a man carries a harmful sex-linked gene on his x chromosome. who will he pass this on to?

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Answer 1

If a man carries a harmful sex-linked gene on his X chromosome, he will pass this on to his daughters. This is because daughters inherit one X chromosome from each parent, while sons inherit one X chromosome from their mother and one Y chromosome from their father.

Therefore, if the father has the harmful gene on his X chromosome, his daughters have a 50% chance of inheriting it. However, sons have a 50% chance of inheriting the father's normal X chromosome, and a 50% chance of inheriting the father's Y chromosome, which does not carry the harmful gene.

It is important to note that if the father has only sons, the harmful gene will not be passed on to his offspring. Overall, the inheritance of sex-linked genes is a complex process, but understanding it can help individuals make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.

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theus is about to take the bar exam. which lobe of the brain will he be relying on most to do well?

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Theus will be relying mostly on the frontal lobe of his brain. This lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as reasoning, problem-solving, and decision-making, which are crucial for success in the exam.

Theus will be relying on his frontal lobe the most to do well on the bar exam. This lobe is responsible for executive functions such as planning, decision-making, and problem-solving, which are essential for success on a complex and challenging exam like the bar. Additionally, the frontal lobe is involved in attention and concentration, which are also crucial for staying focused during the exam.
To do well on the bar exam, Theus will be relying mostly on the frontal lobe of his brain. This lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as reasoning, problem-solving, and decision-making, which are crucial for success in the exam.

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ppm as used in this laboratory exercise, is not normally used in plant tissue culture research. why might this not be generally for plant tissue culture research? g

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In a laboratory exercise involving plant tissue culture research, the term "ppm" (parts per million) is used to indicate the concentration of a substance in a solution. However, ppm may not be commonly used in plant tissue culture research for several reasons.

First, plant tissue culture research often involves working with cells, tissues, or organs in vitro, and requires precise control of the chemical and physical environment. The concentrations of nutrients, growth regulators, and other substances are typically expressed in molar units, such as millimolar (mM) or micromolar (µM), as these units facilitate easier calculation and understanding of chemical reactions and interactions.

Second, the sensitivity of plant tissues to various substances can vary significantly depending on the species, tissue type, and growth conditions. Expressing concentrations in ppm might not provide the desired level of accuracy or precision required for some experiments. Molar units allow for a more precise representation of concentration, ensuring that the conditions can be accurately replicated and controlled throughout the research process.

Finally, using molar units instead of ppm also aids in the standardization of methodologies and results across different research studies. This standardization facilitates more effective communication among researchers and enables easier comparison of results obtained from various experiments.

In conclusion, while ppm is a unit of concentration, it might not be commonly used in plant tissue culture research due to the need for precision, sensitivity, and standardization in experimental conditions. Instead, molar units such as mM or µM are often preferred for these studies.

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List three types of bone cells and it’s function during ossification

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The three types of bone cells are osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.

1) Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation during the initial stages of ossification. These cells synthesize and secrete the organic matrix of bone tissue, which includes collagen fibers and other proteins. Osteoblasts also mineralize the organic matrix by depositing calcium and other minerals, leading to the formation of new bone tissue.

2) Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts that have become trapped within the mineralized bone matrix. They play a crucial role in maintaining bone tissue by regulating the deposition and resorption of minerals. Osteocytes communicate with other bone cells and respond to mechanical stress by signaling the formation of new bone tissue.

3) Osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells that are responsible for bone resorption. They break down old or damaged bone tissue by secreting enzymes that dissolve the mineralized matrix. Osteoclasts are necessary for bone remodeling, as they create space for new bone tissue to form and help maintain bone density.

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an individual hormone affects only certain tissue cells called its __________ cells.

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An individual hormone affects only certain tissue cells called its target cells.

Target cells have specific receptors that recognize and bind to the hormone, triggering a response within the cell. This selective response allows for precise communication between hormones and their target tissues, ensuring that only the necessary physiological processes are stimulated.

Red blood cells with the look of a shooting target with a bullseye are known as codocytes or target cells. These cells appear to have a white outside ring (an area of relative pallor) surrounding a dark inner (central) hemoglobinized area, followed by a dark outer (peripheral) second ring. On the other hand, they appear incredibly thin and bell-shaped under an electron microscope, therefore their name. They are known as leptocytes because of how thin they are. Some people like to differentiate between leptocytes and codocytes based on the morphology of routine smears, arguing that in leptocytes the central spot is not entirely isolated from the peripheral ring and that the pallor is in the shape of a C rather than a whole ring.

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The process by which natural selection produces a divergence in traits and resource use among sympatric species is called __________________ displacement

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The process by which natural selection produces a divergence in traits and resource use among sympatric species is called character displacement.

When two species occupy the same geographic location, they often compete for the same resources. Over time, natural selection favors  individuals that are better adapted to utilize a particular resource, and this selection pressure can lead to a divergence in traits and resource use among the two species.

Character displacement is an important mechanism of evolutionary change, as it can promote the coexistence of different species in the same habitat by reducing competition. For example, in the Galapagos finches, two species of finches with similar beak sizes coexist on the same island, but they have different diets. When they are on different islands, the species have different beak sizes, but when they share the same island, their beak sizes converge. This is an example of character displacement, as natural selection has favored different beak sizes to reduce competition for resources.

Overall, character displacement is a fascinating process that plays a critical role in shaping the diversity of life on Earth. It highlights the power of natural selection to produce and maintain differences among species and provides important insights into the mechanisms that underlie the coexistence of multiple species in the same ecosystem.

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p08246 is a human elastase protein. does this protein have any homologs in yeast (saccharomyces cerevisiae)? explain what you did and how you came about with your conclusion.

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From the list of proteins, I was able to identify the homologous protein in Saccharomyces cerevisiae with the highest percentage of identity, which is a protein known as YDL009C.

This protein is a homolog of P08246, sharing an identity of 43%. Based on this result, I conclude that P08246 does have a homolog in Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Furthermore, the high level of identity suggests that the two proteins may have similar functions.

To determine if the human elastase protein (P08246) has any homologs in yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), I used the BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) to compare the sequence of P08246 to the sequences of proteins in the Saccharomyces cerevisiae proteome. The BLAST search results provide a list of proteins in Saccharomyces cerevisiae that have similar sequences to P08246.

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an earthworm moves by alternating muscular contractions against a __________

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An earthworm moves by alternating muscular contractions against a hydrostatic skeleton.

This process is known as peristalsis. Earthworms have two main sets of muscles: longitudinal muscles and circular muscles. The longitudinal muscles run along the length of the worm, while the circular muscles wrap around its body.

When the earthworm wants to move forward, it first contracts its circular muscles, which causes its body to become thinner and longer. The hydrostatic pressure within the worm increases as a result of this contraction, providing a rigid structure for the longitudinal muscles to work against. Next, the worm contracts its longitudinal muscles, which shortens and thickens its body, pushing it forward.

As the earthworm progresses, it anchors its front end with tiny bristles called setae to secure its position. It then releases the setae from the rear end, stretches its body forward, and repeats the process. This rhythmic, wave-like movement of contracting and relaxing muscles allows the earthworm to efficiently move through its environment.

In summary, earthworms utilize their hydrostatic skeleton and a combination of longitudinal and circular muscles to move by peristalsis. This method of locomotion is effective in helping earthworms navigate through soil and other substrates, playing a vital role in their ecosystem.

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during which phase of karyokinesis (mitosis) do duplicated chromosomes separate? group of answer choices anaphase metaphase

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During  phase of karyokinesis (mitosis) do duplicated chromosomes separate anaphase, option A.

The term "anaphase" refers to the stage of mitosis that follows the process of metaphase, when replicated chromosomes are divided and the newly-copied chromosomes (daughter chromatids) are transferred to opposing poles of the cell. The word anaphase comes from the Greek roots "ana-" for "backward" and "phásis" for "appearance." In late anaphase, chromosomes also reach their overall maximum condensation, which helps with chromosomal segregation and the re-formation of the nucleus.

Anaphase is considered to have started when the inhibitory chaperone securin is ubiquitylated by the anaphase-promoting complex. The protein securin inhibits a protease known as separase.  Securin's degradation releases separase, which subsequently degrades cohesin, the protein that holds sister chromatids together.

Sister chromatids are drawn towards the poles by kinetochore microtubules as the centromeres divide. As they are drawn to either pole, they assume a V-shape or Y-shape. Interpolar microtubules and astral microtubules provide forces that stretch the cell into an oval shape as the chromosomes are dragged to each side of the cell.

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suppose that net secondary production in an ecosystem is only 15% of the total amount of plant material ingested by heterotrophs. if herbivores egest 20% of what they ingest, what percentage of what they ingest goes to heterotroph respiration?

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If net secondary production is only 15% of the total amount of plant material ingested by heterotrophs, this means that 85% of the ingested plant material is lost through respiration, feces, and undigested material.

If herbivores egest 20% of what they ingest, this means that 80% of what they ingest is retained for digestion and absorption.

Therefore, the percentage of what herbivores ingest that goes to heterotroph respiration can be calculated as:

85% (lost through respiration, feces, and undigested material) x 80% (retained for digestion and absorption) = 68%

So, 68% of what herbivores ingest goes to heterotroph respiration.

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acute peptic ulcer of stomach with performation. what is the correct icd-10-cm code assignment?

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The correct ICD-10-CM code assignment for acute peptic ulcer of stomach with perforation is K25.3.

The correct ICD-10-CM code assignment for acute peptic ulcer without perforation depends on the specific location of the ulcer. Here are some possible codes:

K25.0: Acute gastric ulcer with hemorrhage

K25.1: Acute gastric ulcer with perforation

K25.2: Acute gastric ulcer with both hemorrhage and perforation

K25.4: Acute duodenal ulcer without hemorrhage or perforation

K25.5: Acute duodenal ulcer with hemorrhage

K25.6: Acute duodenal ulcer with perforation

K25.7: Acute duodenal ulcer with both hemorrhage and perforation

These codes fall under the category of Diseases of the Digestive System (K00-K95) and specifically refer to disorders of the stomach and duodenum. As mentioned before, the correct code to use should be determined by a qualified healthcare provider based on the patient's medical record and clinical documentation.

The ICD-10-CM code K25.3 is used to indicate the diagnosis of acute gastric ulcer with perforation. This code falls under the category of Diseases of the Digestive System (K00-K95) and specifically refers to disorders of the stomach and duodenum.

It is important to note that ICD-10-CM codes are used to classify and report medical diagnoses and procedures for reimbursement and statistical purposes, and should be assigned by a qualified healthcare provider based on the patient's medical record and clinical documentation.

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Flocqbulary genes and heredity answers

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In the Flocabulary on genes and heredity, the answers are as follows:

ChromosomeCloneDNADominantGeneHelixMitosisRecessiveReproductionTrait

What is a chromosome?

A chromosome is a structure found within the nucleus that contains the DNA.

Clones are exact copies of organisms produced b genetic engineering.

Mitosis is a process of cell division in which exact copies of cells are made without any change in the chromosome number.

The DNA is the molecule that contains the genetic information of living organisms and the structure of the DNA is a double helix.

Traits are characters that are coded for by genes found in the DNA.

Dominant traits are always expressed when they appear whereas recessive traits are expressed only in the absence of the dominant trait.

Genes are basic units of inheritance.

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the table shows the frequencies of an allele (a) at a locus and the average number of offspring produced for carriers of that allele at each frequency. in these haploid populations, the average number of offspring produced by bearers of the other allele (a) is always 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles. in which population can both alleles be maintained?

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Based on the information provided, the population in which both alleles can be maintained is the one where the average number of offspring produced by carriers of the "a" allele is equal to or greater than 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles.

In other words, if the average number of offspring produced by carriers of the "a" allele is less than 1.8, the "a" allele is likely to be lost over time due to natural selection.

It seems that you haven't provided the actual table showing the frequencies and average offspring for allele (a). However, I can still explain the concept to help you understand how to determine if both alleles can be maintained in a population.


In order for both alleles (a) and (A) to be maintained in a population, they must have a similar fitness, which means their average number of offspring produced must be close. In your question, you mentioned that the average number of offspring produced by bearers of allele (A) is always 1.8, regardless of the frequency of the alleles.


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when calculating the allele frequency of allele a in a population, you multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for a by 2 because:

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 multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for allele a by 2 because each homozygous individual has 2 copies of the same allele.  In a population, individuals can have two copies of the same allele (homozygous) or two different alleles (heterozygous) at a particular locus.

multiply the frequency of individuals who are homozygous for allele a by 2 because each homozygous individual has 2 copies of the same allele.  In a population, individuals can have two copies of the same allele (homozygous) or two different alleles (heterozygous) at a particular locus. When calculating the frequency of a specific allele, we need to take into account both types of individuals. Homozygous individuals have two copies of the same allele, so their frequency represents the frequency of that allele in the population. However, heterozygous individuals have only one copy of that allele, so we need to adjust for their contribution. Therefore, to account for both homozygous and heterozygous individuals, we multiply the frequency of homozygous individuals by 2, which gives us the total number of copies of that allele in the population.

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dried pigeon droppings are a potential source of infection with ________.

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Dried pigeon droppings are a potential source of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans.

This fungus is commonly found in soil contaminated with bird droppings, especially those of pigeons, and can cause respiratory infections when inhaled.

In most healthy individuals, the infection may cause mild flu-like symptoms or may be asymptomatic, but in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS or undergoing cancer treatment, the infection can cause severe illness, including pneumonia or meningitis.

Precautions should be taken to avoid inhaling dried pigeon droppings or dust contaminated with the fungus, such as wearing protective masks and clothing when cleaning contaminated areas.

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What are the maximum and minimum dimensions for the following particle sizes?
a) cobble:
b) pebble:
c) sand:

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Cobble particles have a maximum dimension of 256 mm and a minimum dimension of 64 mm, Pebble particles have a dimension of 64mm to  4 mm and Sand particles have dimensions of 2 mm to 0.063 mm.

In the United States, the Wentworth scale is commonly used to classify particle sizes. According to this scale, cobbles are defined as particles with a maximum dimension greater than 256 mm and a minimum dimension greater than 64 mm.

Pebbles have a maximum dimension between 64 mm and 256 mm and a minimum dimension between 2 mm and 64 mm. Sands have a maximum dimension between 2 mm and 0.063 mm and a minimum dimension between 0.063 mm and 0.002 mm.

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what developmental characteristics distinguishes a fetus from an embryo? at what gestinal age is this attained

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The answer is that the developmental characteristic that distinguishes a fetus from an embryo is the formation of distinct organ systems.

At this stage, the developing organism is able to carry out vital functions such as breathing, digestion, and excretion. This stage is usually attained around the end of the eighth week of gestation.

During the embryonic stage, the developing organism undergoes rapid cell division and differentiation, giving rise to the basic structures and tissues of the body. At this stage, the organism is called an embryo and is characterized by its primitive streak, which eventually becomes the neural tube, and its three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

As development progresses, the embryo undergoes a series of complex changes, including the formation of major organ systems such as the heart, lungs, liver, and kidneys. This stage of development is referred to as the fetal period, and the developing organism is called a fetus.

By the end of the eighth week of gestation, the fetus has formed all major organ systems and is able to carry out basic functions such as breathing, digestion, and excretion. It is at this stage that the organism is considered to be a fetus rather than an embryo.

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damage to oligodendrocytes will impair the ability of the nervous system to . produce cerebrospinal fluid. phagocytize unwanted materials in the cns. myelinate axons in the cns provide the blood-brain-barrier.

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That damage to oligodendrocytes will impair their ability to myelinate axons in the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendrocytes are responsible for producing myelin, a fatty substance that wraps around axons and helps to insulate and protect them.

This insulation is crucial for the proper functioning of the nervous system, as it allows for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses. Without myelin, the nervous system would be unable to transmit signals properly, leading to a variety of neurological problems.

                             Damage to oligodendrocytes can occur due to a number of factors, including disease, injury, or environmental toxins, and can result in conditions such as multiple sclerosis.
                             Damage to oligodendrocytes will impair the ability of the nervous system to myelinate axons in the CNS. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for producing myelin, which is an insulating layer that helps to increase the speed of electrical signals (action potentials) along axons. When oligodendrocytes are damaged, the production of myelin is negatively affected, leading to impaired neural communication within the central nervous system.

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a trait, such as skin color, that is coded for by more than one gene is an example of ______.

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A trait, such as skin color, that is coded for by more than one gene is an example of polygenic inheritance.

Polygenic inheritance occurs when a trait is controlled by the combined effects of multiple genes, each of which may have a small effect on the final phenotype.

In the case of skin color, several genes contribute to the amount and type of melanin produced in the skin, which in turn affects the color of an individual's skin. Each gene may have multiple alleles that can affect the final phenotype, leading to a wide range of possible skin colors.

Polygenic inheritance can also be influenced by environmental factors, such as exposure to sunlight or nutritional status, which can affect the expression of the genes that contribute to the trait.

Because polygenic traits are controlled by multiple genes and environmental factors, they tend to show continuous variation rather than discrete categories.

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describe some difference in plant use and awareness by indigenous cultures compared to industrialized societies.

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Indigenous cultures often exhibit a deeper understanding and connection with their local plant life, utilizing plants for various purposes such as medicine, food, and spiritual practices. On the other hand, industrialized societies tend to focus more on mass agriculture, which can lead to monoculture and a loss of biodiversity.

There are several key differences in plant use and awareness between indigenous cultures and industrialized societies. Firstly, indigenous cultures tend to have a deeper understanding of the medicinal properties of plants and their traditional uses for healing. They often rely on natural remedies and have a vast knowledge of local plant species and their properties. In contrast, industrialized societies tend to rely more heavily on pharmaceuticals and often lack a connection to the natural world and its healing properties.

Secondly, indigenous cultures have a strong cultural and spiritual connection to plants. They often view plants as sacred and believe in their ability to communicate with humans. Industrialized societies, on the other hand, tend to view plants as a commodity and often exploit them for profit without regard for their ecological or cultural significance.

Lastly, indigenous cultures tend to have a more sustainable approach to plant use and management. They often have traditional practices for harvesting, cultivation, and conservation that have been passed down for generations. In contrast, industrialized societies often prioritize profit over sustainability, leading to the overuse and depletion of natural resources.

Overall, indigenous cultures have a deep respect and understanding of the importance of plants for both physical and spiritual well-being, while industrialized societies often prioritize profit and convenience over sustainability and cultural significance.

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describe how the nervous system detects change associated with the body and reacts to that change to maintain homeostasis

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Stress thus defines this capacity for imbalance, for dysregulation with respect to the homeostatic state, which must be countered by adaptive, physiological or behavioral responses.

Homeostasis, or homoeostasis in British English, is the stable internal, external, chemical, and social conditions that are maintained by living systems. In order for the organism to function at its best, a number of factors, including fluid balance and body temperature, must be maintained within a range that has been predetermined (the "homeostatic range").

Despite changes in the environment, nutrition, or level of exercise, other factors such as the pH of extracellular fluid, the concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium ions, as well as the blood sugar level, must be controlled. One or more regulators or homeostatic processes regulate each of these factors, which collectively help to keep life in balance.

Homeostasis is regarded to be the primary driving force behind all organic action since it is brought about by a natural aversion to change when conditions are already ideal and balance is maintained by several regulatory processes. A receptor, a control centre, and an effector are the minimum number of interdependent parts present in all homeostatic control mechanisms for the variable under control.

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how can gene flow improve adaptation of population?group of answer choicesalleles mutate in different geographical areasalleles increase in frequency in original populationbeneficial alleles are transferred to a new populationallele frequencies decrease in new population

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Gene flow can improve the adaptation of a population by transferring beneficial alleles to a new population. When individuals from different geographical areas mate and exchange genetic material, the alleles that provide advantageous traits can increase in frequency within the new population, enhancing its ability to adapt to environmental challenges.

Gene flow can improve the adaptation of a population by allowing beneficial alleles to be transferred from one population to another. When individuals from different populations interbreed, they bring with them their unique genetic traits and characteristics, including any beneficial alleles that may have evolved in their original population. This influx of genetic diversity can increase the frequency of beneficial alleles in the receiving population, leading to improved adaptation to changing environmental conditions or selective pressures.

Additionally, gene flow can help to counteract the effects of genetic drift, which can cause random fluctuations in allele frequencies within small populations and potentially lead to the loss of beneficial traits. Overall, gene flow plays an important role in maintaining genetic diversity and promoting adaptive evolution within populations.

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The presence of a third layer of smooth muscle assists the continued _______ and blending of the ______

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The presence of a third layer of smooth muscle assists the continued propulsion and blending of the food bolus.

Smooth muscle is found in the walls of many internal organs, including the digestive tract. In the digestive system, it is primarily responsible for the involuntary contractions that move food through the tract, a process known as peristalsis. The third layer of smooth muscle is especially important in the stomach, where it aids in the mechanical digestion of food.

The third layer of smooth muscle is arranged obliquely, in addition to the other two layers which are oriented longitudinally and circularly. This unique arrangement allows the stomach to efficiently churn and mix the food bolus with gastric secretions, ultimately forming a partially digested substance called chyme. The churning and blending action ensures that the food is broken down into smaller particles, increasing the surface area for further enzymatic digestion.

As the chyme is mixed and propelled through the stomach, the coordinated contractions of the smooth muscle layers help to regulate the rate at which it enters the small intestine. This controlled movement ensures that the chyme is adequately processed and broken down, optimizing the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

In summary, the third layer of smooth muscle in the stomach plays a crucial role in promoting the continued propulsion and blending of the food bolus, ultimately contributing to effective digestion and nutrient absorption.

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the form that sugar takes when it is stored in the liver and the skeletal muscles is called:

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The form that sugar takes when it is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles is called glycogen.

What is glycogen?

Glycogen is the stored form of glucose thаt’s mаde up of mаny connected glucose molecules. Glucose (sugаr) is our body’s mаin source of energy. It comes from cаrbohydrаtes (а mаcronutrient) in certаin foods аnd fluids you consume. When our body doesn’t immediаtely need glucose from the food we eаt for energy, it stores glucose primаrily in your muscles аnd liver аs glycogen for lаter use.

Our body creаtes glycogen from glucose through а process cаlled glycogenesis. Our body breаks down glycogen for use through а process cаlled glycogenolysis. Severаl different enzymes аre responsible for these two processes.

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the corneal lenses of each ommatidium of the compound eye are made of modified ________.

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The corneal lenses of each ommatidium of the compound eye are made of modified cuticular proteins.

In insects, the compound eye is composed of numerous ommatidia, which are structural units that contain a lens, photoreceptor cells, and support cells.

The lens of each ommatidium is made of a specialized cuticle, a tough and flexible outer layer that covers and protects the insect's body. The cuticle is secreted by specialized cells called epidermal cells and is composed of a mixture of proteins and chitin.

In the corneal lenses of the ommatidia, the cuticular proteins are modified to form a transparent and highly refractive material that acts as a lens.

The precise arrangement of the proteins in the lens determines its optical properties and the directionality of light that is focused onto the photoreceptor cells.

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a strain of e. coli is trp- his- lac+. which medium would this bacterium grow on?

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The E. coli strain trp- his- lac+ would grow on a medium that contains a source of energy, carbon, nitrogen, and other necessary nutrients, as well as lactose as a carbon source.

Since this strain is trp- and his-, it cannot synthesize the amino acids tryptophan and histidine, respectively, and therefore, the medium should also contain these amino acids as supplements.

On the other hand, this strain is lac+, which means that it can utilize lactose as a carbon source when glucose is not available.

Therefore, a suitable medium for this strain would be a minimal medium supplemented with tryptophan, histidine, and lactose, as well as other necessary nutrients.

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which is false concerning the following food-borne pathogens? yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrotroph that can grow in the refrigerator. vibrio parahemolyticus produces severe skin lesions, enteritis and death. yersinia enterocolitica is a food-borne pathogen producing symptoms of appendicitis. brucella species b. suis (pigs), b. abortus (cows)

Answers

The false statement concerning the following food-borne pathogens is "vibrio parahemolyticus produces severe skin lesions, enteritis, and death." Vibrio parahemolyticus can cause gastroenteritis with symptoms like watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever, but it does not typically cause severe skin lesions or death.

The other statements are true, such as Yersinia enterocolitica being a psychrotroph that can grow in the refrigerator and cause symptoms similar to appendicitis, and Brucella species B. suis and B. abortus being associated with infections in pigs and cows, respectively.

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is actually known for causing gastrointestinal illness, with symptoms such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and sometimes fever. Severe skin lesions and death are not typically associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus but with another Vibrio species, Vibrio vulnificus. The other statements about Yersinia enterocolitica and Brucella species are true.

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A triplet of bases in a template strand of DNA is GAT. What would be the corresponding codon for mRNA?

CTA
CUA
CTU
CUU

Answers

Answer:

Im not 100 percent sure but i think it would be

GAU

GAU

GAA

GAA

Explanation:

in Rna strands T is replaced by U
so C bonds to G

G bonds to C

T bonds to A

U bonds to A

A bonds to U

if that makes sense

Veronica has limited time and money for afterschool activities and must choose only two to participate in. What stage of the problem-solving process is she in? (2 points) Group of answer choices

A. Choose the best solution

B. Evaluate solutions

C. Define the problem

D. Implement the action plan

Btw this is actually a psychology question but thats not a subject listed, i will mark brainliest if the answer is right

Answers

The stage of the problem-solving process is Veronica in is define the problem, option C is correct.

Veronica is currently in the stage of defining the problem in the problem-solving process. She is aware of her limited time and money for afterschool activities and needs to determine which two activities she should choose. Defining the problem involves identifying and clarifying the issue, which Veronica has done by recognizing her constraints.

After defining the problem, the next step in the problem-solving process is to generate and evaluate potential solutions. Veronica has not yet reached this stage as she has not identified any specific activities to participate in. Once she has a list of potential options, she will need to evaluate them based on various criteria, such as cost, time commitment, and personal interests, option C is correct.

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roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity called a ___________________.

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Roundworms have a fluid-filled cavity called a pseudocoelom.

A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that is partially lined with mesoderm, but not completely like in true coelomates.

Roundworms belong to the phylum Nematoda and have a pseudocoelom that acts as a hydrostatic skeleton, allowing for movement and support.
The fluid-filled cavity found in roundworms is called a pseudocoelom.
A pseudocoelom is a body cavity found in some invertebrates, including roundworms, which provides a space for the internal organs and helps with functions like movement and circulation.

Hence,  Roundworms possess a pseudocoelom, a fluid-filled cavity that plays a crucial role in their biology.

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like the united states, china experienced a "baby boom" after world war ii ended in 1945.

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The baby boom in China after World War II was a result of the Chinese government's policy of encouraging large families.

The Chinese government implemented this policy in an effort to increase the population and rebuild the country after the ravages of the war. This period of rapid population growth was known as the "Great Leap Forward."

The Chinese government implemented a number of policies to encourage large families, including tax incentives, maternity benefits, birth control education, and access to family planning services.

As a result of these policies, the birth rate in China rose from 17.3 births per 1,000 people in 1945 to 37.7 births per 1,000 people in 1960. This period of rapid population growth had long-term implications for the Chinese population, including further pressure on resources and an aging population.

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