A steel cable consists of eight high-strength steel strands. The strength of each strand can be modeled by a lognormal random variable with a mean value of 50 kips and a coefficient of variation of 10%. What is the probability that the weakest strand will have a strength less than 40 kips?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

P(X< 40) = 0.014367

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information:

Suppose X denotes the strength of each steel strand & X follows the lognormal distribution with a mean value [tex]\mu_x[/tex] = 50 kips & coefficient of variation CV = 10%

Using the formula for the coefficient of variation CV

[tex]cv = \dfrac{\sigma_x}{\mu_x}[/tex]

[tex]0.10 = \dfrac{\sigma_x}{50}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma_x = 50 (0.10)[/tex]

[tex]\sigma_x = 5[/tex]

By applying the mean and mean & variance from the lognormal distribution, we have:

[tex]\dfrac{\sigma_x^2}{\mu_x}= \dfrac{\{exp(2 \mu + \sigma^2)\} (exp(\sigma^2))-1}{exp( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2} \}}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{5^2}{50}= \dfrac{\{exp(2( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2})) \} (exp(\sigma^2))-1}{exp( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2} \}}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{5^2}{50}= exp \{ 2 ( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2}) - ( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2}) \} \{ ( exp ( \sigma^2))-1 \}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{5^2}{50}=exp \{(\mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2}) \} {(exp (\sigma^2))-1 \}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{5^2}{50}=50 \{ (exp (\sigma^2 )) -1 \}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{25}{50 \times 50 }= ( exp (\sigma^2 )) -1[/tex]

[tex]exp( \sigma^2) = \dfrac{25}{50 \times 50}+ 1[/tex]

[tex]exp( \sigma^2) = (\dfrac{25+2500}{2500 })[/tex]

[tex]exp( \sigma^2) =1.01[/tex]

[tex]\sigma^2 = In (1.01)[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf {\sigma^2 = 0.00995}[/tex]

However, the next process is to replace the value of [tex]\sigma^2[/tex] into the logman distributions mean.

[tex]\mu_x = exp ( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2})[/tex]

[tex]50 = exp ( \mu + \dfrac{\sigma^2}{2})[/tex]

[tex]50 = exp ( \mu + \dfrac{0.00995}{2})[/tex]

[tex]In(50) = ( \mu + \dfrac{0.00995}{2})[/tex]

3.912023 = μ +0.004975

μ = 3.907048

Now, we know our mean to be  3.907048 and the variance to be 0.00995.

Therefore, the probability that the weakest strand will have a strength of fewer than 40 kips can be computed as follows:

P(X< 40) = P(In(x) < In(40))

[tex]P(X<40) = P(\dfrac{In(x) - \mu}{\sigma} < \dfrac{In(40) - \mu}{\sigma})[/tex]

since;

[tex]\sigma^2 = 0.00995 \\ \\ \sigma = \sqrt{0.00995} \\ \\ \sigma = 0.0998[/tex]

[tex]P(X<40) = P(Z < \dfrac{In(40) - 3.907048}{0.0998})[/tex]

P(X< 40) = P(Z < -2.18712)

Using the Excel formula =(=NORMDIST (-2.18712)

P(X< 40) = 0.014367


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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation

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Answer:

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Answers

Complete question is;

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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It’s going to be A
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Answer
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Answers

Answer:

9r3

Step-by-step explanation:

93-10=83-10=73-10=63-10=53-10=43-10=33-10=23-10=13-10=3

so 93÷10=9 remainder of 3

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Answers

Answer:

option C

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and here we think of b=1 and a=-1

so we have

[tex](3x-1)(x+1)[/tex]

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

Sin θ = 3/4

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make a sketch of right-angled triangle with following sides;

opposite side = 3

hypotenuse side = 4

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

3(5. 10+2)

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Answers

Answer:

False

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Answers

Answer:

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Answers

Answer:

B. The count of drawing a red ball is a binomial distribution.

Step-by-step explanation:

The count of drawing a red ball can be gotten by binomial distribution because:

the chance of success; p = 26/50 and chance of no failure; q = 24/50

For example, If we want to find probability of getting 5 red balls out of 20 selections, we will use the binomial probability distribution formula;

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This same procedure also applies if we want to get the probability of getting a number of yellow balls out of a number of selections from the bag.

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;-;

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Answers

Answer:

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The area of a square

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Answers

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D
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145
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Answers

Answer:

140

Step-by-step explanation:

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180*4=720 (sum of interior angles of hexagon)

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510+2x+x=720

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x=210/3

x=70

ANGLE DEF IS 70

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ANGLE CDE =140

The angle CDE is 140°.

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A hexagon can be defined as a closed two-dimensional polygon with six sides. Hexagon has 6 vertices and 6 angles.

According to the given problem,

We know,

Sum of the interior angles of a polygon is,

Sum = 180° (n - 2) where n is the number of sides,

Here n = 6 , then

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Let ∠ DEF be x  

Therefore ∠ CDE = 2x,

Sum the interior angles,

⇒ 160 + 90 + 145 + 115 + 2x + x = 720

⇒ 510 + 3x = 720 ( subtracting 510 from both sides )

⇒ 3x = 210 ( dividing both sides by 3 )

⇒ x = 70

∠ CDE = 2x

           = 2 × 70

           = 140°

Hence, we can conclude, in the hexagon, the angle CDE is 140°.

Learn more about hexagon here:

https://brainly.com/question/2001860

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Answers

Answer:

d) 280

Step-by-step explanation:

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8720/24=280

280 is the answer you are looking for

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Answers

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= 4 × π × r × r

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the surface area of a sphere ( orange)

SA=4*3.14*r^2

radius=3

SA=4*3.14*3*3=113.04

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Answers

Answer:

x = 13/15

Step-by-step explanation:

If x - 1/5 = 2/3,

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Answers

Step-by-step explanation:

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22.75 will be the total sale price to the nearest cent. If this answers was helpful for you please mark as best thank you.
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