Fetal health screenings have been developed to test for a variety of genetic, environmental, and pathogenic diseases. Which of


the following would be a logical argument for conducting a genetic screening rather than a pathogenic screening to identify a


disease or condition?


A genetically carried disease or condition, which can be treated by altering environmental factors, would have no


bearing on pathogen transmission,


A genetically carried disease or condition, which is contagious, should be identified early to increase the odds of


containment; whereas a pathogenically transmitted condition will confine itself to one population.


A genetically carried disease or condition, which can be treated with a vaccination, should be identified early to


increase the odds of an infant's survival; whereas a mother's immunity would protect an infant from pathogens.


A genetically carried disease or condition, which can be treated with gene therapy, should be identified early to


increase the odds of an infant's survival, whereas a mother's immunity would protect an infant from pathogens.

Answers

Answer 1

The most logical argument among the given options is: A genetically carried disease or condition, which can be treated with gene therapy, should be identified early to increase the odds of an infant's survival, whereas a mother's immunity would protect an infant from pathogens.

This is because genetic screening can help identify genetic conditions that may be treatable with gene therapy, allowing for early intervention and a higher chance of the infant's survival. In contrast, a mother's immunity can often protect an infant from pathogenic diseases, making pathogenic screening less crucial in comparison. Hence the most logical argument among the given options is: A genetically carried disease or condition, which can be treated with gene therapy, should be identified early to increase the odds of an infant's survival, whereas a mother's immunity would protect an infant from pathogens.

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Related Questions

which of the following statements is correct? topographical occlusal radiographs yield a greater amount of information in the alveolar crest and apical areas than periapical radiographs. topographical occlusal radiographs may be exposed only on the maxillary arch. cross-sectional occlusal radiographs work best to image the maxilla. topographical occlusal radiographs cannot be used on children.

Answers

The correct statement is: Topographical occlusal radiographs yield a greater amount of information in the alveolar crest and apical areas than periapical radiographs therefore the correct option is A.

Topographical occlusal radiographs are special type of X-ray which allow the dentist to view an image of the entire mouth, including both structural and functional relationships between teeth, as well as any abnormalities or changes. The topographical technique focuses on a limited area of interest, such as a single tooth or few teeth,

and produces an image that shows detailed contours relating to that particular location. It can identify changes in the contour of the occlusal surface, which may reflect trauma or wear. It also helps to detect caries and other dental diseases related to wear and tear.

Hence the correct option is A.

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Explain the origin of the oceans during earth’s early history in four steps

Answers

One of the most significant and intriguing aspects of our planet, the seas currently make up around 71% of its surface and are home to innumerable plant and animal species. There are four processes that can be used to explain how the oceans came to be during Earth's early history.

The origin of the oceans during Earth's early history can be explained in four steps.

Step 1: When the early Earth was forming some 4.6 billion years ago, there were no oceans and it was a hot, dry region.

Step 2: As the Earth cooled, water vapour emitted by volcanoes and other natural sources began to condense onto the surface of the planet as liquid water.

Step 3: Eventually, the first seas were created when this liquid water gathered in low-lying locations. Scientists disagree on the precise timing and method of ocean formation, although it most likely took place between 3.8 and 4 billion years ago.


Step 4: After the seas developed, they significantly influenced the climate, chemistry, and life of the early Earth. They functioned as a habitat for the first living things, a source of nutrients and minerals for the planet's ecosystems, and helped control the temperature and carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. One of the most significant and intriguing aspects of our planet, the seas currently make up around 71% of its surface and are home to innumerable plant and animal species.

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The two types of reproduction are and ..

Answers

asexual and sexual reproduction
Sexual and asexual reproduction

How would function of the pituitary be affected if there were a blood clot in the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system which reduced blood flow through those vessels?

A) The hypothalamus would produce and secrete less hormone, causing a reduction in hormone released from the posterior pituitarv.
B) The hypothalamus would produce and secrete less hormone, causing a reduction in hormone released from both the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary.
C) The hypothalamus would produce and secrete less hormone, causing a reduction in hormone released from the
anterior pituitary.
D) The hypothalamus would still produce and secrete the same amount of hormone, but hormone release from the posterior pituitary would be reduced
E) The hypothalamus would still produce and secrete the same or higher levels of hormone, but hormone release from the anterior pituitary would be reduced

Answers

The hypothalamus would produce and secrete less hormone, causing a reduction in hormone released from the anterior pituitary. Option C.

Impaired pituitary function

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is a complex network of blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland.

The hypothalamus produces hormones that regulate the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. If there were a blood clot in this portal system, blood flows through these vessels would be reduced, resulting in decreased hormone production and secretion by the hypothalamus.

This reduction in hormone production would ultimately lead to a reduction in hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland. Hormone release from the posterior pituitary gland, which is not connected to the hypothalamus by the portal system, would not be affected.

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Evaluate the model. what parts would you change in the model to make it represent this cycle correctly?

Answers

Kurt Lewin developed a change model involving three steps: unfreezing, changing and refreezing. For Lewin, the process of change entails creating the perception that a change is needed, then moving toward the new, desired level of behavior and, finally, solidifying that new behavior as the normal.

In order to evaluate the model and make changes to accurately represent the cycle, there are a few key steps that should be taken. First, it is important to thoroughly review and analyze the model, including its assumptions, inputs, outputs, and overall structure. This will help to identify any areas where the model may be inaccurate or incomplete, and where adjustments may be needed.

One potential change that could be made to improve the accuracy of the model would be to incorporate additional data sources and information into the model. This could include data on factors such as market trends, consumer behavior, or regulatory changes, which could impact the cycle and its various stages.

Another possible change would be to adjust the parameters and variables within the model to better reflect the specific characteristics of the cycle being modeled. This could involve tweaking variables such as timeframes, cost structures, or resource allocation, in order to more accurately represent the underlying processes and dynamics at play.

Overall, evaluating and adjusting the model in this way requires careful attention to detail, a deep understanding of the cycle being modeled, and a willingness to revise and refine the model over time in response to new information and changing circumstances.

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As you can see from this activity, the immune system is very complex and is made of many components. In this section, place each immune component in the appropriate bin.

Answers

In this part, place every resistant part in the suitable canister first: Second: Sebum (oil) and sweat Third: NK cells and fever: T and B Lymphocytes.

The immune system's main components are The white blood cells: White blood cells look for, attack, and kill germs to keep you healthy, acting as an army against viruses and bacteria. White platelets are a critical piece of your insusceptible framework.

Safe cells create from immature microorganisms in the bone marrow and become various sorts of white platelets. Dendritic cells, natural killer cells, lymphocytes (B and T cells), neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells are among these.

The first involves effector cells that have already been activated. The second includes proficient phagocytes (NK cells). The final one is flexible; Clonal expansion occurs in B and T lymphocytes.

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Explain how each pair of body systems works together to keep a person healthy: Respiratory System & Nervous System

Answers

The respiratory system and the nervous system work together to keep a person healthy by providing oxygen to the body and regulating its use.

The respiratory system is responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide through the lungs. The nervous system then takes this oxygen and distributes it throughout the body, allowing the body to receive the necessary oxygen it needs to function.

The nervous system also plays an important role in regulating respiration and controlling the body’s breathing rate. This helps to ensure that the body is receiving the necessary oxygen while also preventing the body from over-breathing and becoming oxygen deprived.

Through this process, the respiratory system and the nervous system work together to maintain the body’s health by providing it with the oxygen it needs.

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What could have caused the size of the moon jelly population to increase?


Claim 1: A change to the size of the algae population caused the jelly population to increase.


Claim 2: A change to the size of the walleye pollock population caused the jelly population to increase.



1-State your claim. You can support one or both claims.


2-Describe your evidence.


3-Make your argument as convincing as possible by making sure you explain how your evidence supports your claim or claims

Answers

I believe both claims are valid, as a change in the size of the algae and walleye pollock populations could have caused an increase in the size of the moon jelly population.

The evidence to support this is that moon jellies feed on both algae and walleye pollock, so an increase in the size of these populations could have provided an increased food source for the moon jelly population.

Furthermore, as both algae and walleye pollock are abundant in the ocean, an increase in the availability of these food sources could have enabled the moon jelly population to grow larger.

In addition, moon jellies have a relatively short lifespan, which means that any increase in the availability of food sources could have increased the number of jellies that were able to survive and reproduce.

Therefore, an increase in the size of the algae or walleye pollock populations could have created an ideal environment for the moon jelly population to thrive.

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which statement best accounts for the hereditary transmission of sdh-linked paraganglioma in a parent specific manner? sdh is: a.an imprinted gene. b.a y-linked gene. c.an x-linked gene. d.a tumor suppressor gene.

Answers

The statement that best accounts for the hereditary transmission of SDH-linked paraganglioma in a parent-specific manner is an imprinted gene. So the correct answer is option: a.

An imprinted gene is a gene that is expressed in a parent-of-origin specific manner. This means that  expression of the gene depends on whether it was inherited from the mother or the father. In the case of SDH-linked paraganglioma, the disease is caused by mutations in genes that encode subunits of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) enzyme. This parent-specific inheritance pattern suggests that the SDH genes may be imprinted, meaning that their expression is regulated by epigenetic mechanisms that differ depending on whether the gene was inherited from the mother or the father. Correct answer : a.

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Calculate the percentage of mass remaining for samples what is the percent of mass remaining for sample a?
a, b, and c to the nearest tenth of a percent. record the
percent of mass remaining in table a of your student



Answers

The percent of mass remaining for sample a is 67%.

To calculate the percentage of mass remaining for samples a, b, and c, you will need to use the formula:

Percentage of Mass Remaining = (Mass Remaining ÷ Initial Mass) x 100%

For sample a, the percentage of mass remaining can be calculated as follows:

Percentage of Mass Remaining for Sample a = (6.7g ÷ 10g) x 100% = 67%

To record the percentage of mass remaining for samples a, b, and c in table a of your student, simply write down the corresponding percentages next to the respective samples. For example:

| Sample | Initial Mass | Mass Remaining | Percentage of Mass Remaining |
|--------|-------------|----------------|------------------------------|
| a      | 10g         | 6.7g           | 67%                          |
| b      | 20g         | 12.5g          | 62.5%                        |
| c      | 5g          | 2g             | 40%                          |

Make sure to round the percentages to the nearest tenth of a percent, as instructed.

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Calculate the percentage of mass remaining for Samples A, B, and C to the nearest tenth of a percent. Record the percent of mass remaining in Table A of your Student Guide.

The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as Group of answer choices feedback inhibition cooperativity inhibition irreversible inhibition competitive inhibition

Answers

The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as feedback inhibition. The correct answer is option a.

Feedback inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that allows a cell to control the rate of a metabolic pathway by using the end product of the pathway as a signal to inhibit an earlier enzyme in the pathway. This inhibition reduces the rate of the pathway and prevents the accumulation of excess products.

Feedback inhibition is a type of reversible inhibition, which means that the inhibition can be relieved if the concentration of the end product decreases or if a different signal overrides the inhibition.

This is in contrast to irreversible inhibition, which permanently inactivates the enzyme, or competitive inhibition, which occurs when a molecule similar to the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme and prevents the substrate from binding.

So, the correct answer is option a.

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The question is:

The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as

a) feedback inhibition

b) cooperative inhibition

c) irreversible inhibition

d) competitive inhibition

During the spring of 2015, it was predicted that the number of chipmunk babies born increased by 20%. Data collected through observations confirmed this prediction. Chipmunks were seen scurrying all over the forest.



The availability of berries and flowers will vastly decrease.



The population of Red-Tailed Hawks will increase.



The amount of grass will decrease.



The bears will move out of the area, decreasing their numbers

Answers

While the increase in chipmunk babies born may seem harmless at first, it can have significant impacts on the ecosystem.

During the spring of 2015, there was a 20% increase in the number of chipmunk babies born, which was confirmed through observations. As a result, chipmunks were seen scurrying all over the forest. However, this increase in chipmunk population may have negative effects on the ecosystem. With more chipmunks, there will be increased competition for resources such as berries and flowers, leading to a decrease in their availability.

Additionally, the increase in the chipmunk population may cause the population of Red-Tailed Hawks to increase as they prey on chipmunks. As chipmunks consume more resources, the amount of grass in the area may also decrease. On a positive note, the increase in chipmunks may cause bears to move out of the area, which could ultimately lead to a decrease in their population.

Overall, while the increase in chipmunk babies born may seem harmless at first, it can have significant impacts on the ecosystem.

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the long snout of the giant anteater, myrmecophaga tridactyla, of south america, and the echidna, tachyglossus aculeatus, of australia, are animals of different evolutionary lineages that are both adapted to eating ants. this is an example of multiple choice selective breeding. anatomical homology. convergent evolution. artificial selection. heterologous traits.

Answers

The long snout of the giant anteater, myrmecophaga tridactyla, of south america, and the echidna, tachyglossus aculeatus, of australia, are animals of different evolutionary lineages that are both adapted to eating ants. This is an example of convergent evolution.

Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated species develop similar characteristics due to facing analogous environmental challenges or occupying similar ecological niches.

In this case, the long snout of both the giant anteater and the echidna is a shared adaptation for efficiently feeding on ants, which is their primary food source. It is important to note that this is not a result of selective breeding, anatomical homology, artificial selection, or heterologous traits.

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The Braeburn apple is grown for its burst of sweet and tart flavors when bitten into, and for its firm fruit suitable for shipping. It was


named from the orchard where they were first grown. A chance seedling (young plant) was produced from what was thought to be a


cross-pollination of Granny Smith apples and Lady Hamilton apples. Explain which seeds would most likely reproduce this fruit.

Answers

In order to reproduce this fruit, both parent varieties must be present in the orchard. Since the Lady Hamilton apple is a variety of Golden Delicious, the seeds created by cross-pollinating these two apples will most likely produce a Braeburn-type apple.

The seeds produced by the cross-pollination of these two apples will contain a combination of the genetic material from the two parent varieties. This means that the Braeburn apples produced from the seeds will contain characteristics from both the Granny Smith and Lady Hamilton apples.

The seeds may also contain genetic traits from other apples that were grown in the same orchard, resulting in a unique combination of flavors, textures, and colors. In order to ensure that the Braeburn apple is reproduced, it is important to keep the two parent varieties in the orchard and to regularly cross-pollinate the trees.

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3 treatments for depression (bio report) whoever answers first ill mark brainliest!!

Answers

Explanation:

Treatment wey of depressionbis

TherapyMedicationpsychotherapy

when and where does replication occur?

Answers

Answer:

Replication occurs in the nucleus in eukaryotic cells and in the nucleoid religion in prokaryotic cells.

PLEASE HELP _____a_____ DNA is found in the nucleus, is _____b_____ in shape, and can be linked to a ____c_____. _____d_____DNA is found in the mitochondria, is _____e_____ in shape, and can be linked to a _____f______

Answers

Genome DNA is found in the nucleus, is Double-stranded in shape, and can be linked to a Variety of traits and diseases  .  Mitochondrial DNA is found in the mitochondria, is Circular in shape, and can be linked to a  Maternal inheritance

Genomic DNA is the genetic material found in the nucleus of a cell. It is double-stranded and contains all the genetic information that determines an organism's traits and susceptibility to certain diseases.

Mitochondrial DNA, on the other hand, is found in the mitochondria and is circular in shape. It is inherited exclusively from the mother, as the egg cell provides the majority of the cytoplasm and organelles to the developing embryo.

Mitochondrial DNA is important for energy production and can be linked to various mitochondrial disorders. Mutations in mitochondrial DNA can result in a variety of health issues, including muscle weakness, neurological problems, and organ failure.

Understanding the differences between genomic and mitochondrial DNA is essential for studying genetics and developing treatments for genetic diseases.

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Unobtainium-146 has a half life of 5 years. Find the amount left from a 500 grak sample of unobtainium-146 after 15 years

Answers

There will be approximately 63.44 grams of unobtainium-146 left from the original 500-gram sample after 15 years.

To find the amount of unobtainium-146 left after 15 years, we need to use the radioactive decay formula:

N(t) = N₀e^(-λt)

Where:
N(t) = the amount of unobtainium-146 left after time t
N₀ = the initial amount of unobtainium-146 (in this case, 500 grams)
λ = the decay constant (which is equal to ln2/half-life)
t = time elapsed (in this case, 15 years)

First, we need to calculate the decay constant:

λ = ln2/t₁/₂
λ = ln2/5
λ = 0.1386 (rounded to four decimal places)

Now we can plug in the values:

N(15) = 500e^(-0.1386*15)
N(15) = 500e^(-2.079)
N(15) = 500*0.1269
N(15) = 63.44

Therefore, there will be approximately 63.44 grams of unobtainium-146 left from the original 500-gram sample after 15 years.

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Please help me with this. in a 250-word report, answer the following questions.



what happens in the light reaction of photosynthesis?



what happens in the dark reaction of photosynthesis?



what five factors affect photosynthesis and its rate? how?

Answers

The light reaction of photosynthesis is the first step in the process and involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy. During this reaction, light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll and converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH.

This energy is then used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.

The dark reaction of photosynthesis is the second step in the process and does not require light. During this reaction, the ATP and NADPH from the light reaction are used to convert the previously made glucose into other organic molecules such as amino acids, proteins and lipids.

There are five factors that affect photosynthesis and its rate. These include light intensity, carbon dioxide, temperature, water and minerals. Light intensity is important as it is the source of energy for photosynthesis.

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One trait that demonstrates the Response area of finches of the Galapagos Islands is their Response area. This variation leads to some finches being better-suited to their Response area. For example, after the drought of 1977, finches with Response area were best-suited to the Response area in the drier environment. In the very wet year of 1983, finches with Response area were best-suited. Scientists know this because in each sampled finch population there is a Response area frequency of finches with the favorable trait. This demonstrates Response area in that the frequency of finches that are best-suited to their environment survive and reproduce, whereas ill-suited finches do not. Finches, like all organisms, Response area meaning more individuals are born than the environment can support. This leads to Response area for limited resources. Individuals with less favorable traits fail to reproduce and do not Response area. The Galapagos finch population demonstrates that Response area, or change over time, is a consequence of all these factors

Answers

The population of Galapagos finches has also adapted for their survival in the changing environment as a part of the evolutionary process.

One trait that demonstrates the adaptability of finches of the Galapagos Islands is their beak shape. This variation leads to some finches being better-suited to their respective environments.

For example, after the drought of 1977, finches with larger beaks were best-suited to the arid area in the drier environment. In the very wet year of 1983, finches with smaller beaks were best-suited.

Scientists know this because in each sampled finch population there is a larger frequency of finches with the favorable trait. This demonstrates natural selection in that the frequency of finches that are best-suited to their environment survive and reproduce, whereas ill-suited finches do not.

Finches, like all organisms,  overproduce, meaning more individuals are born than the environment can support. This leads to competition for limited resources.

Individuals with less favorable traits fail to reproduce and do not survive. The Galapagos finch population demonstrates that evolution, or change over time, is a consequence of all these factors.

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Which of these statements best contrasts the dangers of working with cows versus horses?




Horses spook or startle quicker than cows do, but cows are more combative.



Cows tend to react as a herd, but horses react more quickly to danger.



Cows are more territorial than horses, but horses are more protective.



Horses are more naturally aggressive than cows, but cows weigh more

Answers

The statement that best contrasts the dangers of working with cows versus horses is :-Horses spook or startle quicker than cows do, but cows are more combative.

Horses are known to spook or startle easily, which can put handlers at risk of injury if they are not prepared to control the animal.

On the other hand, cows are generally less reactive but can be more combative when they feel threatened or cornered, which can also lead to dangerous situations for handlers.

This statement effectively contrasts the two animals' different types of danger, rather than simply comparing their natural aggression or protective instincts, which may not be as relevant to their behavior around humans.

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Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?

(A) Regulating the movement of substances into and out of the cell
(B) Providing support and structure for the cell
(C) Converting sunlight into energy
(D) Allowing the cell to communicate with other cells

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

The cell membrane controls/ regulates the transport of materials that enter into the cell.

Yes the answer I believe is C

On the diagram below what is the name of region B?

Answers

Answer:

C. Parietal lobe

Explanation:

The parietal lobe is at the top region of the brain right behind the frontal lobe (A; the frontal lobe is at the front of the brain) and is for sensory perception/integration (i.e., processing sensory information (touch, taste, smell, temperature, etc.) from the outside world.

The x-ray of a male's radius shows that both the distal and proximal ends have completed fusion to the diaphysis. the male is likely what age

Answers

The age of the male inferred from the x-ray of his radius can be estimated to be at least 18 years old.

The x-ray shows that the distal and proximal ends of the radius have both fused to the diaphysis, which indicates that the male has completed the process of skeletal maturation known as epiphysial closure. This process typically occurs during adolescence and is completed by the age of 18.

This means that the male in the x-ray is at least 18 years old, however, the exact age can not be determined from the x-ray alone. The age may be higher if the male has experienced any growth spurts during adulthood.

Furthermore, the presence of any other medical conditions or injuries that may have caused the formation of new bone may indicate a later age than 18. Regardless, it is safe to assume that the male in the x-ray is at least 18 years old.

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what term is used to describe a pacemaker's ability to successfully stimulate a myocardial response?

Answers

The term used to describe a pacemaker's ability to successfully stimulate a myocardial response is "capture".

Capture refers to the ability of the pacemaker to initiate and maintain a myocardial response by delivering an electrical impulse that is strong enough to depolarize the cardiac tissue and cause a contraction. In other words, it is the ability of the pacemaker to "capture" the heart's electrical signals and stimulate it to beat in a synchronized manner.

The capture threshold is the minimum energy level required to achieve successful capture, and it is typically measured during pacemaker implantation and adjusted as needed. A pacemaker with a low capture threshold may cause frequent unnecessary pacing, while a high capture threshold may result in pacing failure and loss of synchronization with the heart's intrinsic rhythm.

Overall, the ability of a pacemaker to successfully capture the heart's electrical signals is crucial for maintaining proper cardiac function and preventing potential complications associated with arrhythmias. Therefore, regular monitoring of capture threshold and proper programming of the pacemaker settings are essential for optimal patient outcomes.

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What are two ways we can protect animals so that they don’t become extinct?.

Answers

There are many ways that we can protect animals from becoming extinct, but two of the most effective ways are habitat conservation and reducing human impact.

Firstly, habitat conservation involves protecting the natural habitats of animals, such as forests, wetlands, or coral reefs. This means preserving these areas from deforestation, pollution, and other human activities that can destroy or fragment their habitats. By protecting these habitats, we can ensure that animals have access to the resources they need to survive, such as food, water, and shelter.

Secondly, reducing human impact is also important for protecting animals from extinction. This involves minimizing our impact on the environment, such as reducing pollution and greenhouse gas emissions, conserving resources like water and energy, and reducing our reliance on single-use plastics. By reducing our impact on the environment, we can help to protect the natural habitats of animals and reduce the risk of climate change, which can have devastating effects on animal populations.

In conclusion, protecting animals from extinction requires a combination of efforts, including habitat conservation and reducing human impact. By taking steps to protect the environment and the habitats of animals, we can help to ensure that these species are able to thrive and survive for generations to come.

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Qusetion 1. the different traits within a population are caused by option for answer 1. genetic variety, 2. natural selection, 3. pollution. due to these differences the best traits in the population for survival will show up more frequently due to 1. genetic variety, 2. natural selection, 3. pollution.

question 2. in a new environment, traits for successful survival and reproduction become more common and traits that do not support survival become less common.
1. true
2. false

Answers

The statement that in a new environment, traits for successful survival and reproduction become more common and traits that do not support survival become less common is true.

This is because, in a new environment, the environment will be unfamiliar to the species, and the species will have to adapt to the new environment in order for it to survive. This is where natural selection comes into play. Natural selection is the process by which certain traits become more common in a population over time.

Traits that are beneficial to the organism's survival and reproduction are more likely to be passed on to future generations and that is why those traits become more common in the population. On the other hand, traits that are not beneficial are less likely to be passed on, resulting in those traits becoming less common in the population.

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The enzyme
dna polymerase
reassembles the newly copied dna molecules.
the enzyme
helicase
"reads" the original dna strand.

Answers

Enzyme "DNA polymerase" reconstructs newly copied DNA strands, while "helicase" unwinds the original DNA strand during replication.

An important role in DNA replication is played by the enzyme DNA polymerase, which adds complementary nucleotides to the template strand to form a new DNA strand. It guarantees purity and thoroughly checks the process. The double-stranded DNA molecule must unwind in order for the two strands to separate and form a replication fork, but helicase is also necessary to do this.

This makes it possible for DNA polymerase to function effectively. The unwinding process requires energy, which is done by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs. In order to transfer genetic information from one generation to the next, reliable DNA replication is essential, and both enzymes play important roles in the complex machinery that makes this possible.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

The enzyme DNA polymerae reassembles the newly copied dna molecule while the enzyme helicae "reads" the original dna strand.

If vegetables become wilted, they can often be


made crisp again by soaking them in water.


However, they may lose a few nutrients during


this process.


Using the concept of diffusion and concentration,


state why some nutrients would leave the plant


cell. [1]

Answers

When vegetables are soaked in water, it creates a concentration gradient where there is a higher concentration of nutrients in the plant cells than in the water.

As a result of this gradient, nutrients such as ions, minerals, and vitamins diffuse out of the plant cells and into the surrounding water until the concentration of nutrients is equalized. This is known as osmosis.

The movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.

The loss of nutrients is due to the fact that the plant cells are surrounded by a semi-permeable membrane which allows certain substances, like water, to pass through but restricts the passage of others, like nutrients, depending on their size and polarity.

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Assume you use a complete fertilizer containing urea, superphosphate, and potassium chloride. Describe what might happen to all the nutrients added. How might they be used, stored, or lost?

Answers

Fertilisers give crops vital nutrients like nitrogen so they may grow larger, more quickly, and yield more food.

However, using too much fertiliser can be harmful because it causes eutrophication and the emission of greenhouse gases.

Potassium (K)-rich fertilisers are regularly used to make up for plant deficiencies. Farmers must add this essential plant nutrient when soils are unable to provide crops with the K levels they require.When urea is added to the soil, it quickly turns into ammonium through a reaction with water and the soil enzyme urease.

The chemical reaction below illustrates this conversion, which is known as urea hydrolysis. The consumption of hydrogen ions (H+) in this reaction raises the pH of the soil close to the fertiliser.

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