(a) Christina wants to increase the number of eggs per year by using selective breeding.

(i)Which two chickens should she breed together?

(ii) Christina chooses chickens to breed from the offspring.
Which ones should she choose?

(a) Christina Wants To Increase The Number Of Eggs Per Year By Using Selective Breeding.(i)Which Two

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Answer 1

Simple is a good word to describe the fundamental approach. It is likely that her daughters will likewise be effective layers if you breed from the hen that produces the most eggs. This is so because a hen's genes, which she gets from her parents, play a factor in determining how many eggs she lays.

How did chickens raised for meat become a product of selective breeding?

Increased growth rate and higher meat output were the primary objectives of selective breeding in meat chickens in the 1960s (i.e. producing larger chickens in less time). These days, the strategy is much more balanced, with health and wellbeing of the breeding animals playing a key role.

Inbreeding, linebreeding, and outcrossing are methods used in animal breeding.

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the mechanisms by which antibodies (ab) can inactivate or affect the functioning of antigens (ag) include blank .

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The mechanisms by which antibodies (Ab) can inactivate or affect the functioning of antigens (Ag) include neutralization, complement activation, opsonization, and Agglutination.


What are antibodies?

Antibodies are also known as immunoglobulins. They're glycoproteins produced by B cells, which are specialized cells of the immune system that produce and secrete antibodies in response to the presence of an antigen. Antibodies are produced by B cells that have been activated and differentiated in response to the presence of an antigen.

They serve a critical role in immune defense by neutralizing or destroying harmful pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, and toxic substances.

The mechanisms by which antibodies can inactivate or affect the functioning of antigens include the following:

Binding and neutralizing the antigen: Antibodies neutralize pathogens and toxins by binding to them and preventing them from binding to or entering host cells.Opsonization: Antibodies mark pathogens and infected cells for destruction by other cells of the immune system (e.g., macrophages and neutrophils).Complement activation: Antibodies can trigger the complement system, a group of proteins that work together to destroy pathogens by forming pores in their cell membranes and causing them to burst.Agglutination: Antibodies can cause pathogens to clump together, making them more easily recognized and removed by phagocytes.

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what is the relationship between habitat size and species diversity? group of answer choices an increase in habitat size leads to larger species diversity an increase in habitat size leads to a decrease in species diversity

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The relationship between habitat size and species diversity is that an increase in habitat size leads to larger species diversity. A is the correct answer.

Habitat size and species diversity are directly related. The larger the habitat, the more diverse the species it can support, and the greater the potential for different types of habitats or microhabitats to occur within it, supporting a wider range of species.

In general, small habitats have fewer species than large ones, but the relationship between habitat size and species diversity varies across species.

What is a Habitat?

A habitat is a type of natural environment where an organism or a community of organisms typically lives. The habitat offers resources, including shelter, food, and water, and it is a place where animals and plants can find a safe place to reproduce and grow.

The habitat is one of the key elements that determine which species can survive and thrive in a given area. Some of the factors that influence habitat size and species diversity include climate, soil type, topography, and the presence of other organisms.

A is the correct answer.

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Complete question

what is the relationship between habitat size and species diversity? group of answer choices

a. an increase in habitat size leads to larger species diversity

b. an increase in habitat size leads to a decrease in species diversity

Differentiate how antibodies perform precipitation and agglutination to inactivate antigens.

Answers

Explanation:

Both precipitation and agglutination are methods by which antibodies can inactivate antigens, but they differ in the mechanism and outcome of the interaction.

Precipitation occurs when antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming immune complexes that become insoluble and fall out of solution. This results in the formation of visible precipitates that can be seen under a microscope. Precipitation is useful for detecting and quantifying antigens in biological fluids, such as blood or urine, but it is not effective against antigens that are located on the surface of cells.

Agglutination occurs when antibodies bind to antigens that are present on the surface of cells, causing the cells to clump together. This clumping makes it easier for phagocytic cells, such as macrophages, to engulf and destroy the antigen. Agglutination is commonly used in blood typing, where antibodies are used to determine the blood group of an individual.

In summary, precipitation and agglutination are both effective mechanisms by which antibodies can inactivate antigens, but they operate through different mechanisms and are used in different contexts. Precipitation is useful for detecting and quantifying soluble antigens, while agglutination is effective against antigens located on the surface of cells.

The condensation of chromosome takes place duringA. InterphaseB. ProphaseC. MetaphaseD. AnaphaseE. Telophase

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The condensation of chromosome takes place during Prophase.

In order to ensure appropriate compaction and segregation of sister chromatids during cell division, mitotic chromosome condensation is an essential biological process. The main molecular tool for chromosome condensation is condensin, a five-subunit complex that is conserved among eukaryotes. Current developments in the structural biology and functional research of condensing show the special features and crucial biological function of this complex.

Condensin has a variety of roles, including chromosomal dynamics during mitotic cell division, cell-cycle feedback regulatory mechanisms, and the creation and maintenance of interphase chromosome structure. Condensing is a viable therapeutic target for regulating cell proliferation due to its location at the junction of numerous cell-cycle regulatory networks.

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the young man has an infarction or death of a portion of his lung tissue due to a pulmonary embolism. absent blood flow to a lung segment causes:

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The young man has an infarction or death of a portion of his lung tissue due to a pulmonary embolism. Absent blood flow to a lung segment causes the death of the cells in that segment as well as an infarction or tissue death.

A blood clot that travels through your bloodstream and lodges in the lungs is known as a pulmonary embolism (PE). Pulmonary embolism can cause severe and possibly fatal symptoms, depending on the size and location of the clot in the lung. If the clot is small, it might not cause any noticeable symptoms. However, a massive clot can be fatal, hence it is essential to seek medical attention.Infarction of lung tissue occurs when the blood flow to a lung segment is disrupted, resulting in the death of cells in that segment. It can occur due to several reasons, including pulmonary thromboembolism, pneumonia, pulmonary arteritis, and systemic arterial occlusion. It can also be caused by pulmonary embolism. When a clot forms in a blood vessel, it can block blood flow to the surrounding area, resulting in tissue death or infarction.

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an epidemiologist notices a statistical difference in the fatality rates between cases of gram-positive bacteremia treated with antimicrobial drugs and treated cases of gram-negative bacteremia - that is, patients with gram-positive bacteremia are much more likely to respond to treatment and survive. explain two reasons why this might be so.

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An epidemiologist notices a statistical difference in the fatality rates between cases of gram-positive bacteremia treated with antimicrobial drugs and treated cases of gram-negative bacteremia - that is, patients with gram-positive bacteremia are much more likely to respond to treatment and survive.

Two reasons why gram-positive bacteremia is easier to treat than gram-negative bacteremia are:

1. Gram-positive bacteremia has a cell wall that is thick and rigid, and it is more vulnerable to antibiotics than gram-negative bacteria.

Gram-negative bacteria, on the other hand, has a cell wall that is thinner and less rigid. Furthermore, gram-negative bacteria have an additional layer in their cell wall called lipopolysaccharide, which can be toxic to host cells. This lipopolysaccharide may be an obstacle in antimicrobial drug penetration. This makes it more difficult to treat gram-negative bacteremia.

2. Gram-negative bacteremia can create various resistance mechanisms.

In Gram-negative bacteria, a lot of antimicrobial resistance mechanisms may occur. For example, bacteria may acquire genes that produce enzymes capable of destroying antibiotics. Additionally, they may modify the permeability of their membranes or use efflux pumps to remove drugs from inside the cell. As a result, even when administered antimicrobial drugs, it becomes more challenging to eradicate the infection.

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a large vein carrying deoxygenated blood into the heart. b: the branches of the pulmonary trunk, branching at the level of the transthoracic plane of ludwig. c: a vessel that arises from the right ventricle of the heart, extends upward, and divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries that convey unaerated blood to the lungs. d: a red colored blood vessels across the surface of heart. e: a large vein carrying deoxygenated blood into the heart.

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a. The large vein that carries deoxygenated blood into the heart is called the superior vena cava.

b. The branches of the pulmonary trunk that branch at the level of the transthoracic plane of Ludwig are called pulmonary arteries.

c. The vessel that arises from the right ventricle of the heart, extends upward, and divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries that convey unaerated blood to the lungs is known as the pulmonary trunk.

d. The red-colored blood vessels across the surface of the heart are known as coronary arteries.

e. The large vein carrying deoxygenated blood into the heart is called the inferior vena cava.

Blood vessels аre а mаjor pаrt of the body's circulаtory system, аs they аllow blood to flow through the entire body. Some blood vessels аlwаys cаrry blood towаrd the heаrt, аnd some аlwаys cаrry it аwаy from the heаrt.

The blood vessels thаt cаrry deoxygenаted blood from the body bаck to the heаrt аre veins. Veins аlwаys cаrry blood bаck to the heаrt, аnd one type of vein cаrries oxygenаted blood. This is the pulmonаry vein, which is а pаrt of the pulmonаry circuit of the circulаtory system. The pulmonаry vein returns the blood to the heаrt thаt wаs trаnsported to the lungs to pick up oxygen. The veins of the systemic circulаtory system cаrry blood bаck to the heаrt аfter the oxygen hаs been delivered to our body pаrts.

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when the voltage-gated ion channels open, both sodium and potassium ions cross the membrane but in opposite directions. what is the ultimate cause of this occurance?

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The ultimate cause of the occurance is A concentration gradient was built prior to the channels opening, and the ions are currently moving from a high to a low concentration.

The process of particles, also known as solutes, moving through a solution or gas from a region with a larger number of particles to an area with a lower number of particles is known as a concentration gradient. A membrane usually divides the spaces.

When a region has a greater particle concentration than another, this is known as a concentration gradient. A concentration gradient will cause particles in passive transport to spread down it from higher concentration to lower concentration until they are equally spaced.

The amount by which something varies as you go from one area to another is measured by a gradient. A concentration gradient, then, is a measurement of the way in which a substance's concentration varies from one location to another.

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Blue-White Screening You have scored 0 out of 1. 1. In blue-white screening, what do blue colonies represent? . No, that's not the correct answer. a. Cells that have not taken up the plasmid vector. b. Cells with recombinant plasmids containing a new insert. C. Cells containing empty plasmid vectors. d. Cells with a non-functional lacZ gene. Try Again

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Blue-White Screening You have scored 0 out of 1. 1. In blue-white screening, Cells containing empty plasmid vectors.  blue colonies represent. Thus Correct option (c)

Blue colonies in blue-white screening represent cells containing empty plasmid vectors. The blue color is due to the production of the enzyme β-galactosidase, which breaks down X-gal (5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside) into a blue compound.

In cells containing empty plasmid vectors, the lacZ gene is not disrupted, and β-galactosidase is produced, resulting in blue colonies. Cells with recombinant plasmids containing a new insert disrupt the lacZ gene and cannot produce β-galactosidase, resulting in white colonies.

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what is the most probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent? tetrapods vertebrates deuterostomes amniotes (have amniotic egg/sac) eumetazoans (have true tissues)

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The most probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent is as follows:

Tetrapods > vertebrates > eumetazoans (have true tissues) > deuterostomes > amniotes (have amniotic egg/sac).

The most probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent are:

1. Tetrapod: A tetrapod is a four-limbed animal. It is one of the earliest animal clades.

2. Vertebrates: Vertebrates are animals with backbones. They evolved from invertebrate chordates.

3. Eumetazoans: Eumetazoans are animals with true tissues. They evolved from earlier animals that lacked tissues.

4. Deuterostomes: Deuterostomes are a clade of animals that includes chordates, echinoderms, and hemichordates. They evolved from protostomes.

5. Amniotes: Amniotes are a group of tetrapod vertebrates that have an amniotic egg/sac. They evolved from amphibious vertebrates.

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explain how dietary sucrose streptococcus mutans and other bacteria work together to cause dental caries

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Dental caries, also known as tooth decay, is a common dental disease caused by the interaction of dietary sucrose, Streptococcus mutans, and other bacteria in the mouth.

Adhesion streptococcus mutans and other bacteria adhere to the surface of the teeth and form a biofilm called dental plaque.

Metabolism when sucrose is consumed, it is broken down by bacteria in the mouth into glucose and fructose. S. mutans is particularly adept at utilizing sucrose and converts it into lactic acid through a process called glycolysis.

Acid Production the lactic acid produced by S. mutans and other bacteria in dental plaque decreases the pH of the local environment, making it more acidic. This drop in pH can lead to demineralization of the tooth enamel, which is the hard outer layer of the tooth.

Cariogenicity S. mutans and other bacteria in dental plaque are considered cariogenic, meaning they have the ability to cause dental caries. As the tooth enamel demineralizes, the bacteria can penetrate deeper into the tooth and create cavities.

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which is part of the alimentary canal

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Those organs which food and liquids pass through on their way to being ingested, broken down, absorbed, and expelled as faeces. Its mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small bowel, large intestine, rectum.

Which 13 components make up the alimentary canal?

The mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, both big and small intestines, rectum, and anus are all parts of the alimentary tract. The saliva, liver, gallbladder, or pancreas are some of the auxiliary organs connected to the gastrointestinal tract.

The alimentary canal includes the liver.

The lengthy digestive tract called the alimentary canal is where food passes. This system, which includes the oesophagus, stomach, and intestines, runs from of the oral cavity to the anus. Although the pancreas and liver are a part of the digestive system, they do not make up the alimentary canal.

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The correct question is

What are the 4 parts of alimentary canal?

Which of the following carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?a. transfer RNA (tRNA)b. messenger RNA (mRNA)c. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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The correct option is B, The messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

Cytoplasm is a gel-like substance found in all living cells, including plant and animal cells. It is enclosed by the cell membrane and fills the space between the cell membrane and the nucleus. The cytoplasm is composed of water, ions, enzymes, sugars, and other molecules that are essential for the cell's normal functioning.

The cytoplasm also contains organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum, which perform various functions, including energy production, protein synthesis, and cellular communication. The cytoplasm also serves as a site for many metabolic processes such as glycolysis and cellular respiration. the cytoplasm is an essential component of the cell that plays a critical role in maintaining the cell's health and performing its various functions.

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What is the importance of inoculating a control plate in this experiment? 2. Bacillus has a high thermal death point and a long thermal death time.
a. Does this correspond with your results?
b. What could be a possible explanation if not? c. Why is Bocillus not classified as a thermophile? 3. List four diseases caused by spore forming bacteria.

Answers

Inoculating a control plate in an experiment is important for several reasons. Firstly, it helps to ensure that any observed effects are due to the experimental treatment rather than random or unintended events.

Secondly, it provides a baseline for comparison, allowing the researcher to assess the degree of change or effect caused by the experimental treatment. Finally, it serves as a backup in case the experimental plate fails or is contaminated.

a. Based on the information provided, it is not clear what experiment or test is being referred to, so it is not possible to determine whether Bacillus's thermal properties correspond with the results obtained.

b. If the results do not correspond with Bacillus's known thermal properties, there may be several possible explanations. For example, the experimental conditions may have differed from those used in previous studies, or there may have been errors or inconsistencies in the experimental protocol.

c. Bacillus is not classified as a thermophile because its optimal growth temperature range is between 20-45°C, which is lower than the range typically associated with thermophiles (45-80°C).

Four diseases caused by spore-forming bacteria are:

a. Anthrax, caused by Bacillus anthracis

b. Tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani

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True/False? the membrane surrounding the ovary is the tunica albuginea.

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It is true that a layer of simple cuboidal epithelium known as germinal (ovarian) epithelium covers the ovaries on the outside.

What is the albuginea tunica?

The testis is covered by a fibrous capsule known as the tunica albuginea. Except where the epididymis attaches to the testis and along its posterior border, where the spermatic vessels enter the gland, it is covered by the tunica vaginalis.

What are tunica albuginea and the ovary's germinal epithelium?

The tunica albuginea is made up of short fibers of connective tissue. It is immediately enclosed within the peritoneum-continuous surface epithelium, formerly known as germinal epithelium. It is non-vascularised.

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3-The small intestines of cows are similar in general structure and function to the small intestines of humans. A disease in cows reduces the number of villi in their small intestines. The cows lose weight and become weak, Explain.​

Answers

Reduced appetite is the cause of the weight loss and weakness.

Digestion Digestion of food and nutritional absorption.The small intestine's "villi," which resembles fingers, aids inThe bloodstream's ability to absorb nutrients from digested food. WhenNutrient absorption is decreased due to the decreased villi.Consequently, due to nutrient shortage, this causes weight loss.Due to the animal's circulation not absorbing enough nutrients(cow).Similar in general structure and operation to the small intestines of humans, cows' small intestines are similar in form and function. The quantity of villi in cows' small intestines is reduced by illness. Cows begin to thin out and weaken.

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this tubular organ is divided into three sections and functions as part of the respiratory and digestive systems.

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The tubular organ that is divided into three sections and functions as part of the respiratory and digestive systems is the pharynx.

The pharynx is a part of both the respiratory and digestive systems and is located at the back of the nasal and oral cavities. It is divided into three sections: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

The nasopharynx is located behind the nasal cavity and is lined with a mucus membrane that warms and moistens the air as it enters the body. The oropharynx is located behind the oral cavity and serves as a pathway for both food and air.

Finally, the laryngopharynx connects the esophagus and larynx and serves as a passageway for food and air to their respective destinations.

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The tubular organ that is divided into three sections and functions as part of the respiratory and digestive systems is the pharynx.

The pharynx is a part of both the respiratory and digestive systems and is located at the back of the nasal and oral cavities. It is divided into three sections: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

The nasopharynx is located behind the nasal cavity and is lined with a mucus membrane that warms and moistens the air as it enters the body. The oropharynx is located behind the oral cavity and serves as a pathway for both food and air.

Finally, the laryngopharynx connects the esophagus and larynx and serves as a passageway for food and air to their respective destinations.

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When the heterozygous genotype results in a phenotype where two alleles are blended together.
Incomplete Dominance
Codominance
Linked Genes
Polygenic Inheritance

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When the heterozygous genotype results in a phenotype where two alleles are blended together, it is called incomplete dominance.

In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant or recessive, and the resulting phenotype is a combination or blending of both alleles. For example, in snapdragons, red flowers (RR genotype) are completely dominant over white flowers (rr genotype), but when a plant with a heterozygous genotype (Rr) is crossed, the resulting flowers are pink, a blending of the red and white alleles.

Codominance, on the other hand, occurs when both alleles in a heterozygous genotype are expressed equally in the phenotype. A classic example of codominance is the blood type system where the AB blood type is a result of codominance between the A and B alleles.

Linked genes refer to genes located on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together because they are physically close to each other.

Polygenic inheritance refers to the inheritance of a trait that is controlled by multiple genes. In polygenic inheritance, each gene may have only a small effect on the trait, and the resulting phenotype is a combination of the effects of all the genes involved. Height, skin colour, and eye colour are examples of traits that are controlled by polygenic inheritance.

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identify the time periods when there was more diversity in old world monkey species than ape species.

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Old World monkeys and apes are both groups of primates, but they have distinct evolutionary histories. Based on the fossil record, there were several time periods when there was more diversity in Old World monkey species than ape species.

These include:

Oligocene Epoch (34-23 million years ago): During this time, there were many different species of Old World monkeys, including both cercopithecines and colobines, but relatively few ape species.

Miocene Epoch (23-5 million years ago): This was a time of great diversification for both Old World monkeys and apes. However, during the early part of the Miocene (23-16 million years ago), there were still more species of Old World monkeys than apes.

Pliocene Epoch (5-2.6 million years ago): During this time, there were relatively few species of both Old World monkeys and apes, as many primate lineages went extinct.

Overall, there have been several periods of time when Old World monkeys were more diverse than apes, reflecting the greater ecological adaptability of monkeys compared to apes.

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in snapdragons, red flower color (cr) is incompletely dominant to white (cw); and the crcw heterozygotes are pink. a red-flowered snapdragon is crossed with a white-flowered one. determine the flower color of

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In snapdragons, the red flower color (CR) is incompletely dominant to white (CW). When a red-flowered snapdragon is crossed with a white-flowered one, the offspring's phenotype will be:50% red25% pink25% white.


According to the given problem statement, we can assume that the following:Red flower color (CR) in snapdragons is incompletely dominant to white (CW); and the CRCW heterozygotes are pink. A red-flowered snapdragon is crossed with a white-flowered one.

We are required to determine the flower color of the offspring. The expected flower color of the offspring when a red-flowered snapdragon is crossed with a white-flowered one can be determined using the Punnett square.

Here's the Punnett square:

Step 1: Write down the parental genotypes. The red-flowered snapdragon can be denoted as CR/CR.The white-flowered snapdragon can be denoted as CW/CW.

Step 2: Write down the genotypes of the offspring as determined by Mendelian genetics. Possible offspring genotypes can be: CR/CW, CR/CR, and CW/CW.

Step 3: Determine the phenotypes of the offspring. The phenotype ratio of a CR/CW genotype would be pink, whereas a CR/CR genotype would be red and a CW/CW genotype would be white. The phenotype ratio of the offspring can be calculated using the following formula:

Pink: Red: White = 1: 2: 1

Therefore, the offspring's phenotype will be:50% red25% pink25% white.

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The Peruvian anchovy fishery occurs a highly productive region with coastal upwelling. Why is this fishery considered to have high trophic efficiency? a. anchovies are r-selected organisms b. anchovies are primary consumers feeding on plankton c. the fishery has 7 trophic levels which makes it very efficient
d. anchovies are primary producers with high photosynthetic rates e. anchovies consume other fish

Answers

The Peruvian anchovy fishery is considered to have high trophic efficiency because anchovies are primary consumers feeding on plankton. This means that they are situated low in the food chain, consuming primary producers like phytoplankton directly.

The Peruvian anchovy fishery occurs in a highly productive region with coastal upwelling. Therefore, it is considered to have high trophic efficiency because anchovies are primary consumers feeding on plankton. The correct option is b. anchovies are primary consumers feeding on plankton. Trophic efficiency is a measure of the amount of energy that flows through each level of the food chain.

The Peruvian anchovy fishery is an excellent example of a highly efficient food chain due to its short length and high trophic efficiency. Anchovies are primary consumers that feed on plankton, which are tiny organisms that live in the ocean. Since plankton is high in nutrients, anchovies can efficiently convert these nutrients into energy for growth and reproduction. This is why anchovies are so efficient at converting energy into biomass, which makes them valuable for commercial fishing.

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in 2014, an outbreak of ebola virus disease began in west africa in which there was a sharp increase in the number of people being diagnosed with this disease. at the same time, a very high proportion of those who were diagnosed died from the disease. the epidemiologic characteristics of this disease include:

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The epidemiologic characteristics of this disease include: This disease spreads through contact with the bodily fluids of infected people, such as blood, sweat, saliva, vomit, and feces. The Ebola virus can remain in bodily fluids even after the infected person has died or recovered.

In 2014, an outbreak of Ebola virus disease began in West Africa in which there was a sharp increase in the number of people being diagnosed with this disease. At the same time, a very high proportion of those who were diagnosed died from the disease.

Symptoms of Ebola virus disease include fever, headache, muscle pain, fatigue, diarrhea, vomiting, and unexplained bleeding. The virus can be transmitted through contact with infected animals, such as bats and monkeys, as well as through contact with contaminated surfaces and materials.

Health workers are at particular risk of contracting the disease due to their close contact with infected patients. In order to prevent the spread of Ebola virus disease, it is important to practice good hygiene and to take appropriate precautions when dealing with infected patients or materials.

Treatment for Ebola virus disease is primarily supportive care, such as intravenous fluids and electrolyte replacement. Antiviral medications and experimental treatments may also be used in certain cases.

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in modern chinese medicine, cannabis seeds have little medicinal value. true or false

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Cannabis seeds have minimal therapeutic use in contemporary Chinese medicine. Cannabis seeds are a common treatment in contemporary Chinese medicine due to their moderate laxative properties. True.

The only component of the cannabis plant still utilized often for therapeutic purposes today is the seed. The bloom, leaves, and roots of the plant were all utilized historically, though. The goal of traditional Chinese medicine is to reestablish the body's equilibrium and harmony between the yin and yang, which are the body's naturally conflicting energies and can obstruct qi and lead to sickness.

Acupuncture, nutrition, herbal treatment, meditation, physical activity, and massage are all part of traditional Chinese medicine. Cannabis was referred to as one of the wu gu, or five essential food crops, in ancient Chinese writings.

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The next generation of rabbits has 560 individuals with short ears and 840 individuals with floppy ears. Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? Solve for p and q.

Answers

The population is not in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. P is found to be 0.632 and q is 0.775.

Step by step explanation

To determine whether the population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, we need to compare the observed genotype frequencies to the expected frequencies based on the allele frequencies.

Let p be the frequency of the dominant allele (associated with short ears) and q be the frequency of the recessive allele (associated with floppy ears).

The total number of individuals in the population is:

560 (short ears) + 840 (floppy ears) = 1400

The frequency of the dominant allele (p) can be calculated as follows:

p^2 = number of individuals with the homozygous dominant genotype = 560/1400 = 0.4

p = sqrt(0.4) = 0.632

Similarly, the frequency of the recessive allele (q) can be calculated as:

q^2 = number of individuals with the homozygous recessive genotype = 840/1400 = 0.6

q = sqrt(0.6) = 0.775

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you wish to express a cloned eukaryotic cdna in bacteria. what type of sequence must you add for the mrna to be translated on bacterial ribosomes?

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In order to express a cloned eukaryotic cDNA in bacteria, the sequence that needs to be added for mRNA to be translated on bacterial ribosomes is the prokaryotic ribosome-binding site (RBS). The bacterial ribosomes bind to the mRNA sequences through the 16S rRNA subunit.

The prokaryotic ribosome-binding site (RBS) is a sequence of RNA that is positioned just upstream of the start codon (AUG). It is also known as the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, which is complementary to the 3' end of the 16S rRNA of the bacterial ribosome.The prokaryotic ribosome-binding site (RBS) can bind to the bacterial ribosomes, initiating the translation process. It plays a critical role in the initiation of translation in bacterial cells. It is critical to express eukaryotic cDNAs in bacterial cells to clone the DNA sequence of interest.The bacterial ribosomes, on the other hand, are incompatible with eukaryotic mRNA due to differences in their translation machinery. Eukaryotic mRNA lacks the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, which is required for bacterial ribosomes to bind mRNA. As a result, in order to express cloned eukaryotic cDNA in bacterial cells, a prokaryotic ribosome-binding site (RBS) must be added to the mRNA sequence.

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What role does alleles play in evolution?

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Alleles are different gene types that might exist at the same spot on a chromosome (locus) on account of mutations. Alleles can impact how features or qualities are expressed in an organism.

Alleles are different gene types that might exist at the same spot on a chromosome (locus) on account of mutations. Alleles can impact how features or qualities are expressed in an organism, and they can be inherited from one set of parents to another through the process of procreation.

Genetic drift is the process through which the frequency of distinct alleles in a population fluctuates over time, and it occurs in the context of evolution. During the process of natural selection, alleles that are advantageous for survival and reproduction in a specific environment may gradually become more prevalent in a population as people with such alleles are more likely to survive and pass on their genes to the following generation.

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The first step is “denaturation” when the temperature is raised to 94-96℃. What happens to the DNA during this step?


In the next step, the temperature is lowered to 50-65℃ . What happens to the DNA during this step?


In the next step, the temperature is raised to 72℃ so that Taq polymerase, an enzyme, can bind to the DNA. What does the polymerase enzyme do to the DNA?


What happens to the DNA when the temperature is raised, lowered, and raised again?



What happens to the number of copies of DNA as the cycle continues?


How many copies of DNA are made after 30 cycles?

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The process being described is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR),  and the number of copies of DNA after 30 cycles is approximately 1.07 billion copies of DNA.

What are the steps of the DNA polymerase chain reaction?

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a specific region of DNA

During the first step of denaturation, the temperature is raised to 94-96℃, causing the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of the DNA double helix to break, resulting in the separation of the two strands of DNA.

In the next step, the temperature is lowered to 50-65℃, allowing the primers to anneal (or bind) to the complementary single-stranded DNA templates.

In the next step, the temperature is raised to 72℃, which is the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase, an enzyme, to bind to the DNA.

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Which statement correctly describes the flow of energy in the food chain? (2 points) a In the food chain, energy flows from the sun to consumers. Consumers make their own food using the energy from the sun that then flows to producers. b In the food chain, energy flows from the sun to producers. Producers, such as plants, use the energy from the sun to make food that then flows to consumers. c The flow of energy in the food chain depends on which living and nonliving things produce and consume food. d The flow of energy in the food chain starts with the consumers who produce their own food. This food then flows from the consumers to producers.

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The correct statement that describes the flow of energy in the food chain is option b: In the food chain, energy flows from the sun to producers.

Producers, such as plants, use the energy from the sun to make food that then flows to consumers.

This statement describes the process of photosynthesis, where plants, algae, and some bacteria use the energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into organic compounds, such as glucose, which serves as a source of food for consumers in the food chain.

Consumers, such as herbivores, then consume the plants, and carnivores consume the herbivores, which results in the transfer of energy from one organism to the next in the food chain. As energy flows from one organism to another, it is gradually lost as heat, which is why there are typically fewer consumers in higher trophic levels of the food chain.

Therefore, option b correctly describes the flow of energy in the food chain as it accurately reflects the role of the sun, producers, and consumers in this process.

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Which part of the respiratory system that serves both the respiratory and digestive system by receiving air from the nasal cavity and air food and water from the oral cavity?

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Answer:

pharynx

Explanation:

rna polymerase requires a primer to initiate polynucleotide synthesis. (True or False)

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The given statement, "RNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate polynucleotide synthesis," is false because it can start the de novo synthesis of RNA transcript.

RNA polymerase or more specifically called DNA dependent RNA polymerase is the enzyme involved in the process of transcription where RNA is synthesized using one of the two DNA strands as the template. There are various types of this enzyme which transcribe different types of amino acids.

RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid. It can act as a genetic material in few organisms, particularly in viruses. There can be various forms of RNA, like r-RNA, m-RNA, t-RNA, etc. The type of RNA that contains the information from DNA is m-RNA.

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