Chad washes windows after school to make some extra money. He charges $5.50 to wash each window. If the customer provides the supplies, Chad deducts $3.25 from the total cost. One customer paid a total of $27.50 and did not provide supplies. Which equation could be used to find the number of windows, w , that Chad washed for this customer? A) 5.5 w + 3.25 = 27.5 B) 5.5 w - 3.25 = 27.5 C) 5.5 w = 27.5 D) 5.5 - 3.25 w = 27.5

Step-by-step explanation:

the inverse of the inverse of a function is the function itself

It's like going and coming back

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of the inverse is the input

f^-1 (f^-1(9))  = 9

As a proof

f(x) = 4x+5

y = 4x+5

Exchange x and y

x = 4y+5

Solve for y

(x+5) = 4y

(x+5)/4 = y

f^-1 (x) =  ( x-5)/4

Then find the inverse of this function

y = ( x-5) /4

Exchange x and y

x = (y-5)/4

4x = y-5

4x+5 = y

Which gives us the original function back

f^-1( input) = 4x+5

Using the value given

f^-1 (9) =  ( 9-5)/4=4/4 =1

Using the 1 from the previous part as the input

f^-1( 1) = 4*1+5  = 4+5 = 9

Answer:

the data are skewed, D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(-1,1), (1,3), (2,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

To dilate an object, we need to multiply the x and y values by the given scale factor.

In this case the scale factor is 1/3 --> 1/3(x, y)

Before-> After dilation

1/3(-3,3) = (-1,1)

1/3(3,9) = (1,3)

1/3(6,6) = (2,2)

Please leave a 'thanks' if this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

1.) first simplify or combine like terms.[tex]\frac{3a}{5} -p-\frac{p}{9}+\frac{7p}{3} -\frac{q}{10}+\frac{1}{9}[/tex]

2.) then condense. [tex]\frac{3a}{5} +\frac{11p}{9}-\frac{q}{10}+\frac{1}{9}[/tex].

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want the dot product, here it is:  (0)(0) + (-2i)(4i) = 8

Answer:

the answrr is option a 9

Answer:

  see attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

To work these, you need a pencil (with a fairly sharp point) and a compass or pair of dividers (a compass-like tool with two points, instead of a point and a pencil).

In the attached, the blue segment represents the compass set to the length of segment 'a'. The red segment represents the compass set to the length of segment 'b', and the green segment represents the compass set to the length of segment 'c'.

When the segments are shown end-to-end, it means you mark off that length on the line, then mark off the next length starting at the end of the first one. When the segments are shown overlapping, it means you mark one of the segments in the reverse direction (you subtract its length).

You may find it helpful to use your pencil to mark a starting point on the target line. If you use a compass, a small arc across the target line at the end of the segment length can help you locate the start of the next segment length.

__

(1) The length of segment 'b' is added to the length of segment 'a'. This is not different in concept from adding numbers on a number line.

(2) The length of segment 'b' is made to overlap the end of segment 'a', so that the end points of the two segments are the same point. This subtracts the length of 'b' from that of 'a', so the length 'a-b' is the length from the left end of 'a' to the left end of 'b' in the configuration shown.

(3) You get the length '2b' by appending the length of 'b' to itself.

(4) All three lengths are appended to each other here.

(5) As before, you get 2b by appending 'b' to itself. You subtract 'c' by backtracking over the previous length, as in part (2).

__

You will get best results if you use this (attachment) as a guide. The line segments drawn are only eyeball approximations of the segments on your page, and their placement end-to-end is not as precise as you can make it with your compass.

Answer:

f(4) = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

We have x = 4 so we use the middle line of the piecewise function since 0≤x≤4

f(x) = x

f(4) = 4

Answer:

B & C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

From the graph, the solutions are x = -2 and x = 3, therefore, the equation must be (x - (-2)) * (x - 3) = (x + 2)(x - 3).

Answer:

180 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

d = rt

d = 60*3 = 180 miles

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Distance traveled in an hour = 60 miles

Distance traveled in 3 hours = 60 * 3 = 180 miles

Answer:

B. 70%

Step-by-step explanation:

7/10 of the numbers are more than 5

7/10= 70%

Answer:

Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a nice and simple question. Here we can assume that next year, will be somewhat related to this graph - so this is only the theoretical probability. Therefore, if we can calculate the probability with which there are more than 5 inches of rain, it will apply to the next year as well.

____________

Taking a look at the graph, we see that 7 out of the 10 years given to us are greater than 5 inches of rainfall. Therefore, the probability that there will be more than 5 inches of rainfall next year should be 7 / 10 ( 7 years / 10 years ), and 7 / 10 with respect to percent would be 70%. Your solution is the second option.

Answer: E. The expression is 8(x + 2), and the weight is 64 pounds.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Number of machine parts in a batch = 8

weight of packaging for each part = 2  pounds

Let  x be the weight of each part ( in pounds).

Weight of each part with packaging = x+2

Then, Total weight of the parts and their packaging =  (Number of machine parts) x (Weight of each part with packaging )

= 8(x+2)

If each part weighs 6 pounds, then put x= 6

Total weight of the parts and their packaging =  8(6+2)

= 8 x 8 = 64 pounds

Hence, If each part weighs 6 pounds, then the total weight of the shipment will be 64 pounds .

Here is what we know:

8 machine parts

each part = x pouunds

packaging for each part is 2 pounds so 16 pounds for packaging

If y=total weight wiith that information we can form this equation

y=8x + 16

If each part equals 6 pounds the total shipment will be

y=8x+16

y=8(6) + 16

y= 48 + 16

y=64

Let's set this up in equation form!

We know that 15 equals b and 8 together.

15 = b + 8

b = 7

The value of b that makes the equation true is 7.

Hope this helps!! :)

Answer:

  arithmetic, finite

Step-by-step explanation:

Each term is 1 more than the previous term, so there is a common difference of 1. That means the series is arithmetic.

The entire series consists of the 10 terms shown, so the series is finite.

_____

If each term were multiplied by some number to get the next, then it would be a geometric series. If it went on forever, it would be an infinite series.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a function since no value gives two different outputs

The domain is (m,n,p,q) since it's the values that we input in the function

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: <AOB and an interior point D.

Prove: a point, D, in the interior of an angle is equidistant from the sides of the angle, then it belongs to the angle bisector of the angle.

Join D to A and B, then;

OA ⊥ AD (right angle property)

OB ⊥ BD (right angle property)

AD = BD (angle bisector theorem)

<AOD = <BOD (congruent angle property)

ΔAOD = ΔBOD (congruence property of triangles)

Therefore, point D lies on the bisector of <AOB.

Answer:

3/10

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 of total income - spent on car

remainder income = 4/5

3/8 of remainder = 3/8 ×4/5 = 3/10(of total income spent on rent)

the word "of" means you can find it by multiplication

e.g. 2 of 1/2 means 2 × 1/2 which is 1

Answer:

y-intercept of the line MN = 2

Standard form of the equation ⇒ x + y = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Coordinates of the ends of a line MN → M(-3, 5) and N(2, 0)

Slope of a line = [tex]\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex]

                        = [tex]\frac{5-0}{-3-2}[/tex]

                        = -1

Equation of the line MN passing through (-3, 5) and slope = -1,

y - 5 = (-1)(x + 3)

y - 5 = -x - 3

y = -x + 2

This equation is in the y-intercept form,

y = mx + b

where m = slope of the line

b = y-intercept

Therefore, y-intercept of the line MN = 2

Equation in the standard form,

x + y = 2

the first one is : -1

the second one is: y-5 = -1 ( x + 3)

the third one is: -x + 2

the first one to the right side is: 0,2

and the second one on the right side is: x+y=2

your welcome

Answer:

y-3=-2(x+0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  see below

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the slope (m) formula: [tex]m=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex]

Let (x₂, y₂) = (2, -1) and (x₁, y₁) = (0, 3)

[tex]m=\dfrac{-1-3}{2-0}=\dfrac{-4}{2}=-2[/tex]

Use the Point-Slope form y - y₁ = m(x - x₁) where m = -2 & (x₁, y₁) = (0, 3):

y - 3 = -2(x - 0)      -->    y - 3 = -2x

Use the Point-Slope form y - y₁ = m(x - x₁) where m = -2 & (x₁, y₁) = (2, -1):

y - (-1) = -2(x - 2)      -->    y + 1 = -2(x - 2)

Answer: C) ŷ = 0.06X + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Number of minutes since Rahul got online :

0 - - - - - 2 - - - - - 4 - - - - - 6 - - - - - 8

Total amount paid :

4.0 - - - 4.12 - - - 4.24 - - - 4.36 - - - 4.48

Using the online regression calculator to create a linear model with number of minutes since Rahul got online on the x-axis and the total amount paid on the y-axis :

The linear model obtained is : ŷ = 0.06X + 4

With y being the predicted variable

X = values of the independent variable

0.06 = gradient or slope of the line

4 = intercept

Answer:

If you mean it speads at the amount of 100,000 it would be only 10 weeks before 1,000,000 people are effected

or  If you mean 50% percent of 100,000 which is 50,000 it would take a total of 20 weeks before 1,000,000 people are infected

Hope this answered your question.

Answer:

15 units

Step-by-step explanation:

d = √[(x₂ - x₁)² + (y₂ - y₁)²]

d = √[(9 - (-6))² + (8 - 8)²]

d = √[(15²) + (0²)]

d = √15²

d = 15

Answer:

15 units

Step-by-step explanation:

9-(-6) = 15

Answer:

The answer is D: the number of candies in a box.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D) number of candies in a box

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there! :)

Answer:

m∠QPR = 25°.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

m∠QPS = 40°

m∠RPS = 8x + 7°

m∠QPR = 9x + 16°

m∠QPS = m∠RPS + m∠QPR, therefore:

40° = 8x + 7° + 9x + 16°

Combine like terms:

40° = 17x + 23°

Subtract 23° from both sides:

17° = 17x°

Divide both sides by 17:

x = 1°

If m∠QPR = 9x + 16°, substitute in 1 for 'x':

9(1) + 16 = 9 + 16 = 25°.

We need to find the value of x.

If R is on the interior of of <QPS, then m<QPR + m<RPS = m<QPS.

Now substitute the measures into the equation.

9x + 16 + 8x + 7 = 40.

Now combine like terms to get 17x + 23 = 40.

Now subtract 23 form both sides to get 17x = 17.

Now divide both sides by 17 to find that x = 1.

Now to find m<QPR which measures 9x + 16°, we can substitute in a 1.

So we have 9(1) + 16 which is 25.

So m<QPR is 25°.

Answer:

A = B

Step-by-step explanation:

A = 8!  = 8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 40320

B = 8P8 = 8! / ( 8-8)! = 8! = 0! = 8! /1 = 8! = 40320

A = B

Answer:

[x]   f(x)

[-6]  13

[-3]   4

[0]   1

[3]   4

[9]   28

Step-by-step explanation:

f(0) = (1/3)(0^2)+1 = 1

f(3) = (1/3)(3^2)+1 = 4

f(9) = (1/3)(9^2)+1 = 28

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

------------------------------------------------------------------

PART A

We see that our bowler gets a strike 25% or 1/4 of the time. This means he has a 75% chance of not getting a strike. To find the probability of him getting five strikes, we use multiplication rule, which says that if you multiply the probability of one event by another it equals the probability of both events occurring.

However, this time, we have twenty separate throws, and we have to multiply all of the probabilities of a certain event happening on each roll. This means that we will multiply five 25%s to signify the five strikes and 15 75%s to represent the 15 times he misses and this will give us the probability of this event happening. I will put these in decimal form for now and then convert it back. I will also use exponents so I don't have to write out the entire thing.

P(5 strikes)=0.25^5×0.75^15≈0.000013=0.0013%

The probability of him getting five strikes is 0.0013%.

------------------------------------------------------------------

PART B

To find the answer, we will first need to find the probability that he makes no strike at all, which will 75% multiplied 20 times.

P(no strike)=0.75^20≈0.003171211938934

We see that the percentage of the bowler getting a strike is 25%, while a miss is 75%. These add up to 100%. If these add up to 100%, then so should to probabilities of making at least one strike and making no strike at all!

100%-0.003171211938934%≈99.999682%

Basically, with twenty throws, he is guaranteed to make at least one strike with a probability of about 99.99%.

I hope that this helps! Have a wonderful day!

Answer:

The graph of the equation y=3x-2 is shown in the picture below!!

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps, if it does please mark brainliest!! Thank you!! Have a great day!

Answer:

Look at the image below ↓

The x stands for the slope and the y stands for the equation.