At time t = 1, a particle is located at position (x, y) = (5, 2). If it moves in the velocity field F(x, y) = xy − 1, y2 − 11 find its approximate location at time t = 1.02.

Answer:

Q = 590,940 J

Explanation:

Given:

Specific heat (c) = 1.75 J/(g⋅°C)

Mass(m) = 2.01 kg = 2,010

Change in temperature (ΔT) = 191 - 23 = 168°C

Find:

Heat required (Q)

Computation:

Q = mcΔT

Q = (2,010)(1.75)(168)

Q = 590,940 J

Q = 590.94 kJ

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the original resistance be R and voltage be V

Applying ohm's law

V / R = 15

V = 15 R

In second case

V / (R+8 ) = 12

V = 12 R + 96

15 R = 12 R + 96

3R = 96

R = 32 ohm .

Answer:

a

  [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

b

  [tex]M = 6[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

          The mass of the rock is  [tex]m_r = 200 \ kg[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the rock is  [tex]d = 2 \ m[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the branch [tex]l = 12 \ m[/tex]

An image representing this lever set-up is shown on the first uploaded image

Here the small object acts as a fulcrum

The  force exerted by the weight of the rock is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]W = m_r * g[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]W = 200 * 9.8[/tex]

     [tex]W = 1960 \ N[/tex]

 So  at  equilibrium the sum  of the moment about the fulcrum is mathematically represented as

         [tex]\sum M_f = F * cos \theta * l - W cos\theta * d = 0[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta[/tex] is very small so  [tex]cos\theta * l = l[/tex]

                               and  [tex]cos\theta * d = d[/tex]

Hence

       [tex]F * l - W * d = 0[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = \frac{W * d}{l}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]F = \frac{1960 * 2}{12}[/tex]

       [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

The  mechanical advantage is mathematically evaluated as

          [tex]M = \frac{W}{F}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]M = \frac{1960}{326.7}[/tex]

       [tex]M = 6[/tex]

That time is the "period" of the wave.

(It's not one of the choices.)

The blank of a sine wave is the time it takes to complete one cycle of the wavelength, the correct answer is D.

It can be understood in terms of the distance between any two similar successive points across any wave for example wavelength can be calculated by measuring the distance between any two successive crests.

It is the total length of the wave for which it completes one cycle.

The wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave as from the following relation.

C = νλ

where c is the speed of light

ν is the frequency of the wave

λ is the wavelength of the wave

The time taken by the sine wave to complete one cycle of the wavelength is called blank the correct answer is D.

Learn more about wavelength from here

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Answer:

a. 0.849 micro farad

b. 2.89 s

Explanation:

a) V=V0 e^-t/RC

3=12*e^-4/3.4*10^6*C

3/12=e^-4/3.4*10^6*C

-1.3863 =-4/3.4*10^6*C

C=8.49*10^-7 F

=0.849 micro farad

B) time constant= R*C

=3.4*10^6*8.49*10^-7

=2.89 S

a. The capacitance is 0.849 micro farad

b. The  time constant of the circuit is 2.89 s

a)

We know that

V=V0 e^-t/RC

3=12*e^-4/3.4*10^6*C

3/12=e^-4/3.4*10^6*C

-1.3863 =-4/3.4*10^6*C

C=8.49*10^-7 F

=0.849 micro farad

B)

Now

time constant= R*C

=3.4*10^6*8.49*10^-7

=2.89 S

Learn more about capacitor here: https://brainly.com/question/24708010

Answer:

It will displace the same weight of fresh water i.e.16000N. The point is the body 'floats'- which is the underlying assumption here, and by Archimedes Principle, for this body or vessel or whatever it may be, to float it should displace an equal weight of water

Explanation:

Answer:

The  velocity is [tex]v = 37 .46 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The start distance above the ground is  [tex]h = 71.6 \ m[/tex]

Generally according to the  law of energy conservation we have that

     [tex]PE_{top} = KE_{bottom }[/tex]

Where [tex]PE_{top}[/tex] is potential energy at the top which is mathematically represented as

      [tex]PE_{top} = m * g * h[/tex]

And  [tex]KE_{bottom }[/tex] is the kinetic energy at the bottom which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]KE_{bottom } = \frac{1}{2} * m * v^2[/tex]

Therefore  

       [tex]m * g * h = \frac{1}{2} * m * v^ 2[/tex]

=>    [tex]v = \sqrt{2 * g * h }[/tex]

substituting value

     [tex]v = \sqrt{2 * 9.8 * 71.6 }[/tex]

     [tex]v = 37 .46 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

The critical angle is [tex]\theta _c = 62.57^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  index of refraction of the glass in the fiber is [tex]n_f = 1.69[/tex]

     The index of refraction of the glass in the cladding is [tex]n_c = 1.50[/tex]

The critical angle is mathematically evaluated as

       [tex]\theta_c = sin^{-1}[\frac{n_c }{n_f } ][/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\theta_c = sin^{-1}[\frac{1.50 }{1.69 } ][/tex]

       [tex]\theta _c = 62.57^o[/tex]

Answer:

0.306mm

Explanation:

The radius of the conductor is 3mm, or 0.003m

The area of the conductor is:

A = π*r^2 = π*(.003)^2 = 2.8*10^-5 m^2

The current density is:

J = 130/2.8*10^-5 = 4.64*10^6 A/m

According to the listed reference:

Vd = J/(n*e) = 4.64*10^6 / ( 8.46*10^28 * 1.6*10^-19 ) = 0.34*10^-6 m/s = 0.34mm/s

The distance traveled is:

x = v*t = 0.34 * .90 = 0.306 mm

Answer:

1:2

Explanation:

It is given that,

Initial RMS AC voltage is 100 V and final RMS AC voltage is 200 V.

We need to find the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to the secondary  for step up transformer.

For a transformer, [tex]\dfrac{V_1}{V_2}=\dfrac{N_1}{N_2}[/tex]

So,

[tex]\dfrac{N_1}{N_2}=\dfrac{100}{200}\\\\\dfrac{N_1}{N_2}=\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

So, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to the secondary is 1:2.

Answer:

Option 3 = both spheres are at the same potential.

Explanation:

So, let us complete or fill the missing gap in the question above;

" A charge is placed on a spherical conductor of radius r1. This sphere is then connected to a distant sphere of radius r2 (not equal to r1) by a conducting wire. After the charges on the spheres are in equilibrium BOTH SPHERES ARE AT THE SAME POTENTIAL"

The reason both spheres are at the same potential after the charges on the spheres are in equilibrium is given below:

=> So, if we take a look at the Question again, the kind of connection described in the question above (that is a charged sphere, say X is connected another charged sphere, say Y by a conducting wire) will eventually cause the movement of charges(which initially are not of the same potential) from X to Y and from Y to X and this will continue until both spheres are at the same potential.

Answer:

   K_A = 32.2 10⁶ J

Explanation:

In this exercise we must relate the quantities given to find the kinetic energy

Asteroid A data

              m_A = 3.5 m_B

               v_A = 2.0 v

they also give the value of the kinetic energy of asteroid A

              K_B = 2.3 10⁶ J

the expression for scientific energy is

               K = ½ m v²

let's replace

              K_A = ½ m_a V_a2

               K_A = ½ 3.5 m_B (2.0 v_B)^2

                K_A = 3.5 2² (½ m_B v_B²)

                K_A = 14 K_B

               K_A = 32.2 10⁶ J

Answer:

speed when it reaches y = 4.00cm is

v = 14.9 g.m/s

Explanation:

given

q₁=q₂ =2.00 ×10⁻⁶

distance along x = 3.00cm= 3×10⁻²

q₃= 4×10⁻⁶C

mass= 10×10 ⁻³g

distance along y = 4×10⁻²m

r₁ = [tex]\sqrt{3^{2} +2^{2} }[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{13}[/tex] = 3.61cm = 0.036m

r₂ = [tex]\sqrt{4^{2} + 3^{2} }[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{25}[/tex] = 5cm = 0.05m

electric potential V = [tex]\frac{kq}{r}[/tex]

change in potential ΔV = [tex]V_{1} - V_{2}[/tex]

ΔV = [tex]\frac{2kq_{1} }{r_{1}} - \frac{2kq_{2} }{r_{2} }[/tex] , where [tex]q_{1} = q_{2}=[/tex]2.00μC

ΔV = [tex]2kq(\frac{1}{r_{1}} - \frac{1}{r_{2} })[/tex]

ΔV = 2 × 9×10⁹ × 2×10⁻⁶ × [tex](\frac{1}{0.036} - \frac{1}{0.05} )[/tex]

ΔV= 2.789×10⁵

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}[/tex] = ΔV × q₃

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ˣ 10×10⁻³ ×v² = 2.789×10⁵× 4 ×10⁻⁶

v² = 223.12 g.m/s

v = 14.9 g.m/s

The speed of the charge q₃ when it starts from rest at y = 2 cm and reaches y = 4 cm is; v = 14.89 m/s

We are given;

Charge 1; q₁ = 2.00 μC = 2 × 10⁻⁶ C

Charge 2; q₂ = 2.00 μC = 2 × 10⁻⁶ C

Distance of charge 1 along x = 3 cm = 3 × 10⁻² m

Distance of charge 2 along x = -3 cm = -3 × 10⁻² m

Charge 3; q₃ = +4.00 μC  = 4 × 10⁻⁶ C

mass; m = 0.01 g

distance of charge 3 along y = 4 cm = 4 × 10⁻² m

q₃ starts from rest at y = 2 × 10⁻² m and reaches y = 4 × 10⁻² m.

Thus;

Distance of charge 1 from the initial position of q₃;

r₁ = √((3 × 10⁻²)² + ((2 × 10⁻²)²)

r₁ = 0.0361 m

Distance of charge 2 from the final position of q₃;

r₂ = √((3 × 10⁻²)² + ((4 × 10⁻²)²)

r₂ = 0.05 m

Now, formula for electric potential is;

V = kq/r

Where k = 9 × 10⁹ N.m²/s²

Thus,change in potential is;

ΔV = V₁ - V₂

Now, Net V₁ = 2kq₁/r₁

Net V₂ = 2kq₂/r₂

Thus;

ΔV = 2kq₁/r₁ - 2kq₂/r₂

ΔV = (2 × 9 × 10⁹)[(2 × 10⁻⁶/0.0361) - (2 × 10⁻⁶/0.05)]

ΔV = 277229.92 V

Now, from conservation of energy;

½mv² = q₃ΔV

Thus;

½ × 0.01 × v² = 4 × 10⁻⁶ × 277229.92

v² = 2 × 4 × 10⁻⁶ × 277229.92/0.01

v = √(221.783936)

v = 14.89 m/s

Read more about point charges at;https://brainly.com/question/13914561

Answer:

Carbon analysis of bones and teeth will give insight to the types of plant material the hominin consumed.

Explanation:

This is because carbon being the principal composition of plants, analysis of the teeth's and bones for carbon will give an insight of what the homini n consumed

Answer:

B. Keeping your right hand flat, point your thumb in the direction of the current or the velocity of the charged particle, the remaining four fingers perpendicular to the thumb in the direction of magnetic field. The magnetic force, as the result of the magnetic field on the current, is the direction your palm is facing.

Explanation:

This is the Fleming's right hand rule, which was stated to explain the relationship or induction ability of the magnetic field, current or velocity of charged particles and magnetic force. These three variables are held mutually perpendicularly to one another.

The most suitable description of the right-hand rule is option B which clarifies the perpendicular mutual relationship of the thumb in the direction of the current or the velocity of the charged particle, the remaining four fingers perpendicular to the thumb in the direction of magnetic field. The magnetic force, as the result of the magnetic field on the current, is the direction your palm is facing.

Answer:

B.distance between lines increases

Answer:

A. Lines become narrower

Explanation:

I  got it right on my quiz!

I hope this helps!! :))

Answer:

The speed of the top of the wheel is twice the speed of the car.

That is: 72  m/s

Explanation:

To find the speed of the top of the wheel, we need to combine to velocities: the tangential velocity of the rotating wheel due to rotational motion [tex](v_t=\omega\,R=\omega\,(0.25\,m)\,)[/tex] - with [tex]\omega[/tex] being the wheel's angular velocity,

plus the velocity due to the translation of the center of mass (v = 36 m/s).

The wheel's angular velocity (in radians per second) can be obtained using the tangential velocity for the pure rotational motion and it equals:[tex]\omega=\frac{v_t}{r} =\frac{36}{0.25} \,s^{-1}[/tex]

Then the addition of these two velocities equals:

[tex]\omega\,R+v=\frac{36}{0.25} (0.25)\,\,\frac{m}{s} +36\,\,\frac{m}{s} =72\,\,\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

Answer:

The voltage across the resistor is zero, and the voltage across the capacitor is equal to the terminal voltage of the battery.

Explanation:

This is because when a capacitor is charged no current or voltage flows through it so it will have a voltage equal to the terminal voltage of the battery

Answer:

The major cause is "lack of high frequencies in a sound wave".

Explanation:

So that the above would be the correct solution.

Answer:

[tex]3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

The computation of the speed does the proton gain is shown below:

The potential difference is the difference that reflects the work done as per the unit charged

So, the work done should be

= Potential difference × Charge

Given that

Charge on a proton is

= 1.6 × 10^-19 C

Potential difference = 500 V

[tex]v= \sqrt{\frac{2.q.\Delta V}{m_{p}}} \\\\\\= \sqrt{\frac{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 5\times 10^{2}}{1.67\times 10^{-27}}}[/tex]

[tex]v= \sqrt{9.58\times 10^{10}}m/s \\\\= 3.095\times 10^{5}m/s\\\\\approx 3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Simply we applied the above formulas

Answer:

Explanation:

Change in entropy is expressed as ΔS = ΔQ/T where;

ΔQ is the total heat change during conversion of ice to water.

T is the room temperature

First we need to calculate the total change in heat using the conversion formulae;

ΔQ = mL + mcΔθ (total heat energy absorbed during phase change)

m is the mass of ice/water = 900g = 0.9kg

L is the latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.33 x 10⁵J/kg

c is the specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/kgK

Δθ is the change in temperature of water = 10°C - 0C = 10°C = 283K

Substituting the given values into ΔQ;

ΔQ = 0.9(333000)+0.9(4200)(283)

ΔQ = 299700 + 1069740

ΔQ = 1,369,440 Joules

Since Change in entropy ΔS = ΔQ/T

ΔS =  1,369,440/30+273

ΔS = 1,369,440/303

ΔS = 4519.60 J/K

Hence, the change in entropy of the universe is 4519.60 J/K

Answer:

0.0127m

Explanation:

Using

Ym= (1)(633x10^-9m)(2m) / (0.1x10^-3m) = 0.0127m

Complete Question

The  complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The spring scale [tex]F_2[/tex] reads  [tex]F_2 = 2.4225 \ N[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The first force is  [tex]F_1 = 10.5 \ N[/tex]

      The acceleration by which the cart moves to the right is  [tex]a = 2.50 \ m/s^2[/tex]

      The mass of the cart is  m  = 3.231  kg

Generally the net force on the cart is  

       [tex]F_{net} = F_1 - F_2[/tex]

This net force is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_{net} = m * a[/tex]

So  

        [tex]m* a = 10 - F_2[/tex]

        [tex]F_2 = 10.5 - 2.5 (3.231)[/tex]

        [tex]F_2 = 2.4225 \ N[/tex]

Answer:

5.49 x 10^17 m  is the distance between the sun-like star to the earth

Explanation:

Radiation intensity on Earth = 1.0 x 10^-10 W/m^2

Power of radiation of the star = 3.8 x 10^26 W

Recall that the intensity of radiation is given as

[tex]I[/tex] = [tex]\frac{P}{A}[/tex]

where

[tex]I[/tex] = intensity of radiation

P = power of radiation

A is the area through which the radiation spreads out in all three dimensional direction.

A = [tex]\frac{P}{I}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3.8*10^{26} }{1.0*10^{-10} }[/tex] = 3.8 x 10^36 m^2

This area is spread out in the form of a sphere of area

A = [tex]4\pi r^{2}[/tex] = 4 x 3.142 x [tex]r^{2}[/tex]

3.8 x 10^36 = 12.568[tex]r^{2}[/tex]

[tex]r^{2}[/tex] =  (3.8 x 10^36)/12.568 = 3.02 x 10^35

r = [tex]\sqrt{3.02*10^{35} }[/tex] = 5.49 x 10^17 m   this is the distance of the star to the Earth

Answer:

The induced  emf is  [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The number of turns is  [tex]N = 1300 \ turns[/tex]

    The diameter is  [tex]d = 2.2 \ cm = 2.2*10^{-2}[/tex]

     The initial magnetic field is  [tex]B_i = 0.14 \ T[/tex]

      The final magnetic field is  [tex]B_f = 0 \ T[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]dt = 9.0ms = 9.0*10^{-3} \ s[/tex]

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]r = \frac{d}{2 }[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{2.2 *10^{-2}}{2 }[/tex]

     [tex]r = 1.1*10^{-2} \ m[/tex]

The induced emf is mathematically represented as

    [tex]\epsilon =- N * \frac{d\phi }{dt }[/tex]

Where  [tex]d\phi[/tex] is the change in magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]d\phi = dB * A * cos\theta[/tex]

=>   [tex]d\phi = [B_f - B_i ] * A * cos\theta[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta = 0[/tex] given that the axis of the coil is parallel to the field

Also A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]A = 3.142 * [1.1*10^{-2}]^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 3.8 *10^{-4] \ m^2[/tex]

So

    [tex]d\phi = [0 - 0.14 ] * 3.8*10^{-4}[/tex]

    [tex]d\phi = -5.32*10^{-5} \ weber[/tex]

So  

     [tex]\epsilon =- 1300 * \frac{-5.32*10^{-5} }{ 9.0*10^{-3} }[/tex]

    [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

Please see below as the answer is self-explanatory.

Explanation:

The low band of the VHF TV Spectrum, spans channels 2-6, from 54 to 88 Mhz.

In the analog TV, in the Americas, the total bandwidth of any channel is 6 Mhz, with the visual carrier modulated in VSS (Vestigial Side Band) at 1.25 Mhz from the lowest frequency of the channel.

The aural carrier is located at 4.5 Mhz from the visual carrier, and is FM modulated.

For Channel 6, which spans between 82 and  88 Mhz, the visual carrier is at 83.25 Mhz, so the aural carrier is at 87.75 Mhz, which falls within the FM Band, so it is possible to listen the audio part of this channel in a FM radio receiver, even at a lower volume, due to the FM radio has a greater deviation than TV aural carrier.

The reason why it is possible for TV station to sometimes pick up some of the audio portion on your FM radio receiver is because; TV waves can sometimes deviate into the FM radio frequency range.

Let us start with explaining the waves of TV and radio.

The frequency range utilized by TV stations is either the range 54 MHz to 88 MHz or 174 MHz to 222 MHz. In contrast, the frequency range utilized by FM Radio band is between 88 MHz and 174 MHz.

Now, in some cases, it is possible that the TV signal may deviate into the range of the FM Radio and as such in that case, the TV signal will pick the audio portion of an FM Radio. These TV waves are very high frequency waves.

Finally, it does not imply that the TV wave is broadcasting as an FM because it only deviated a bit from the TV range and not like that is where it is made to operate.

Read more about TV waves at; https://brainly.com/question/9684913

Answer:

The intensity is [tex]I = 500 mW/m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  intensity of the unpolarized light is [tex]I_o = 1000 \ m W /m^2 = 1000 *10^{-3} \ W/m^2[/tex]

Generally the intensity of the light emerging from the polarizer is  mathematically represented as

          [tex]I = \frac{I_o}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]I = \frac{1000 *10^{-3}}{2}[/tex]

         [tex]I = 500 *10^{-3} W/m^2[/tex]

         [tex]I = 500 mW/m^2[/tex]

Answer:

118.6 rad/s²

Explanation:

Δθ = 4100.0 rad

ω₀ = 159.0 rad/s

ω = 999.0 rad/s

Find: α

ω² = ω₀² + 2αΔθ

(999.0 rad/s)² = (159.0 rad/s)² + 2α (4100.0 rad)

α = 118.6 rad/s²