A plane is flying horizontally with a constant speed of 55 .0 m/s when it drops a
rescue capsule. The capsule lands on the ground 12.0 s later.

c) How would your answer to part b) iii change if the constant speed of the plane is
increased? Explain.​

Answer:

257 kN.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information in the following questions;

=> "A jet transport with a landing speed

= 200 km/h reduces its speed to = 60 km/h with a negative thrust R from its jet thrust reversers"

= > The distance = 425 m along the runway with constant deceleration."

=> "The total mass of the aircraft is 140 Mg with mass center at G. "

We are also give that the "aerodynamic forces on the aircraft are small and may be neglected at lower speed"

Step one: determine the acceleration;

=> Acceleration = 1/ (2 × distance along runway with constant deceleration) × { (landing speed A)^2 - (landing speed B)^2 × 1/(3.6)^2.

=> Acceleration = 1/ (2 × 425) × (200^2 - 60^2) × 1/(3.6)^2 = 3.3 m/s^2.

Thus, "the reaction N under the nose wheel B toward the end of the braking interval and prior to the application of mechanical braking" = The total mass of the aircraft × acceleration × 1.2 = 15N - (9.8 × 2.4 × 140).

= 140 × 3.3× 1.2 = 15N - (9.8 × 2.4 × 140).

= 257 kN.

The reaction N under the nose wheel B towards the end of the braking interval =  257 kN

Given data :

Landing speed of Jet = 200 km/h

Distance = 425 m

Total mass of aircraft = 140 Mg  with mass center at G

  Jet acceleration = 1 / (2 *425) * (200²  - 60² ) *  1 / (3.6)²

                              = 3.3 m/s²

Reaction N = Total mass of aircraft * jet acceleration* 1.2 = 15N - (9.8*2.4* 140).   ----- ( 1 )

∴ Reaction N = 140 * 3.3 * 1.2 = 15 N - ( 9.8*2.4* 140 )  

 Hence Reaction N = 257 KN

We can conclude that the The reaction N under the nose wheel B towards the end of the braking interval =  257 kN

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Answer:

Explanation:

Total mass m = 18 kg .

Spring are parallel to each other so total spring constant

= 4 x 24 = 96 N/cm = 9600 N/m

Time period of vibration

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k} }[/tex]

Putting the given  values

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{18}{9600} }[/tex]

= .27 s .

Answer:

Plss see attached file

Explanation:

Answer:

The  speed  is  [tex]v = 214.35 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  linear mass density is  [tex]\mu = 3700 \ kg/m[/tex]

    The tension is  [tex]T = 1.7*10^8 \ N[/tex]

The  transverse wave speed is mathematically represented as  

       [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{1.7 *10^{8}}{3700} }[/tex]

      [tex]v = 214.35 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Work done on a spring is expressed as [tex]W = 1/2 ke^{2}[/tex]

k is the elastic constant

e is the extension of the material

If 4 J of work is needed to stretch a spring from its natural length of 36 cm to a length of 47 cm, then;

Work done = 4J and the extension e = 47 cm - 36 cm; e = 11 cm

11cm = 0.11m

Substituting the given values into the equation above to get the elastic constant;

[tex]W = 1/2 ke^{2}\\4 = 1/2k(0.11)^{2} \\8 = 0.0121k\\k = 8/0.0121\\k = 661.16N/m[/tex]

a) In order to determine the amount of work needed work is needed to stretch the spring from 41 cm to 45 cm, wre will use the same formula as above.

[tex]W = 1/2ke^{2} \\e = 0.45 - 0.41\\e = 0.04 m\\ k = 661.16N/m[/tex]

[tex]W = 1/2 * 661.16 * 0.04^{2} \\W = 330.58*0.0016\\W = 0.53J (to\ 2d.p)[/tex]

b) According to hooke's law, F = ke where F is the applied force

We are to get the extension when a force of 15N is applied to the original length of the material.

e = F/k

e = 15/661.16

e = 0.02 m (to 1 d.p)

This means that the natural length of the spring will be stretched by 0.02 m when a force of 15N is applied to it.

Answer:

The  pressure at point 2 is [tex]P_2 = 254.01 kPa[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The speed at point 1  is  [tex]v_1 = 3.57 \ m/s[/tex]

   The  gauge pressure at point 1  is  [tex]P_1 = 68.7kPa = 68.7*10^{3}\ Pa[/tex]

    The density of water is  [tex]\rho = 1000 \ kg/m^3[/tex]

Let the  height at point 1 be  [tex]h_1[/tex] then the height at point two will be

      [tex]h_2 = h_1 - 18.5[/tex]

Let the  diameter at point 1 be  [tex]d_1[/tex] then the diameter at point two will be

      [tex]d_2 = 2 * d_1[/tex]

Now the continuity equation is mathematically represented as  

         [tex]A_1 v_1 = A_2 v_2[/tex]

Here [tex]A_1 , A_2[/tex]  are the area at point 1 and 2

    Now given that the are is directly proportional to the square of the diameter [i.e [tex]A= \frac{\pi d^2}{4}[/tex]]

   which can represent as

             [tex]A \ \ \alpha \ \ d^2[/tex]

=>         [tex]A = c d^2[/tex]

where c is a constant

  so      [tex]\frac{A_1}{d_1^2} = \frac{A_2}{d_2^2}[/tex]

=>          [tex]\frac{A_1}{d_1^2} = \frac{A_2}{4d_1^2}[/tex]

=>        [tex]A_2 = 4 A_1[/tex]

Now from the continuity equation

        [tex]A_1 v_1 = 4 A_1 v_2[/tex]

=>     [tex]v_2 = \frac{v_1}{4}[/tex]

=>     [tex]v_2 = \frac{3.57}{4}[/tex]

       [tex]v_2 = 0.893 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the Bernoulli equation is mathematically represented as

       [tex]P_1 + \frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2 + \rho * g * h_1 = P_2 + \frac{1}{2} \rho v_2^2 + \rho * g * h_2[/tex]

So  

         [tex]P_2 = \rho * g (h_1 -h_2 )+P_1 + \frac{1}{2} * \rho (v_1^2 -v_2 ^2 )[/tex]  

=>    [tex]P_2 = \rho * g (h_1 -(h_1 -18.3) + P_1 + \frac{1}{2} * \rho (v_1^2 -v_2 ^2 )[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]P_2 = 1000 * 9.8 (18.3) )+ 68.7*10^{3} + \frac{1}{2} * 1000 ((3.57)^2 -0.893 ^2 )[/tex]

       [tex]P_2 = 254.01 kPa[/tex]

Answer:

The meaning of the integral (120, 60)∫ |v(t)| dt is simply the distance covered by the particle from time t = 60 seconds to time t = 120 seconds

Explanation:

We are told that the particle moves back and forth along a straight line with velocity v(t).

Now, velocity is the rate of change of distance with time. Thus, the integral of velocity of a particle with respect to time will simply be the distance covered by the particle.

Thus, the meaning of the integral (120, 60)∫ |v(t)| dt is simply the distance covered by the particle from time t = 60 seconds to time t = 120 seconds

Answer:

Explanation:

Kinetic energy is expressed as KE = 1/2 mv² where;

m is the mass of the body

v is the velocity of the body.

For the heavier shell;

m = 5kg

KE gained = 100J

Substituting this values into the formula above to get the velocity v;

100 = 1/2 * 5 * v²

5v² = 200

v² = 200/5

v² = 40

v = √40

v = 6.32 m/s

Note that after the explosion, both body fragments will possess the same velocity.

For the lighter shell;

mass = 2.0kg and v = 6.32m/s

KE of the lighter shell = 1/2 * 2 * 6.32²

KE of the lighter shell = 6.32²

KE of the lighter shell= 39.94m/s

Hence, the lighter one gains a kinetic energy of 39.94m/s.

The gain in the kinetic energy of the smaller fragment is 249.64 J.

The given parameters;

The velocity of the heavier fragment is calculated as follows;

[tex]K.E = \frac{1}{2} mv^2\\\\mv^2 = 2K.E\\\\v^2 = \frac{2K.E}{m} \\\\v= \sqrt{\frac{2K.E}{m} } \\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 100}{5} }\\\\v = 6.32 \ m/s[/tex]

Apply the principle of conservation of linear momentum to determine the velocity of the smaller fragment as;

[tex]m_1 u_1 + m_2 u_2 = v(m_1 + m_2)\\\\-6.32(5) \ + 2u_2 = 0(7)\\\\-31.6 + 2u_2 = 0\\\\2u_2 = 31.6\\\\u_2 = \frac{31.6}{2} \\\\u_2 = 15.8 \ m/s[/tex]

The gain in the kinetic energy of the smaller fragment is calculated as follows;

[tex]K.E_2 = \frac{1}{2} mu_2^2\\\\K.E_2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times (15.8)^2\\\\K.E_2 = 249.64 \ J[/tex]

Thus, the gain in the kinetic energy of the smaller fragment is 249.64 J.

Learn more about conservation of linear momentum here: https://brainly.com/question/7538238

Answer:

Nails are made of iron. Iron consists of 26 protons and 26 electrons. protons are positively charged and electrons are negatively charged, so this force of attraction keeps the electrons together.

If electrons repel from each other, the positively charge protons and nucleus allow them to move in a definite orbit and prevent them flying out of the nail.

Answer:

The current in the small radius loop must be 0.9677 A

Explanation:

Recall that the formula for the magnetic field at the center of a loop of radius R which runs a current I, is given by:

[tex]B=\mu_0\,\frac{I}{2\,R}[/tex]

therefore for the first loop in the problem, that magnetic field strength is:

[tex]B=\mu_0\,\frac{I}{2\,R} =\mu_0\,\frac{3}{2\,(0.093)} =16.129\,\mu_{0}\,[/tex]

with the direction of the magnetic field towards the plane.

For the second smaller loop of wire, since the current goes counterclockwise, the magnetic field will be pointing coming out of the plane, and will subtract from the othe field. In order to the addition of these two magnetic fields to be zero, the magnitudes of them have to be equal, that is:

[tex]16.129\,\,\mu_{0}=\mu_0\,\frac{I'}{2\,R'} =\mu_{0}\,\frac{I'}{2\,(0.03)} \\I'=16.129\,(2)\,(0.03)=0.9677\,\,Amps[/tex]

Answer:

The impulse is 2145 kg-m/s

The final velocity is -8.34 m/s or 8.34 m/s in he opposite direction.

Explanation:

Force on the rail = 3900 N

Elapsed time of impact = 0.55 s

Impulse is the product of force and the time elapsed on impact

I = Ft

I is the impulse

F is force

t is time

For this case,

Impulse = 3900 x 0.55 = 2145 kg-m/s

If the initial velocity was 2.95 m/s

and mass of car plus driver is 190 kg

neglecting friction, the initial momentum of the car is given as

P = mv1

where P is the momentum

m is the mass of the car and driver

v1 is the initial velocity of the car

initial momentum of the car P = 2.95 x 190 = 560.5 kg-m/s

We know that impulse is equal to the change of momentum, and

change of momentum is initial momentum minus final momentum.

The final momentum = mv2

where v2 is the final momentum of the car.

The problem translates into the equation below

I = mv1 - mv2

imputing values, we have

2145 = 560.5 - 190v2

solving, we have

2145 - 560.5 = -190v2

1584.5 = -190v2

v2 = -1584.5/190 = -8.34 m/s

Answer:

a

  [tex]\phi = 1.78 *10^{-7} \ Weber[/tex]

b

 [tex]L = 1.183 *10^{-7} \ H[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The radius is  [tex]r = 6 \ cm = \frac{6}{100} = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

   The current it carries is  [tex]I = 1.50 \ A[/tex]

The  magnetic flux of the coil is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\phi = B * A[/tex]

Where  B is the  magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

         [tex]B = \frac{\mu_o * I}{2 * r}[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the magnetic field with a constant value  [tex]\mu_o = 4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

substituting  value

          [tex]B = \frac{4\pi * 10^{-7} * 1.50 }{2 * 0.06}[/tex]

          [tex]B = 1.571 *10^{-5} \ T[/tex]

The area A is mathematically evaluated as

       [tex]A = \pi r ^2[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]A = 3.142 * (0.06)^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 0.0113 m^2[/tex]

the magnetic flux is mathematically evaluated as    

        [tex]\phi = 1.571 *10^{-5} * 0.0113[/tex]

         [tex]\phi = 1.78 *10^{-7} \ Weber[/tex]

The self-inductance is evaluated as

       [tex]L = \frac{\phi }{I}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]L = \frac{1.78 *10^{-7} }{1.50 }[/tex]

         [tex]L = 1.183 *10^{-7} \ H[/tex]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The wavelength is   [tex]\lambda= \frac{2 \pi }{k}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

      The electric field is [tex]\= E = E_o sin (kx - wt )\r j[/tex]

       The magnetic field is  [tex]\= B = B_0 sin (kx -wt) \r k[/tex]

From the above equation

and  k is the wave number which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]k = \frac{2 \pi }{\lambda }[/tex]

=>     [tex]\lambda= \frac{2 \pi }{k}[/tex]

Where [tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength

Answer:

Explanation:

1 ) Average power supplied to an inductor is zero because the phase difference of potential and current is π / 2 .

So it is a wrong statement .

2 ) Step up transformer increases the voltage . At high voltage , lesser current is required to transport electrical energy . When current is reduced , the loss of energy due to heating effect is reduced .

3 ) voltage and current are in phase in resistance  in ac .

3 ) RMS stands for Root Mean Square .

Answer:

3.77x10^-5T

Explanation:

Magnetic field at center of the loop is given as

B=uo*I/2r =(4pi*10-7)*6/2*0.1

B=3.77*10-5Tor 37.7 uTi

Answer:

The moment of inertial of the wheel,  [tex]I = 8(\frac{1}{3}M_sL^2 ) + M_rL^2[/tex]

Explanation:

Given;

8 spokes of uniform diameter

mass of each spoke, = [tex]M_s[/tex]

length of each spoke, = L

mass of outer ring, = [tex]M_r[/tex]

The moment of inertial of the wheel will be calculated as;

[tex]I = 8I_{spoke} + I_{ring}[/tex]

where;

[tex]I_{spoke[/tex] is the moment of inertia of each spoke

[tex]I_{ring[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the rim

Moment of inertia of each spoke [tex]=\frac{1}{3}M_sL^2[/tex]

Moment of inertial of the wheel

[tex]I = 8(\frac{1}{3}M_sL^2 ) + M_rL^2[/tex]

Answer:

Since their wings and body develop the drag. When there is warm air then they expand their wings. Since,soaring birds and glider pilots have no engine, they always maintain their high speed to lift their weight in air for hours without expending power by convection

Explanation:

Answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic field is 55μT

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the solenoid per length, n = N/L = 1500 turns/m

current in the solenoid, I = 20 mA = 20 x 10⁻³ A

diameter of the solenoid, d = 4 cm = 0.04 m

The magnetic field at a point that is inside the solenoid;

B₁ = μ₀nI

Where;

μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A

B₁ = 4π x 10⁻⁷ x 1500 x 20 x 10⁻³

B₁ = 3.77 x 10⁻⁵ T

Given;

current in the wire, I = 2 A

distance of magnetic field from the wire, r = 1 cm = 0.01 m

The magnetic field at 1.0 cm from the wire;

[tex]B_2 = \frac{\mu_0I}{2\pi r} \\\\B_2 = \frac{4\pi*10^{-7}*2}{2\pi *0.01}\\\\B_2 = 4 *10^{-5} \ T[/tex]

The magnitude of the magnetic field;

[tex]B = \sqrt{B_1^2 +B_2^2} \\\\B = \sqrt{(3.77*10^{-5})^2 + (4*10^{-5})^2} \\\\B = 5.5 *10^{-5} \ T\\\\B = 55 \mu T[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 55μT

The magnitude of the magnetic field at a point that is inside the solenoid and 1.0 cm from the wire is [tex]5.5 \times 10^{-5}T[/tex]

Given the following parameters from the question  

The magnetic field at a point that is inside the solenoid is expressed according to the formula;  

Where;  

μ₀ is the permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A  

B₁ = 4π x 10⁻⁷ x 1500 x 20 x 10⁻³  

B₁ = 3.77 x 10⁻⁵ T

Next is to get the magnetic field strength in the second wire.

Substitute into the formula:

[tex]B_2=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi r} \\B_2=\frac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 2}{2 \times 3.14\times 0.01} \\B_2 =4.0 \times 10^{-5}T[/tex]

Get the resultant magnetic field:

[tex]B = \sqrt{(0.00003771)^2+(0.00004)^2} \\B =5.5 \times 10^{-7}T[/tex]

Therefore the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point that is inside the solenoid and 1.0 cm from the wire is [tex]5.5 \times 10^{-5}T[/tex]

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Answer:

a

The  speed of  wave is   [tex]v_1 = 129.1 \ m/s[/tex]

b

The new speed of the two waves is [tex]v = 129.1 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The mass of the string is  [tex]m = 60 \ g = 60 *10^{-3} \ kg[/tex]

    The length is  [tex]l = 2.0 \ m[/tex]

    The tension is  [tex]T = 500 \ N[/tex]

Now the velocity of the first wave is mathematically represented as

     [tex]v_1 = \sqrt{ \frac{T}{\mu} }[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu[/tex] is the linear density which is mathematically represented as

      [tex]\mu = \frac{m}{l}[/tex]

substituting values    

     [tex]\mu = \frac{ 60 *10^{-3}}{2.0 }[/tex]

     [tex]\mu = 0.03\ kg/m[/tex]

So

   [tex]v_1 = \sqrt{ \frac{500}{0.03} }[/tex]

   [tex]v_1 = 129.1 \ m/s[/tex]

Now given that the Tension, mass and length are constant the velocity of the second wave will same as that of first wave (reference PHYS 1100 )

Answer:

Explanation:

moment of inertia of satellite I = 1/2 m R²

m is mass and R is radius of the disc

I = 0.5 x 8.5 x 0.8²

= 2.72 kg m²

angular acceleration α = change in angular velocity / time

α = (14.5 - 0) / 30

α = .48333

Let force of each rocket = F

torque created by one rocket = F x R

= F x .8

Torque created by 4 rockets = 4 x .8 F = 3.2 F

3.2 F = I x α

3.2 F =  2.72 x   .48333

F = 0 .41 N

Answer:

a) 24.4 Ω

b) 4.92 A

c) 495.9 W

d)

c. It will be larger. The resistance will be smaller so the current drawn will increase, increasing the power.

Explanation:

b)

The formula for power is:

P = IV

where,

P = Power of heater = 590 W

V = Voltage it takes = 120 V

I = Current Drawn = ?

Therefore,

590 W = (I)(120 V)

I = 590 W/120 V

I = 4.92 A

a)

From Ohm's Law:

V = IR

R = V/I

Therefore,

R = 120 V/4.92 A

R = 24.4 Ω

c)

For constant resistance and 110 V the power becomes:

P = V²/R

Therefore,

P = (110 V)²/24.4 Ω

P = 495.9 W

d)

If the resistance decreases, it will increase the current according to Ohm's Law. As a result of increase in current the power shall increase according to formula (P = VI). Therefore, correct option is:

c. It will be larger. The resistance will be smaller so the current drawn will increase, increasing the power.

Answer:

966 N

Explanation:

For computing the component of the weight we first need to compute the object weight which is shown below:

Weight = (115 kg)(9.8 m/s²)

= 1,127 N

Now the weight of the box along the surface with an angle of 59 is

= (1,127 N) (sin 59 degree)

= 966 N

Hence, the weight component of the box along the surface is 966 N

Answer:

The temperature of the filament when the flashlight is on is 2020 °C.

Explanation:

The resistivity varies linearly with temperature:

[tex] R = R_{0}[1 + \alpha*(T-T_{0})] [/tex]   (1)

Where:

T: is the temperature of the filament when the flashlight is on=?

T₀: is the initial temperature = 20 °C

α: is the temperature coefficient of resistance = 0.0045 °C⁻¹ 

R₀: is the resistance at T₀ = 1.5 Ω    

When V = 3.0 V, R is:

[tex]R = \frac{V}{I} = \frac{3.0 V}{0.20 A} = 15 \Omega[/tex]

By solving equation (1) for T we have:

[tex]T = \frac{R-R_{0}}{\alpha*R_{0}} + T_{0} = \frac{15-1.5}{0.0045*1.5} + 20 = 2020 ^{\circ} C[/tex]

Therefore, the temperature of the filament when the flashlight is on is 2020 °C.

I hope it helps you!            

Answer:

v=54-6t^2, 54-6 (9)=0

Answer:

the phase relationship between two waves.

Explanation:

Coherence describes all properties of the correlation between physical quantities between waves. It is an ideal property of waves that determines their interference. In a situation in which there is a correlation or phase relationship between two waves. If the properties of one of the waves can be measure directly, then, some of the properties of the other wave can be calculated.

Answer:

vi = 19.6 m/s

Explanation:

Given:

final velocity vf = 0

gravity a = -9.8

time t = 1

Initial velocity vi = vf - at

vi = 0 + 9.8 (1.0)

vi = 9.8 m/s

the y component of velocity is the initial velocity.

therefore v sin 30 = 9.8

vi/2 = 9.8

vi = 19.6 m/s

A tennis ball is thrown from ground level with velocity v0 directed 30 degrees above the horizontal. If it takes the ball 1.0s to reach the top of its trajectory, the magnitude of the initial velocity vi = 19.62 m/s.

Given data to find the initial velocity,

final velocity vf = 0

gravity a = -9.8

time t = 1

The motion of the tennis ball on the vertical axis is an uniformly accelerated motion, with deceleration of  (gravitational acceleration).

The component of the velocity on the y-axis is given by the following law:

Initial velocity vi = vf - at

At the time t=0.5 s, the ball reaches its maximum height, and when this happens, the vertical velocity is zero (because it is a parabolic motion), Substituting into the previous equation, we find the initial value of the vertical component of the velocity:

vi = 0 + 9.8 (1.0)

vi = 9.8 m/s

the y component of velocity is the initial velocity.

However, this is not the final answer. In fact, the ball starts its trajectory with an angle of 30°. This means that the vertical component of the initial velocity is,

therefore, v sin 30° = 9.8

We found before the value of y component, so we can substitute to find the initial speed of the ball:

vi/2 = 9.8

vi = 19.6 m/s

Thus, the initial velocity can be found as 19.62 m/s.

Learn more about deceleration,

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#SPJ2

Answer: it is easier to read in bright light than dim light.

Explanation:

The ray of light is the direction that is used by light in travelling through a medium. Rays that pass through a lens very close to the principle axis are more sharply focused than those that are very far from the axis.

Because of the fact that the rays are close to the principle axis, the spherical aberration helps us to understand the reason why it is easier for people to read in bright light than readin iin dim light.

Answer:

The rate at which the magnetic field changes is  [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - 5.33*10^{-3} \ T/ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  electric field strength is [tex]E = 4.0 mV/m = 4.0 *10^{-3} V/m[/tex]

   The  radius of the  circular region where the electric field is induced is

   [tex]d = 1.5 \ m[/tex]

Generally the induced electric field is mathematically represented as

     [tex]E = - \frac{r}{2} * \frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t }[/tex]

The  negative sign show that the induced electric field is acting in opposite direction to the change in magnetic field

Where  [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t }[/tex] is the change in magnetic field

So  

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - \frac{2 * E }{r}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - \frac{2 * 4.0 *10^{-3}}{ 1.5 }[/tex]

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - 5.33*10^{-3} \ T/ s[/tex]

Answer:

I believe it is 91

Explanation:

Answer:

- 3.3571

Explanation:

the negative sign means there were moving from right to left

The total momentum of a colliding system is constant always. Therefore, by using this concept, the final velocity of the coupled mass will be - 3.3 m/s.

Momentum of an object is the ability of an object to bring the force applied to make a maximum displacement. It is the product of its mass and velocity. Momentum is a vector quantity. It have both magnitude and direction.

The momentum in a collision is conserved. Thus total initial momentum is equal to the final momentum. Let m1 and m2 be the colliding masses and the u and v be the initial and final velocity.

Then, m1 u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v for a coupled mass after collision.

then final velocity v =  ( m1 u1 + m2u2 )/ (m1 + m2)

Apply the given values in the equation as follows:

v = (15 kg ×1.5 m/s + 6 kg× (-15.5 m/s)) (15 +6) = -3.3 m/s

Therefore, the final velocity of the coupled masses after collision is  -3.3 m/s.

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