According to research, what is the relationship between dietary carbohydrates and body weight? a. People who eat a diet rich in carbohydrate-dense root vegetables are more likely to have a high body weight. b. As people in other countries adopt "Western"-style diets, they lose weight. c. When body weight is taken into account, no significant link is found between higher sugar intakes and higher blood pressure d. Added sugar intake is most strongly linked with body weight in people with type 2 diabetes. e. Added sugars provide many of the excess calories that cause weight gain among U.S. adults.
Answer:
e. Added sugars provide many of the excess calories that cause weight gain among U.S. adults.
Explanation:
According to research study in the United States, which is also corroborated by the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, shows that people from aged 6 years and above, consumed about 14% of total daily calories from added sugars which can lead to weight gain and obesity.
Hence, it was concluded that, the relationship between dietary carbohydrates and body weight is that "added sugars provide many of the excess calories that cause weight gain among U.S. adults."
A primigavida who is a 38 weeks gestation calls the clinic stating she felt several contractions in her abdomen during the past hour she reports that the contractions were irregular and they decreased after she took a walk around the block. Based on this information , what is the health care provider's best response?
Answer:
It may be false contractions or real.The only way to know is for her to come in for an evaluation.
There are 25 minerals that our bodies need to function properly. True or False
(FITNESS PLEASE HELP ILL MAKE A NEW QUESTION AND GIVE 30 POINTS AND BRAINLIEST TO THE PERSON WITH THE RIGHT AWNSER)
i wont really
You are treating a 5-year-old child who has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. Supplemental oxygen has been given and you have elevated his lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that his work of breathing has increased. You should:
C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3° F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is
Answer:
a streptococcal infection
Explanation:
: Of the following, which is the most serious condition? Of the following, which is the most serious condition? ureteritis urethritis urethritis and cystitis cystitis pyelonephritis
"A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is getting ready to take her bar exam. She knows that if she stops taking her antipsychotic medication for several days she will then be able to stay up all night and study. She has done this before and has repeatedly been hospitalized for her bipolar disease. What term would the nurse use to describe the repetitive hospitalizations, followed by discharges, once back on her medications
Answer:
The patient is non-compliant.
As I open a bottle of carbonated water, and lets out a distinctive whistling sound. where, in this spectrogram, would the whistling sound likely have occurred?
A. 0.1 secs
B. 0.4 secs
C. 0.55 secs
D. 1.1 secs
Answer:
Option D
1.1 seconds
Explanation:
The whistling sound has a high frequency and a high pitch. This is usually represented by a spike in the frequency-time graph.
The spectrogram is able to show this point on the graph it plots. This will be a point that has the waveforms clustered together as well as increased. These are points of high frequency, as well as pitch.
From the spectrogram, such a point occurs at point D. at 1.1 seconds.
A large medical practice that specializes in cancer care is weighing the advantages and disadvantages of implementing the most recent version of a commercial EHR or building its own homegrown system for its office. The staff selects a commercial EHR from a major vendor. Which factor best supports this decision
Hello. You forgot to enter the answer options. The options are:
a. A commercial product can be easily customized to accommodate the unique needs of the hospital. b. A homegrown system cannot be certified by the Certification Commission for Healthcare Information Technology. c. The commercial version is considered one of the "Best of Breed" products. d. A homegrown system is typically interfaced with the organization's ADT system and downstream systems.
Answer:
c. The commercial version is considered one of the "Best of Breed" products.
Explanation:
The commercial version is very expensive requiring a higher economic investment, than the investment that would be placed on a home system. However, the commercial version is considered "Best of Breed", that is, this version has an extremely superior quality which justifies its price and the more safety of its use, guaranteeing a very efficient and pleasant result. The domestic version may even work efficiently, but not in the same way as the commercial version.
If a nutrient does not have a Tolerable Upper Intake Level, this means that: Group of answer choices it is safe to consume in any amount. insufficient data exist to establish a value. no caution is required when consuming supplements of that nutrient. it is safe when supplemental levels are added to foods.
Answer:
The correct option is;
Insufficient data exist to establish a value
Explanation:
The upper intake level is the maximum amount of the nutrient that can be taken without the likelihood of harmful side effects on the health of an individual within the population. Taking nutrients above the stipulated upper intake level is likely to lead exposure to risk harmful side effects
Upper intake level have not been developed, however, for many nutrients due to lack adequate data as such it has been advised to apply extra caution to avoid adverse effects caused by excessive intake of such nutrients.
A client is preparing to have an operative procedure with general anesthesia. What statement made by the client should the nurse refer to the anesthesiologist immediately because it indicates risk for malignant hyperthermia
Your family is worried because your cousin has a testosterone deficiency. What would you notice for clinical manifestations? a. Clear skin, free of acne b. Excessive chest and facial hair c. Bulky skeletal muscle development d. Increased skin thickness
Answer:
A.)
Explanation:
Because increased testosterone causes a worsening of acne.
hair cells have a unique electrochemical gradient that, in a way, is very different from your average neuron. How so?
A. The amount of calcium is very high in the cell
B. sodium travels both directions
C. It uses GABA to depolarize it’s cilia
D. potassium is the positive charge carrier
E. sodium hyperpolarizes the cell
Answer:
A. The amount of calcium is very high in the cell
Explanation:
The electrochemical gradient of hair cells is directly related to the amount of calcium present in these cells. This is because these cells have a very high calcium concentration, causing constant leakage. These leaks are the main responsible for the release of the neutrotransmitters that will participate in the synapses.
In addition, this amount of calcium present in the hair cells is what makes these cells have an incredible speed in responding to mechanical stimuli, which makes all the difference within a biological system.
A client appears very drowsy at bedtime and is difficult to arouse. The client is receiving halcion 0.25 mg PO at bedtime. Based on these findings, what would be the best nursing diagnosis for this client
Answer:
.125 may be the dosage this patient needs
A client being discharged from the hospital to home with a diagnosis of tuberculosis is worried about the possibility of infecting family members and others. Which information should reassure the client that contaminating family members and others is not likely?
The options of this question are missing; here are the options:
Which information should reassure the client that contaminating family members and others is not likely?
A. The family does not need therapy, and client will not be contagious after 1 month of medication therapy
B. The family does not need therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 6 consecutive weeks of medication therapy
C. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 1 continuous week of medication therapy
D. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy
The answer to this question is D. The family will receive prophylactic therapy, and the client will not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis is a serious contagious disease. Due to this, in tuberculosis treatment, the purpose is not only to stop the infection but to prevent this spreads to others. Indeed, the treatment for tuberculosis includes a set of medicines that stop the infection in the patient, which takes several weeks to end the infection; however, after 2 or 3 weeks the patient should not be contagious. Besides this, the family of the patient or anyone who has close contact with the patient should receive prophylactic therapy or medicine to prevent the development of the disease.
4
.
1. In what region of the country would you expect
this patient to live?
Iren by people who
he visited to Zoo every week and to what the animal Tilak was also a message to discover the soul at a collection of animals at home to get to dog and baby owl and baby monkey one evening Sudheer brought the
An elderly man who was stabbed several times has a puncture wound in the left anterior chest walls in the region of the fourth or fifth rib. There is minimal bleeding from the chest wound. The initial blood pressure reading was 120/70 mm Hg, but dropped to 102/86 mm Hg. This is an example of:
Answer:
Hypovolemic. Shock
Explanation:
Excessive blood loss causes a drop in blood pressure. This is called hypovolemic shock.
: Which of the following clinical signs of infection is indicative of sepsis? Bradycardia (less than 60 beats per minute) Leukopenia Body temperature above 101°F Tachypnea (more than 20 breaths per minute)
emergency medical technicians are sometimes told to speak in the lower voice when responding to older patients, why is this?
A. lower voice sound sound more authoritative
B. The eardrums of older people are heavier and do not vibrate as well to high voices
C. conductive hearing loss typically begins in high frequency hair cells
D. lower frequencies require higher sound pressures according to the Fletcher Munson curve
E. sensorineural hearing loss typically begins in high frequency hair cells
Answer:
Option E
sensorineural hearing loss typically begins in high-frequency hair cells
Explanation:
In presbycusis, most old people cannot hear the high-frequency sounds, because of some loss of hair cells in their cochlea. unlike some other vertebrates like fishes and reptiles, these hair cells can be re-generated. However, in Humans, they cannot be.
As a result of these sounds that have higher pitches such as the buzzing of a mosquito, are muffled to them. Therefore, talking in a frequency is necessary, as this will aid the old people hear the medical technicians better.
Most fad diets ________. a. produce long-lasting results b. limit food choices, which reduces energy intake c. support good health over the long term d. are balanced and do not require a dietary supplement e. embrace a variety of foods by proposing how to proportion energy nutrients
Answer:
b. limit food choices, which reduces energy intake
Explanation:
While on a fad diet you are going to have to cut certain things out like carbs, or gluten, which is limiting food choices, and we need certain foods to provide our bodies with energy, therefore by cutting out certain foods we are taking away or reducing the amount of energy that we could be recieving from the foods we are not eating. (Brainliest pleaseeee)
1) Difference between health and Medicine
Answer:
The biggest difference between public health and medicine is that public health deals with the health from the perspective of populations, while medicine deals with health from the perspective of individuals. In medicine, the patient is the individual person
Which of the following are key to keeping serious illnesses arise?
Answer:
to cure/ prevent an illness: wash hands, stay away from others, take prescription drugs ( if told too), temperature check, etc
To make it worse: Walk/ stand very close to people, not be sanitary, make others sick intentionally, etc
Explanation:
hope this helps you and have a great day
pls help I need someone to write a peace offering letter to my brother because I broke his play station because I kept dying in Mortal Kombat. Please make sure you have the word 'sorry' in it -- will give Brainliest
Answer:
- I am sorry ... for breaking your playstaion. I know this is hard to cope with but this was very hard for me to tell you. I was getting very upset with losing the game i got out of control and broke the playstaion. I know this comes with a price and trust me I will do anything to make sure you canf get a new one. Once again im sorry
Explanation:
Dear, (insert brother's name)
I'm very sorry for breaking your beloved play station, I know how much you care for it. I promise that I'll never cause any harm on it again. I hope you can understand where I'm coming from and know how dangerous losing continuously really is.
Hope mom will pay for a new one,
Your sibling.
On a visit to the family physician, a client is diagnosed with a bunion on the lateral side of the great toe, at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
This question is incomplete because the options are missing; here is the complete question:
On a visit to the family physician, a client is diagnosed with a bunion on the lateral side of the great toe, at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A. "Bunions are congenital and can't be prevented."
B. "Bunions may result from wearing shoes that are too big, causing friction when the shoes slip back and forth."
C. "Bunions are caused by a metabolic condition called gout."
D. "Some bunions are congenital; others are caused by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow."
The answer to this question is D. "Some bunions are congenital; others are caused by wearing shoes that are too short or narrow."
Explanation:
Bunions are bumps or deformities that form in the joints of the toe, which can cause pain and swelling in the zone. Additionally, in terms of causes, the development of bunions is the result of either congenital factors (abnormalities from birth) or environmental factors, especially the friction and pressure caused by shoes that are short or narrow. Besides this, bunions can be treated through different options depending on symptoms which include medicines, shoe inserts, and surgery. According to this, option D explains the causes of bunions and it is ideal to include in a teaching session about this condition.
According to current dietary recommendations, trans fat intake should be limited. How is this best accomplished? a. Select foods containing manufactured rather than naturally occurring trans fats. b. Read labels to select foods that say "polyunsaturated fatty acid free." c. Avoid all processed foods such as bakery items, packaged cookies, and store-bought bread. d. Use fat replacers, such as olestra, which provide the same nutrient content as regular fats without being saturated. e. Choose foods with <10% of calories from saturated fat per serving and no hydrogenated oils in the ingredients list.
Answer:
The correct option is;
c. Avoid all processed foods such as bakery items, packaged cookies and store-bought bread
Explanation:
Dietary trans fat comes primarily from consuming processed bakery foods and packaged items such as crackers, cakes, cookies, margarine, popcorn, potato chips, fried potatoes, breakfast cereals although the frying process does not form the trans fat
80% of the dietary trans fat come from processed food or oils while the remaining are found in natural food sources
Limiting the consumption of processed foods which make up the 80% source of dietary trans fat is the most effective way of reducing trans fat intake.
An anxious client is admitted for treatment of an exacerbation of irritable bowel disease. The client asks the nurse if biofeedback will help after reading about biofeedback online. What is the best response by the nurse?
The available options are:
A. "Biofeedback will help reduce stress."
B. -"Biofeedback does not work for irritable bowel disease."
C. -"Stress is hard to control and you may need a medication to relax."
D. -"The device is just another expensive electronic toy."
Answer:
Biofeedback will help reduce stress.
Explanation:
This is because, research has shown that biofeedback is an evidence-based treatment for stress reduction. However, since, biofeedback is not a serious treatment, or is not indicated for the client's condition which is irritable bowel disease. Then it's expected that, the nurse should not tell the client that a medication for relaxation or biofeedback is the solution, but rather commend the client for reading and asking about the efficiency of biofeedback.
Hence, the nurse should respond that, "Biofeedback will help reduce stress."
Anxiety is defined as the feeling of fear, uneasiness, and dread, which causes sweat, an increase in heart rate, and feeling tension. The client admitted for exacerbation of irritable bowel can be given biofeedback.
The correct answer is:
Option A. Biofeedback will help reduce stress
Biofeedback can be defined as:
1. Biofeedback is a type of technique used by medical professionals in which patients are taught to control some of the body's functions. In biofeedback, the patient is connected to the electrical sensors that help in receiving information about the body.
2. Biofeedback is an evidence-based treatment for stress reduction. Biofeedback can help in reducing stress by analyzing the conditions of the disease. It is not a cure and helps in managing the conditions of the disease.
Thus, the correct answer is Option A.
To know more about biofeedback, refer to the following link:
https://brainly.com/question/2837002
Answer my question in 3 minutes, 16 seconds, and 12 milliseconds"
Answer:
What do you mean? I don't understand.
Answer:
Explanation:I don't get what exactly do you mean
A person is trying to follow the best diet to reduce the risk of developing chronic disease. She wants to make sure that she consumes adequate nutrients in the best proportions from the foods she selects. Which would be the best Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) standards for her to use to ensure she has the best energy nutrient intakes to reduce chronic disease risk? a. Daily Values (DV) b. Adequate Intakes (AI) c. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) d. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) e. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)
Answer:
c. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)
Explanation:
If the person is serious about best energy nutrient intakes they should consult with the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)
AMDR lists range of nutrient intakes from different food categories and a widely used list by nutritionists as this list has been approved and reviewed by scientific authorities across the globe. It was originally issued by The Food and Nutrition Board of the Institutes of Medicine.
Here's the guidelines:
Carbohydrate (45%-65% of energy), Protein (10%-35% of energy)Fat (20%-35% of energy) [limit saturated and trans fats]The information about guidelines was derived from the Pubmed article "Exercise and the Institute of Medicine recommendations for nutrition" which you can view on PubMed. I cannot include the link as the post might get deleted for containing links.
how is that ion channels that let in positive charge could hyperpolarized a hair cell?
A. they feature unique residues that allow positive charge to go both directions
B. their ligands let out potassium ions, creating a negative electrochemical gradient
C. their ion channels are partially open at a resting state, and so closing them reduces the positive charge going into the cell
D. Ion channels that bind inverse agonist will reverse active ion transport, but only in the axon Hillock, leading to hyperpolarization down the axon
Answer:
B. their ligands let out potassium ions, creating a negative electrochemical gradient
Explanation:
A ciliated cell would be hyperpolarized by the action of positive ion kennels, when that cell received an inhibitory stimulus and the action of these channels allowed its ligands to release potassium ions (K +) and allow the entry of chlorine ions (Cl-), creating a negative electrochemical gradient, since the interior of the cell will have a negative potential greater than the external environment, which will be more positive. The result of this is to inhibit the spread of an action potential in the cellular environment.
Public health officials are concerned about a possible epidemic of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). It presents as a rapidly-progressing skin abscess accompanied by significant tissue destruction or "flesh-eating." Which condition has led to the concern that this disease may become an epidemic