Self-help groups such as AA help their members by providing recovery from alcoholism for the people who are unable to do so.
According to a study conducted by the Stanford School of medicine, alcoholic abstinence is the most effective pathway to abstinence. AA, an abbreviation used for alcoholic abstinence, is international mutual aid, a 12-step program. When followed strictly, this program proves better than any other clinical administration and medication.
The twelve steps of the AA program are determined to suggest self-improvement by initially admitting the person who is not able to control his alcoholic urges. Then the person is acknowledged with the adversities of alcohol- how it affects social, mental, and physical well-being. The treatment for this adversity is then followed by some strict rules over alcoholism and regular meditations.
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a client taking buspirone hydrochloride for 1 month is scheduled for a follow-up appointment. the nurse gathers data from the client and interprets that the medication is effective if the client reports an absence of which sign/symptom?
A client taking buspirone hydrochloride for 1 month is scheduled for a follow-up appointment. the nurse gathers data from the client and interprets that the medication is effective if the client reports an absence of sign/symptom Palpitations and anxiety.
Thus option 3 is correct.
what are the function of buspirone hydrochloride ?Buspirone is an anti-anxiety, anti-psycotic medicine which act on the brain of the unbalanced in people with anxiety, used to treat symptoms of anxiety like fear, tension, irritability, dizziness, pounding heartbeat etc.
This medication help to think more clearly, relax and take part in everyday life, make you less jittery and irritable, and may control symptoms such as trouble sleeping, sweating, and pounding heartbeat.
Buspirone is mainly works by affecting certain natural substances in the brain neurotransmitters. Thus option 3 is correct.
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Your question was incomplete, thus the probable question is
A client taking buspirone hydrochloride for 1 month is scheduled for a follow-up appointment. The nurse gathers data from the client and interprets that the medication is effective if the client reports an absence of which?
1. Delusions
2. Paranoid thoughts
3. Palpitations and anxiety
4. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms
the nurse is caring for an adult client who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. what actions should the nurse encourage the client to perform? select all that apply.
The nurse should encourage the client who has undergone chemotherapy to:
Use a lip lubricantUse dental floss every 24 hoursRinse the mouth with normal saline.What is chemotherapy?Chemotherapy is a form of cancer treatment which uses one or more ant-cancer drugs to treat cancer.
Chemotherapy is used to treat cancer.
Due to the high doses of drugs treated at the cancer cells, chemotherapy usually have the effect of lowering the patient's immunity making them susceptible to diseases.
Therefore some side effects may occur as in the case of the patient who developed mild oral yeast.
In order to clear the mild oral yeast infection and to prevent further growth of the yeast cells, the nurse may recommend the following remedies:
Use a lip lubricantUse dental floss every 24 hoursRinse the mouth with normal saline.In conclusion, chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancers.
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Note that the complete question is:
You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply.
A) Use a lip lubricant.
B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush.
C) Use dental floss every 24 hours.
D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline.
E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.
A drug is named dl-threo-2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-ol, but is commonly know as Sudafed®. Which best describes the name dl-threo-2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-ol?
A. This is the chemical name and it was termed by the FDA.
B. This is the chemical name and it was termed by the IUPAC.
C. This is the national drug code and it was assigned by the FDA.
D. This is the national drug code and it was assigned by the IUPAC.
The best description of the name dl-threo-2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-ol is the national drug code and it was assigned by the FDA. Thus, option C is correct.
What are drugs?Drugs are defined as the substance except food that has been used to treat, or prevent, as well as relieve symptoms of a particular disease or condition that is abnormal.
The drugs can affect the function of brain as well as other parts parts of the body that leads to mood swings, feelings, awareness, thoughts and behavior. There are several categories of drugs and these are inhalants, narcotic analgesics, and CNS stimulants.
Therefore, The best description of the name dl-threo-2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-ol is the national drug code and it was assigned by the FDA. Thus, option C is correct.
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unfractionated heparin tid dosing regimen is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism when compared to bid dosing in patients undergoing craniotomy
When compared to bid dosage, unfractionated heparin TID dosing to patients having craniotomies is associated with a lower rate of pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
Background:
The post-operative history of individuals who have had a craniotomy may be complicated by pulmonary embolism (PE). Unfractionated heparin (UFH) prophylaxis has been demonstrated to lower VTE rates; however, twice-daily (BID) and three-times-daily (TID) UFH dose regimens have not been contrasted in neurosurgical procedures.
Methods:
For 159 patients at Northwestern, a retrospective evaluation of their medical records was done. While controlling for age at surgery, sex, prior VTE history, craniotomy for tumor resection, surgery duration, length of stay, reoperation, infections, and IDH/MGMT mutations, general linear regression models were used to predict rates of DVT, PE, and reoperation due to bleeding from UFH dosing regimens.
Results:
In comparison to getting UFH BID, receiving UFH TID was significantly related with a decreased risk of PE ( = -0.121, P = 0.044; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 10.6%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID also shown a tendency for reduced DVT rates ( = -0.0893, P = 0.295; TID rate = 18.5%, BID rate = 21.2%). When compared to UFH BID, UFH TID revealed no discernible difference in the rate of reoperation for bleeding ( = -0.00623, P = 0.725; TID rate = 0%, BID rate = 0.8%).
Conclusions:
Unfractionated heparin administered to individuals undergoing craniotomies on a daily basis as opposed to a weekly one is linked to a lower risk of pulmonary embolism.
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a nurse is providing teaching to a client who's being discharged after delivering a hydatidiform mole. which expected outcome takes highest priority for this client?
Answer:
The expected outcome that takes highest priority for this client is that they understand the importance of follow-up appointments.
Explanation:
We know this is the answer because, although a mole can be dangerous, it is not life-threatening and so the client's understanding of the importance of follow-up appointments is more important than anything else.
a nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin ethylsuccinate 50 mg/kg/day po divided in equal doses every 6 hr to a toddler who weighs 32 lb. available is erythromycin ethylsuccinate suspension 200 mg/5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 4.5 ml per dose.
What is erythromycin ethyl succinate?
A prescription drug called erythromycin ethyl succinate is used to treat the symptoms of numerous bacterial infections. You can use erythromycin ethyl succinate by itself or in combination with other drugs. The medicine Erythromycin Ethyl succinate is a member of the Macrolide drug class.
Here,
According t the given data given in the question:
2.2 lb/kg x 32 lb = 14.54kg
50 mg/kg x 14.54 kg = 727.27mg
727.27 mg / 4 (Q6H) = 181.81 mg
200 mg/5ml x 181.81 mg = 4.54 mL
Therefore, the answer is 4.54 ml.
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to get the best results when working out, it is a good idea to evaluate your starting point and to track your progress from there. what are some basic assessments and measurements that you can take to get started on your fitness routine? these can include exercises as well as body measurements. << read less
"You should weigh and measure yourself." is one if the basic assessments and measurements that you can take to get started on your fitness routine.
It's critical to measure your progress while beginning an exercise program so that you can determine when your goal has been reached. If your aim is to lose weight, you should weigh and measure yourself when you first begin so that you may contrast your initial results with your final ones.
If your major objectives are strength and endurance, it would be beneficial to compare your results from various fitness tests before you begin your training program and again once you have finished it to see how far you have come. By doing this, you will always be able to identify your objectives and decide where to start.
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a client has been diagnosed with a heart attack and has been placed on beta-blockers to reduce the workload on the heart, as well as a statin drug and a low-fat diet to lower cholesterol. which level of prevention of disease would these therapies be classified?
A client has been diagnosed with a heart attack and has been placed on beta-blockers to reduce the workload on the heart, as well as a statin drug and a low-fat diet to lower cholesterol. These therapies would be classified as Primary and tertiary level of prevention of disease.
What is a Heart attack?When the blood supply to the heart is significantly constrained or blocked, a heart attack takes place.
The clogging of the heart’s (coronary) arteries is frequently caused by the accumulation of fat, cholesterol, and other substances. The fatty, cholesterol-rich growths are called plaques.
Atherosclerosis is the name for the accumulation of plaque. Rarely, a plaque may rupture, resulting in the formation of a clot and the obstruction of blood flow.
A section of the heart muscle might be harmed or even destroyed by a decrease in blood flow. Myocardial infarction is another name for a heart attack.
Treatment must be received right away if someone is to survive a heart attack. If you think you’re experiencing a heart attack, call 911 or get medical help right away.
Symptoms of a heart attack might vary. Some people experience mild symptoms. Others exhibit severe symptoms. Some people don’t exhibit any symptoms.
What are beta blockers?The primary uses of the beta blocker pharmacological class, which is frequently abbreviated as “blockers,” are the treatment of irregular heartbeats and the prevention of subsequent heart attacks.
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for a pediatric patient with a methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) infection, which discharge instruction should you provide for the patient and caregivers?
Answer:
Do not touch the wound - very easily spread by contact
Explanation:
See https://www.uptodate.com/contents/methicillin-resistant-staphylococcus-aureus-mrsa-beyond-the-basics
the nurse is admitting a client who just had a bronchoscopy. which assessment should be the nurse's priority?
The assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is Swallow reflex
Swallow reflex is a healthcare process which aids to propel swallowing food bolus from the oral cavity to the esophagus without aspiration of food into the airways.
BronchoscopyIn the healthcare management, bronchoscopy is one of the procedures or technique which is used to view the airways deep inside respiratory system.
This bronchoscopy is usually, frequently and most of the time carried out in order to diagnose health conditions within the respiratory system and for therapeutic purposes
So therefore, the assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is swallow reflex
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32. a young child with leukemia has anorexia and severe stomatitis. the nurse should suggest that the parents try which intervention? a. relax any eating pressures. b. firmly insist that child eat normally. c. begin gavage feedings to supplement diet. d. serve foods that are either hot or cold.
A young child with leukemia has anorexia and severe stomatitis. The nurse should suggest that the parents try the intervention (a) relax any eating pressures.
Leukemia is the cancer of blood. It is a broad term covering several types of blood cancers. The first symptoms of leukemia are very general like: fever or chills, persistent fatigue, weakness, frequent infections, losing weight, etc.
Anorexia is the eating disorder where the patient becomes extra cautious of gaining weight. the person may even have an inadequate diet to avoid weight gain. The person has abnormally low weight, weakness, low blood count, insomnia, etc.
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a client who is homeless and diagnosed with bipolar disorder presents to the clinic for a follow-up visit and a nurse begins the assessment. which observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention?
POSSIBLE OBSERVATIONS:
1. Having a great mood: manic or hypomanic state
2. Depression
3. Irritability
4. Impulsiveness or erratic behavior
5. Rapid or slowed speech
6. Alcohol or drug abuse
7. Trouble at work
8. Racing thoughts
9. Memory or concentration problems:
10. Severe fatigue
11. Insomnia and sleep problems
observation by the nurse manager warrants immediate intervention
are severe fatigue, Rapid or slowed speech
Explanation:
WHAT IS BIPOLAR DISORDER?
Manic depression, formerly known as bipolar disorder, is a mental health illness that results in sharp mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania), and lows (depression).
HUDDEN CLIENT:
According to numerous studies, one-third of those who are homeless suffer from a severe mental disease, most frequently schizophrenia or bipolar disorder. Homeless women and those who experience chronic homelessness are more likely to suffer from mental illness.
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2. What is an example of an illness or disease that is transmitted by airborne transmission?
O
O
O
O
O
O
O
HIV
O
O
O
O
Common cold
3. Transmission of infectious agents within healthcare requires a certain sequencing of elements that allows infection to occur. What is this called?
Chain of command
Chain of infection
Chain of transmission
Chain of liness
Tuberculosis
O
O
MRSA
4. Which of the following is an appropriate guideline for maintaining safety when using sharps?
Activating the safety mechanism immediately after use
Bending or removing needles before disposing of them
Emptying small sharps containers into larger containers when full
Picking up broken glass with gloved hands
5. Breaking the chain of infection is critical to stopping the spread of infectious organisms.
True
False
Answer:
2. Common Cold
3. Chain of Infection
4. Activating the safety mechanism immediately after use
5. True
a client with bladder cancer is receiving cisplatin and vincristine. the nurse plans care, knowing that which is the purpose of administering both of these medications?
When cells start making up the urinary bladder start to grow out of control is called Bladder cancer.
The bladder is a hollow organ in the lower pelvis. Its main function is to store urine.
What is Bladder cancer?
Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC) is also known as Urothelial carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer.Other types of bladder cancer can start in the bladder, but these are not common than Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC).Most bladder starts in the innermost lining of bladder.However, cancer might spread outside the bladder too.To learn more about Bladder cancer
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If vaccination for meningococcal meningitis is required of all entering college students, this would be an example of which type of intervention?.
Preventive intervention is an example of the use of a meningococcal meningitis vaccine which is required of all entering college students in this type of scenario.
What is Preventive intervention?
This is referred to as the type of action which is directed at a population when they are not suffering discomfort or any illness at that particular point in time.
This is used to prevent incidences of sicknesses or diseases and different types of vaccines which are made are the examples of preventive intervention or medicine which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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Jo is training a new administrative medical assistant. Which of the following will Jo mention as a procedure that is to be followed both while closing and opening the office? Question content area bottom Part 1 A. tracking appointment status B. explaining payment policies to patients C. counting the cash box by two staff members in each other's presence D. signing in and registering new patients
The procedure that Jo will mention to the new administrative medical assistant that is to be followed both while closing and opening the office is:
signing in and registering new patients; option D.Who is an administrative medical assistant?A medical administrative assistant is responsible for providing clerical support to doctors, nurses, and other health professionals by performing various tasks such as scheduling appointments, filing documents, preparing reports, taking care of billing, and answering phones.
The various duties of an administrative medical assistant include
Checking patients in at the front desk.Answering the phone.Scheduling appointments.Interviewing patients for case histories and key information prior to appointments.Compiling medical records and charts.Processing insurance paymentsJo will mention to the new administrative medical assistant that a procedure to follow while closing and opening the office is signing in and registering new patients.
In conclusion, an administrative medical assistant is responsible for managing the front desk operations of a healthcare facility to ensure its smooth operations.
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the nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community. which aspect is this addressing? context education resources time pressure
Clinical judgment is the ability to recognize a problem through evaluation, to pay attention to the patient (patient contact), and to act in the patient's best interests.
What is a clinical judgment model?A methodology for the precise assessment of clinical judgment and decision-making in the context of a high-stakes, standardized test.
Practice, experience, information, and ongoing critical analysis all contribute to the development of clinical judgment.
It encompasses all aspect of medicine, including diagnosis, treatment, communication, and decision-making.
Therefore, A clinical judgment model involves the gradual accumulation of knowledge and skills.
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which behavior by a preschool child indicates to the nurse that the child is in the appropriate stage of growth and development?
The behaviour related to creative play study, indicate to the nurse that the child is in appropriate stage of growth and development.
Preschool can inspire a lot of creativity. Drama, music, dance, art, and craft are all excellent learning and development tools during these formative years.
Creative study have following benefits to the prescholars.
cultivate your creativity and imaginationcreate confidence and improve in expressing emotionsexchange ideas, opinions, or experiences.enhance hand-eye coordination, and motor skills in the body. Practice making decisions, solving problems, and exercising critical thought.To know more about motor skills, refer this link
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the nurse is assessing a newborn by auscultating the heart and lungs. which natural phenomenon will the nurse explain to the parents is happening in the cardiovascular system?
The nurse assesses a newborn by auscultating the heart and lungs. The nurse will explain to the parents that Pressure changes occurred and result in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.
What is Ductus Arteriosus?
The patent ductus arteriosus is a persistent opening between the two major blood vessels that emerge from the heart (PDA). After delivery, the ductus arteriosus, a typical opening in a baby’s circulatory system while in the womb, frequently shuts.
If it remains open, it is referred to as a patent ductus arteriosus. Small patent ductus arteriosus typically causes no problems and may never need to be treated.
A large patent ductus arteriosus, which permits blood with low oxygen levels to flow in the wrong way, can weaken the heart muscle, cause heart failure, and other problems if left untreated.
Cardiovascular catheterization, medication, monitoring, or surgery to close a patent ductus arteriosus are all possible treatments.
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A client with depression receiving phenelzine sulfate suddenly complains of a severe headache and neck stiffness and soreness and then begins to vomit. The nurse takes the client's blood pressure and notes that it is 210/102 mm hg. On the basis of the findings, the nurse should obtain which medication from the emergency drawer of the medication cart?
A client with depression receiving phenelzine sulfate suddenly complains of a severe headache and neck stiffness as well as soreness and then begins to vomit, the nurse should obtain phentolamine medication from the emergency drawer of the medication cart.
The nurse should obtain phentolamine medication immediately from the emergency drawer of the medication cart because it competitively inhibits alpha-adrenergic receptors, which are largely excitatory responses in smooth muscle and exocrine glands, phentolamine exerts its therapeutic effects. This results in a relaxing of the muscles and dilation of the blood vessels so that this can be applied to the client.
The inhibiting effect of phentolamine on alpha-adrenergic receptors is only partially effective and rather brief. The medication is more effective at antagonizing responses to mediators produced at the adrenergic nerve ending than it is at antagonizing responses to circulating epinephrine and/or norepinephrine.
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a client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?
If the emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer. The nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: b. Fear.
What is nerve-sparing prostatectomy?Nerve-sparing prostatectomy can be defined as a surgery carried out by a surgeon in which a patient prostate is removed and this procedure is done so as to prevent prostate cancer which can be deadly.
Fear occur when a person is anxious, scared or frightening about known and unknown issues or situation.
Based on the scenario the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is fear based on the fact that the patient is scared or afraid to carryout the surgery which is why the client does not want to talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery.
Therefore the nursing diagnosis that the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client is: Fear.
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The complete question is:
A client is scheduled for a nerve-sparing prostatectomy. The emotional spouse confides in the nurse that the client will not talk about the cancer and/or upcoming surgery. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose as primary diagnosis for this client?
A) Sexual Dysfunction
B) Fear
C) Knowledge Deficit
D) Ineffective Coping
the nurse is initiating a therapeutic relationship with a client. which information would the nurse most likely include when explaining the purpose of this relationship?
The nurse is likely to include facilitating a positive change while explaining the purpose of the therapeutic relationship.
A therapeutic relationship, or therapeutic alliance, refers to the close and consistent association that exists between at least two individuals: a health care professional and a person in therapy.
The purpose of a therapeutic relationship is to assist the individual in therapy to change his or her life for the better. Such a relationship is essential, as it is oftentimes the first setting in which the person receiving treatment shares intimate thoughts, beliefs, and emotions regarding the issue(s) in question.
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operative report preoperative diagnosis:prolapsed vitreous in anterior chamber with corneal edema postoperative diagnosis:same operation performed:anterior vitrectomy the patient is a 72-year-old woman who approximately 10 months ago underwent cataract surgery with a yag laser capsulotomy, developed corneal edema and required a corneal transplant. the patient has done well. over the last few weeks, she developed posterior vitreous detachment with vitreous prolapse to the opening in the posterior capsule with vitreous into the anterior chamber with corneal touch and adhesion to the graft host junction and early corneal edema. the patient is admitted for anterior vitrectomy. procedure: the patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner after first undergoing retrobulbar anesthetic. a lid speculum was inserted. an incision was made at approximately the 10 o’clock meridian 3 mm in length, 2 mm posterior to the limbus, and grooved forward into clear cornea with a 3.2 mm anterior chamber. an anterior vitrectomy was carried out, placing a visco-elastic substance in the anterior chamber to maintain it. a sinskey hook was used to sweep vitreous away from the corneal wound and this was removed with the disposable vitrectomy instrument. the patient’s pupil is noted to be round. there was no vitreous to the wound. the wound self-sealed without aqueous leak. cautery was used to close the conjunctiva. subconjunctival decadron and gentamicin was given. the patient tolerated the procedure well and was discharged to the recovery room in good condition. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?
The surgical diagnostic or diagnoses given to the patient prior to the surgical procedure are documented in the surgical operation note pre-operative diagnosis and serve as the justification for the surgery. According to the surgeon, the preoperative diagnosis is the one that will be verified during operation.
What is Preoperative diagnosis ?The period of time between the decision to have surgery and the start of the surgical procedure is known as the preoperative phase.
What is conjunctiva ?infection or inflammation of the inner eyelid and the outer ocular membrane.
Pink eye, also known as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation or irritation of the conjunctiva, which covers the white portion of the eye. Allergies or a bacterial or viral illness may be to blame. Contact with eye secretions from an infected person can spread conjunctivitis, which can be quite contagious.
Redness, itchiness, and eye tears are symptoms. Additionally, it may cause crusting or discharge around the eyes.If you have conjunctivitis, you should cease wearing contact lenses. Although it frequently gets well on its own, therapy might hasten the healing process. Antihistamines are effective in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis. Antibiotic eye drops can be used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis.What is Retrobulbar anesthetic ?A retrobulbar block is a regional anesthetic nerve block that is administered in the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. The retrobulbar block is created by injecting local anesthetic into this region.
This method involves injecting local anesthetic into the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. By immobilizing cranial nerves II, III, and VI, this injection causes akinesia of the extraocular muscles and stops movement of the glob.
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with respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, hipaa divides health information into three categories. into which category do discussions with family members go? uses or disclosures that generally require oral agreement only. uses or disclosures that generally require specific written authorization. uses or disclosures that can generally occur without any specific permission from the patient.
With respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, hipaa divides health information into three categories, the category in which discussions with family members go to is under
Uses or disclosures that generally require oral agreement only.
The correct answer choice is option a
The purpose of collecting this information is to enhance quality healthcare services
Health informationHealth information can simply be defined as those information gathered about patients with the primary and principal aim of using this information to diagnose and treat patient appropriately.
When patients refuses, to give a false information, it poses a danger or threat to his health conditions which could lead to a greater risk.
However, one of the most important healthcare management is to assess the patient with the right health information
So therefore, With respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, hipaa divides health information into three categories, the category in which discussions with family members go to is under:
Uses or disclosures that generally require oral agreement only.
The correct answer choice is option a
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if a nurse fails to monitor a patient's intravenous (iv) infusion, what complications could develop? (select all that apply.)
If a nurse fails to monitor a patient's intravenous (IV) infusion, complications such as infiltration, clotting in catheter and fluctuation in the amount of IV fluids, could develop.
What is intravenous infusion?A medical procedure known as intravenous infusion , or IV therapy, involves injecting fluids, drugs, and nutrients straight into a patient's vein. For persons who cannot or do not want to eat food or water orally for other reasons, such as diminished mental capacity, the intravenous route of administration is frequently utilized to rehydrate them or to feed them with nutrients.
The complications, which could be developed because of the failure of nurse to monitor a patient's intravenous (IV) infusion includes: -
Patient may experience infiltration.Catheter may clot off.Patient may receive less than the required amount of IV fluids.Patient may receive more than the required amount of IV fluids.To know more about intravenous infusion or IV, go to URL
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the nurse notes that a sleeping newborn’s heart rate is 102 bpm. what action should the nurse take first?
The nurse should document this normal finding of heartbeat of this newborn baby.
What is heartbeat?
The cycle of the heart's muscle contracting, or heartbeat, starts with an electrical impulse in the sinoatrial node, the heart's natural pacemaker.
The nurse should document this normal finding. The heart rate of a newborn usually ranges between 120 and 160 beats per minute (bpm) with normal activity. It can elevate to 180 bpm when they are crying or drop to as low as 100 bpm when they are in deep sleep.
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he nurse is taking care of a 10-year-old child admitted to the unit for a flare-up of sickle cell disease. the child is alert, oriented, cognitively a 10-year-old, and able to verbalize the pain. which pediatric pain assessment scale(s) is appropriate to use with this child?
Scale of Wong-Baker FACES
This scale may be used since the youngster is verbalizing their distress and has mature cognitive functioning.
Connie Baker and Donna Wong created the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale to measure pain. A succession of faces are depicted on the scale, ranging from a smiling face at zero, or "no harm," to a sobbing face at ten, or "hurts like the greatest agony conceivable."Analog visual scale (VAS)To know more about Analog visual scale visit:
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a student nurse is assessing socialization skills in 3-year-old and 4-year-old children. which similar characteristics may be seen in the children of the two different ages?
A nursing student is evaluating the socializing abilities of 3- and 4-year-old kids. What common traits can you observe in kids of the two distinct ages?
What is socializing skills?
Interpersonal or communication skills are other names for social skills or abilities. These are the skills that people have and employ when interacting and communicating with one another. The method of communication may be non-verbal or verbal (spoken or written) (using body language, gestures and facial expressions).
Both are afraid. Children as young as 3 and as old as 4 are terrified. Children as young as 3 years old can play in both parallel and associative ways, whereas children as young as 4 years old can only play associatively. Children who are 4 years old can freely share family stories with others; 3-year-olds cannot. Children who are 5 years old are more motivated to please people than those who are 3 or 4 years old.
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he nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. which would be an expected finding for this client?
Compression of the cord is an expected finding for the client.
When the feet or the bottom of the baby are within the uterus, the baby is said to be breech. During a vaginal delivery, a baby should be positioned such that the head comes out first. By 36 weeks, most breech infants will flip to face forward. While some breech infants can be delivered vaginally, a C-section is often advised.
After the membranes have ruptured, the cord may prolapse, and the pressure of the presenting portion may compress the chord, causing fetal hypoxia. A breech presentation does not increase the risk of bleeding or preeclampsia over a cephalic presentation.
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Question correction:
A nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. For what complication should the
nurse monitor the client?
Hemorrhagic shockIncreased blood pressureCompression of the cordMeconium in the amniotic fluida patient is diagnosed with dementia. there has been an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (csf) volume, but no increase in intracranial pressure. what type of hydrocephalus is this patient demonstrating?
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is the type of hydrocephalus is the patient demonstrating which is caused by increased CSF volume but no increase in intracranial pressure.
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is an abnormal buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the cavities or ventricles of the brain. It occurs when the CSF is unable to pass properly through the brain and spinal cord.
As a result, the ventricles enlarge and push against the brain. Normal pressure hydrocephalus can afflict people of any age, although it most usually affects the elderly. A subarachnoid hemorrhage, a concussion, an infection, a tumor, or issues following surgery might all cause it.
However, many people get NPH even without any of these risk factors. In certain cases, the underlying cause of the condition is unknown.
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