity's objective is to hold the debt securities until maturity in order to collect cash flows in the form of principal and interests. However, the entity may sell the investments in response to a 'stress case' or a 'worst case' scenario. This is also consistent with the Amortized Cost model, which allows for the sale of financial assets in response to an increase in credit risk.

3rd Scenario: The business model of this scenario is FVPL (Fair Value through Profit or Loss). This is because the entity actively manages its liquidity and therefore actively manages the return on the portfolio. The entity holds financial assets to collect cash flows and sell financial assets to reinvest in higher-yielding financial assets. Additionally, the entity makes frequent buying and selling of financial assets to better match the duration of its liabilities. This is consistent with the FVPL model, which requires the recognition of changes in fair value in profit or loss.

4th Scenario: The business model of this scenario is also FVPL. This is because the entity's objective is to hold financial assets with the purpose of selling them to realize fair value gains. This is consistent with the FVPL model, which requires the recognition of changes in fair value in profit or loss.

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