equation x^(4)+6x^(3)-3x^(2)-24x-4=0, complete the following Il possible rational roots. synthetic division to test several possible rational roots in order to identify on

The solution of the equation Bx =     1       2       3   is    x =        2      6      4.

To find the solution of the equation Bx =
1
2
3
, we can multiply both sides of the equation by the inverse of B, B^-1. This will give us:

B^-1 Bx = B^-1
1
2
3


Since the product of a matrix and its inverse is the identity matrix, I, we can simplify the left side of the equation to:

Ix = B^-1
1
2
3


And since the product of the identity matrix and any vector is just the vector itself, we can simplify further to:

x = B^-1
1
2
3


Now, we can plug in the given values for B^-1 and the right side of the equation to find the solution for x:

x =
-1 0 1
2 2 0
1 0 1
*
1
2
3


Multiplying the matrices gives us:

x =
(-1)(1) + (0)(2) + (1)(3)
(2)(1) + (2)(2) + (0)(3)
(1)(1) + (0)(2) + (1)(3)


Simplifying further gives us:

x =
2
6
4


So, the solution of the equation Bx =     1       2       3   is    x =        2      6      4

Learn more about matrices

brainly.com/question/11367104

#SPJ11

Answer: true, true, false, true

Step-by-step explanation:

1 True- 2 is a prime number

2- True 2 is a prime number

3 False 2,3,5,7 can be prime numbers as well

4 True 2 is a prime number

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

6x-2

Factor out -1

( - -6x + -2)

- ( -6x +2)

- ( 2 -6x)

This is not equal to (2+6x) because of the negative sign out front.

The percentage of those standing is 60%

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

Using the above as a guide, we have the following:

Seated : Standing = 1 : 2

Standing : VIP = 6 : 1

Multiply Seated : Standing = 1 : 2 by 3

Seated : Standing = 3 : 6

Standing : VIP = 6 : 1

Combine the ratios

Seated : Standing : VIP = 3 : 6 : 1

So, we have

Standing = 6/(3 + 6 + 1) * 100%

Evaluate

Standing = 60%

Hence, the percentage is 60%

Read more about ratio at

https://brainly.com/question/12024093

#SPJ1

Answer:

squareroot(256)

16

Step-by-step explanation:

im genius

Answer:

16.1 is the closest asnwer

Step-by-step explanation:

if you didn't understand feel free to send me a message bro

Therefore , the solution of the given problem of angles comes out to be  Lines I and m can be inferred to be parallel by the Corresponding Angles Converse .

An angle is a shape in Euclidean geometry consisting of two rays, or sides of a circular, that split at the angle's apex and the angle's apex, which is in the middle. Where they are located, two rays can join to form an angle. Angle is another outcome of two entities interacting. They are known as dihedral angles.

Here,

The Corresponding Angles Converse states that if two parallels are intersected by a transversal such that a set of corresponding angles are congruent, then perhaps the two lines are parallel.

This can be used to demonstrate that lines I and m are parallel.

We can infer that 1 and 2 are corresponding angles because 1 2.

We can infer that they have the same measure because they are congruent.

Let's now think about the transversal line t. Lines I and m can be inferred to be parallel by the Corresponding Angles Converse because 1 and 2 are corresponding angles and t crosses both I and m.

We have thus demonstrated that I / m.

To know more about angles visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14569348

#SPJ1

Answer:if what im getting at is correct, 8000  cm for the part a then that means part b is probably in conversion of that to 80 m

Step-by-step explanation:

if what i think may be correct 1:1000 means that 8 cm would be 8000 then, if it wants to know the real length in meters then it would have to be converted making it 80 meters

___________________________________________________

Hope this is correct

Answer:

A) 8000 cm

B) 80m

Step-by-step explanation:

A) 1:1000 is 0.001 times that by 1000 you get 8 x 1000=8000

=8000cm

B) we know that in cm the ship size is 8000cm converting cm to meter is basically

8000÷100= 80meters

Answer: 11 weekends

Step-by-step explanation: I did 470.80 divided by 37.50 and got 12 with a decimal, so then I multiplied 37.50 by 11 and got 412.5, then added the 58.30 .

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

So first you have to subtract the total that the computer costs by how much zach already has. Then you get 411.7. Then you have to divide 411.7 by 37.50 to get how many weeks it takes to get the computer. Which is 10.96 or 11. 11 weeks is the answer! You can check this by multiplying 37.50 by 11 and add 58 because he already has that money, you will get 470! which is close so there you go!

The first equation describing the given conditions is x - y = 2, as the difference between the two outputs of a firm is 2. The second equation is 8x = 10y, as eight times the larger quantity is 10 times the smaller quantity. The system of equations can be written as:

x - y = 2
8x = 10y

To solve the system, we can use the substitution method. First, we can solve for x in the first equation:

x = y + 2

Then, we can substitute this expression for x into the second equation:

8(y + 2) = 10y

Distributing the 8 gives:

8y + 16 = 10y

Subtracting 8y from both sides gives:

16 = 2y

Dividing by 2 gives:

y = 8

Finally, we can substitute this value of y back into the first equation to find x:

x = 8 + 2 = 10

So the two output levels are x = 10 and y = 8.

You can learn more about system of equations at

https://brainly.com/question/13729904

#SPJ11

The formula:

[tex]\huge\begin{array}{ccc}C=2\pi r\end{array}[/tex]

[tex]r[/tex] - radius

We have:

[tex]r=6.5m[/tex]

Substitute:

[tex]C=2\cdot6.5m\cdot\pi=13\pi m[/tex]

Use: [tex]\pi\approx3.14[/tex]

[tex]C\approx13m\cdot3.14=40.82m[/tex]

Answer:40.82 meters

The circumference of the circle.

The formula:

- radius

SOLUTION:

We have:

Substitute:

Use:

Step-by-step explanation:

Give bro above me the good stuff

The length of the segment indicated is c = c = 9.92.

Pythagoras discovered that the square of the hypotenuse in a right-angled triangle with a 90° angle is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

The triangle has three sides: the hypotenuse, which is always the longest, the opposite, which doesn't touch the hypotenuse, and the adjacent (which is between the opposite and the hypotenuse).

a² = b² + c²

a = 19

b = 16.2

c or x =?

19² = 16.2² + c²

361 = 262.4 + c²

c² = 98.6

c = √98.6

c = 9.92

Therefore, the length of the segment indicated is c = 9.92.

Learn more about length, here:

brainly.com/question/2277187

#SPJ1

A dog eats soft food out of a 16oz packet. Every day the dog eats its meals split into three dishes breakfast, lunch, and dinner. If the dog needs to eat 11oz daily, each dish would have 3.67oz of food.

To find out  oz would be in each dish, we need to divide the total amount of food the dog needs to eat daily (11oz) by the number of dishes (3). This will give us the amount of food in each dish.

Here's the math:

11oz ÷ 3 dishes = 3.67oz per dish

So, each dish would have 3.67oz of food.

Learn more aout food at https://brainly.com/question/21946514

#SPJ11

The given statement " If A is an m x n matrix and B is an n x n matrix, then A × B is an m x n matrix" is True.  Correct answer of (a) is T.

This statement is definately true because, it helps to consider the dimensions of a matrix. The dimensions of a matrix refer to the number of rows and columns it contains. In the case of an m x n matrix (A) and an n x n matrix (B), the dimensions of A are m rows and n columns, while the dimensions of B are n rows and n columns.

When A is multiplied by B, the result is an m x n matrix, meaning it contains m rows and n columns. This is due to the fact that the number of columns of the first matrix (A) must equal the number of rows of the second matrix (B) in order for the matrices to be compatible for multiplication.

To know more about matrix here:

https://brainly.com/question/28180105

#SPJ11

Answer:

- 75.00

Step-by-step explanation:

400 - 475 = - 75

Helping in the name of Jesus.

Answer:

She's in debt $75

Step-by-step explanation:

475-400=-75

The difference in volumes between the total volume and initial volume is 40 milliliters.

Volume is a collection of two - dimensional points enclosed by a single dimensional line. Mathematically, we can write -

V = ∫∫∫ F(x, y, z) dx dy dz

Given is the volume flask as shown in the image.

Initial volume in the container {I} : 360 milliliters

Total volume of the container {T} : 400 milliliters

The difference in volumes between the total volume and initial volume -

{T} - {I}

400 - 360

40 milliliters

Therefore, the difference in volumes between the total volume and initial volume is 40 milliliters.

To solve more questions on volume, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/10814684

#SPJ1

The risk premium of L2 is $19,000 - $18,000.5 = $999.5.

The utility function u(x) = 2x + 1 represents a risk-neutral individual. This is because the utility function is a linear function, meaning that the marginal utility of wealth is constant. Therefore, the individual is indifferent between a certain outcome and a risky outcome with the same expected value.

To determine which lottery the individual prefers, we can calculate the expected utility of each lottery and compare them. The expected utility of a lottery is the sum of the probabilities of each outcome multiplied by the utility of that outcome.

The expected utility of Li is:

EU(Li) = 1 * u($20,000 - $1,000) = 1 * u($19,000) = 1 * (2 * $19,000 + 1) = $38,001

The expected utility of L2 is:

EU(L2) = 0.9 * u($20,000 + $0) + 0.1 * u($20,000 - $10,000) = 0.9 * u($20,000) + 0.1 * u($10,000) = 0.9 * (2 * $20,000 + 1) + 0.1 * (2 * $10,000 + 1) = $36,001.1

Since the expected utility of Li is greater than the expected utility of L2, the individual prefers Li.

The risk premium of L2 is the difference between the certain outcome that gives the same utility as L2 and the expected value of L2. The certain outcome that gives the same utility as L2 is $18,000.5, since u($18,000.5) = $36,001.1. The expected value of L2 is $19,000. The risk premium of L2 is $19,000 - $18,000.5 = $999.5.

Learn more about utility function: https://brainly.com/question/21326461

#SPJ11

Risk premium = $900

a) Since the utility function is increasing, this means you are risk-averse as increasing your position increases your utility.

b) In this case, you would prefer Lottery Li as it has lower risk of loss compared to Lottery L2. The risk premium of L2 can be calculated by finding the expected value of the lottery and subtracting the expected value of Li.
Expected Value of Li: (.9 x $20,000) - (.1 x $1,000) = $18,900
Expected Value of L2: (.9 x $20,000) - (.1 x $10,000) = $18,000

Risk premium = $18,900 - $18,000 = $900

Learn more about risk-averse

brainly.com/question/29609928

#SPJ11

The linear inequality answer using interval notation are [10/63, ∞]

To solve the linear inequality 3x+(1)/(3)>=(3)/(2)x+(4)/(7), we need to isolate the variable on one side of the inequality.

Here are the steps to do so:

1. Subtract (3)/(2)x from both sides of the inequality: 3x-(3)/(2)x+(1)/(3)>=(4)/(7)

2. Combine like terms on the left side of the inequality: (3/2)x+(1)/(3)>=(4)/(7)

3. Subtract (1)/(3) from both sides of the inequality: (3/2)x>=(4)/(7)-(1)/(3)

4. Find a common denominator and combine the fractions on the right side of the inequality: (3/2)x>=(12-7)/(21)

5. Simplify the fraction on the right side of the inequality: (3/2)x>=(5)/(21)

6. Multiply both sides of the inequality by the reciprocal of (3/2) to isolate the variable: x>=(5)/(21)*(2)/(3)

7. Simplify the fraction on the right side of the inequality: x>=(10)/(63)

The solution to the inequality is x>=(10)/(63). In interval notation, this is expressed as [10/63, infinity).

So the answer is [10/63, infinity]

To know more about linear inequality refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/11897796#

#SPJ11

Answer:

30%

Step-by-step explanation:

First, I added up the number of minutes in 2 1/2 hours. 2 hours is 120 minutes, and 1/2 hour is 30 minutes. 120 + 30 = 150.

Next, divide 45 (which is the number out of 150 we are determining the percentage for) by 150 (which is the total number of minutes). Multiply that number by 100 to get 30. The answer is 30%.

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

17.25x+3.89=21.14
17.25x=17.25
x = 1

Answer:

The solution to the equation is x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi,

We need to isolate the term that contains the variable "x", so we will subtract 3.89.

17.25x + 3.89 - 3.89 = 21.14 - 3.89

We obtain:

17.25x = 17.25

Dividing both sides by 17.25:

x = 1

Therefore, the solution to the equation is x = 1.

Good luck!

The graph that best represents the amount of money that John still needs to save for camp is a bar graph.

A bar graph is a graphical representation of data that is used to compare different categories of data. It is composed of rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. A bar graph may contain either vertical or horizontal bars, and it is usually used to represent data that is grouped into categories.

This graph would have a vertical axis that represents the amount of money that still needs to be saved and a horizontal axis that represents the amount of time. The graph would start with the bar at $60 and gradually increase over time until it reaches the goal of $120. He could also use the graph to determine how much money he needs to save each week or month in order to reach the goal on time.

Additionally, the graph could show him how much he has saved so far and how much he needs to save in order to reach the goal.

For more questions related to bar graph,

https://brainly.com/question/30710058

#SPJ1

x<4 is the solution of the inequality 5 x < 20

A number system is defined as a system of writing to express numbers.

The given inequality is  5 x < 20

We have to solve for x

Divide both sides by 5

x<20/5

Divide numerator and denominator by 5

x<4

The graph of x<4 is given in the attachment.

Hence, x<4 is the solution of the inequality 5 x < 20

To learn more on Number system click:

https://brainly.com/question/22046046

#SPJ1

Answer:

Let's assume that the original price of petrol is x per liter.

After the increase of R1 per liter, the new price of petrol is (x+1) per liter.

According to the problem, with the new price, you can buy 7 liters less for R504, so we can write:

7(x+1) = 504

Simplifying this equation, we get:

7x + 7 = 504

Subtracting 7 from both sides, we get:

7x = 497

Dividing both sides by 7, we get:

x = 71

Therefore, the original price of petrol was Rx71 per liter.

The correct statement is (a) Regression coefficients estimated using least squares are always BLUE.

Therefore, statement (a) is true. The other statements are not correct. Statement (b) is incorrect because the omitted variable bias can be positive or negative, depending on the direction of the correlation between the omitted variable and the other explanatory variables. Statement (c) is incorrect because R2 j is obtained from the regression of the jth explanatory variable on the rest of the explanatory variables, not the dependent variable. Statement (d) is incorrect because statement (a) is true.

To know more about Regression refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30437943

#SPJ11

a.   It will take you 2 seconds to catch up to your friend.

b.  You will be 60 feet ahead of your friend when you cross the finish line.

a. This is because you are skating at a rate of 12 feet per second and your friend has a head start of 20 feet, so you must cover 20 feet in 2 seconds (20 feet/12 feet per second).

b. You will be 60 feet ahead of your friend when you cross the finish line.

This is because your friend is skating at a rate of 10 feet per second, and you are skating at a rate of 12 feet per second, so you will gain an additional 2 feet per second.

Therefore, in the 180-foot race, you will have gained an additional 60 feet over your friend (180 feet/2 feet per second).

To know more about  skating click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/30121122#

#SPJ11

yes

im not sure though try it!

The project is expected to generate a return of 16.1% per year, which is higher than the company's cost of capital.

To calculate the IRR of the project, we need to find the discount rate at which the present value of the cash inflows equals the initial cost of the investment. We can use the following formula to find the IRR:

NPV = 0 = CF0 + CF1/(1+IRR)¹ + CF2/(1+IRR)² + CF3/(1+IRR)³ + CF4/(1+IRR)⁴

Where:

CF0 = initial investment = -$10,000

CF1, CF2, CF3, CF4 = cash flows in years 1, 2, 3, and 4, respectively

IRR = the discount rate we want to find

Using the given values, we can plug them into the formula and solve for IRR using a financial calculator or Excel. Alternatively, we can use a trial-and-error method to find the discount rate that makes NPV equal to zero.

Here is one way to solve for IRR using Excel:

In Excel, create a new spreadsheet.

In cells A1 to A5, enter the cash flows: -10000, 6000, 7500, 7000, and 2000.

In cell B1, enter the formula: =IRR(A1:A5)

Press Enter. The IRR of the project is displayed in cell B1 as a percentage.

Using this method, we find that the IRR of the project is approximately 16.1%.

Therefore, the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of the project is calculated to be 16.1%, which indicates that the project is expected to generate a return that is greater than the cost of capital for the company. Hence, investing in this project is considered financially viable for Big Wolf Demolition.

Learn more about Internal Rate of Return (IRR) :

https://brainly.com/question/13016230

#SPJ4

Answer:

$445.10

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount withheld for federal income tax depends on several factors, including Steve's filing status, income, and deductions. However, we can make an estimate based on some assumptions.

Assuming Steve is paid weekly and is paid for 52 weeks a year, his gross income would be:

$255.75 x 52 = $13,293

We also assume that Steve is claiming two allowances. Each allowance reduces the amount of taxable income subject to federal income tax withholding. For 2021, each allowance is equal to $4,300.

Therefore, Steve's taxable income for federal income tax purposes would be:

$13,293 - (2 x $4,300) = $4,693

To estimate the federal income tax withholding, we can use the IRS tax tables. For a single person claiming two allowances and earning $4,693 per week, the estimated federal income tax withholding would be:

$445.10

However, this is just an estimate, and the actual federal income tax withholding may be different based on Steve's specific circumstances. It's always best to consult with a tax professional for accurate tax advice.

The tοtal area οf the cοmpοsite figure is 358.38 mm² (rοunded tο twο decimal places).

Area is the measurement οf the size οf a surface οr a regiοn in a 2D plane, typically measured in square units. It is calculated by multiplying the length and width οf a surface οr regiοn fοr simple shapes like rectangles, οr by using fοrmulas specific tο each shape fοr mοre cοmplex shapes.

The area οf a semicircle with radius r is given by (π/2)r², and the area οf a trapezium with height h and parallel sides a and b is given by (h/2)(a+b).

Substituting the given values, we get

Area οf semicircle = (π/2)(9mm)² = 81π/2 mm²

Area οf trapezium = (13mm/2)(7mm+18mm) = 227.5 mm²

Therefοre, the tοtal area οf the semicircle and trapezium is:

81π/2 + 227.5 ≈ 358.38 mm²(rοunded tο twο decimal places).

To learn more about Area from the given link

https://brainly.com/question/25292087

#SPJ1

g(x) = -f(x) - 4

===========================================================

Explanation:

The point (0,1) is on the the red f(x) curve. It's the y-intercept.

If we reflected that point over the x axis, then it moves to (0,-1). Shift it down 4 units to get to (0,-5)

The point (0,-5) is on the purple g(x) curve.

This process of...

is applied to every point on the red curve to arrive at a corresponding point on the purple curve. The order of the transformations matters. We can't shift down first before reflecting (or else g(x) will be in a different spot).

We stick a negative sign in front of the f(x) to reflect over the x axis. This is to change the sign of the y coordinate from positive to negative. Our answer choices are narrowed to either B or C.

The answer is choice B since that -4 at the end means "shift each point 4 units down". We're subtracting 4 from each y coordinate.

GeoGebra and Desmos are two useful tools to help verify the answer.