A 25-foot long ladder is propped against a wall at an angle of 18° with the wall. which diagram correctly represents this scenario? a ladder is propped against a 25 foot tall wall. the angle between the ladder and the ground is 18 degrees. a 25 foot ladder is propped against a wall forming an 18 degree angle. a ladder is propped against a wall forming an 18 degree angle. the distance between the bottom of the ladder and the wall is 25 feet. a 25 foot ladder is propped against a wall. the angle between the ladder and the ground is 18 degrees.

Answer:18

Step-by-step explanation: eight equals 24 hours so 75 hours equals 18

Answer:

75% of 3 days is 54 hours. 3 days is 72 hours, 72=100%, x = 75%, 72/x = 100%/75% x/72 = 75/100, x = 54.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that to find unit price, we divide the unit in the numerator by the quantity in the denominator.

For the first option, we must put $1.49 as the numerator and 8 as the denominator. It will then look like this:

For our second option, we must put $2.29 as the numerator, and 12 as the denominator. It will look like this:

For our third option, we must put $2.75 as the numerator, and 15 as the denominator. It will look like this:

For our final option, we must put $3.89 as the numerator, and 20 as the denominator. It will look like this:

Therefore, the last option is the best buy because $0.18625 > $0.18333.

Answer:

supplementary

Consecutive angles are supplementary (A + D = 180°). If one angle is right, then all angles are right. The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. Each diagonal of a parallelogram separates it into two congruent triangles.

Answer:

Supplementary

Step-by-step explanation:

The consecutive angles of a parallelogram are supplementary.

Two angles that add up to 180° are called supplementary angles.

This can be proven by creating a parallelogram and extending all segments to create two parallel lines transversing another set of two parallel lines.

I drew a diagram of this shape and considering that all the opposite lines are parallel, the central shape is a parallelogram.

Looking at the diagram attached, we know that the angle of a straight line is 180° (represented by the yellow of Angle 1 and the pink angle next to it) All angles of the same color are congruent by angle theorems consisting of corresponding and vertical angles.

If pink is x, and yellow is y, then we can say that x + y = 180°

So, therefore we can say that the consecutive angles of the parallelogram (Angle 1 and Angle 2) sum up to 180°, because they are made up of one pink angle and one yellow angle ( x and y )

The salaries will be the same in year 20 and she will be earning $80,000. So, the first option is correct.

The equation of the straight line has its slope and given point.

If we have a non-vertical line that passes through any point(x1, y1) has gradient m. then general point (x, y) must satisfy the equation

                  y-y₁ = m(x-x₁)

Which is the required equation of a line in a point-slope form.

We will first create an equation to represent the data.

To find the slope we use the formula

m = (y₂-y₁)/(x₂-x₁)

= (60,000-55,000) / (12-10)

= 5,000/2 = 2500

Writing this in point-slope form, we have

y-y₁ = m(x-x₁)

y-55,000 = 2500(x-10)

Converting to slope-intercept form,

y-55,000 = 2500 × x - 2500 × 10

y - 55,000 = 2500x - 25,000

y = 2500x + 30,000  

Now we set this equal to the equation from the graph:

2500x + 30,000 = 2000x + 40,000

Subtract 2000x from both sides:

2500x + 30,000 - 2000x = 2000x + 40,000 - 2000x

500x + 30,000 = 40,000

500x = 40,000 - 30,000

500x = 10,000

x = 10,000/500

x = 20

The salaries will be the same in year 20.

y= 2000(20) + 40,000

y= 40,000 + 40,000

= 80,000

The salary in year 20 will be $80,000.

Learn more about a point-slope form;

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Answer:

D & B

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)=(x-2)^{2} -3[/tex]

The vertex: (2, -3)

[tex]f(2)=(2-2)^{2} -3=0-3=-3[/tex]

Hope this helps

Answer:

1) D. f(x) = (x - 2)² - 3

2) B. (2, -3)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps!

Answer:

343

Step-by-step explanation:

Finding? How many people with a library card should he expect in the population?

Important? Population = 700. Sample 1= 53%. Sample 2 = 51%. Sample 3 = 43%.

How? Average the 3 samples percentages together. The percent sign tells us what the sample size is (% = out of 100). Set up the proportions for library card to sample size and then library card to population. Cross multiply.

h-hey baddie! UwU! The answer is 24. Hope this helps onichan!-

Answer:

Humans

Explanation:

So I can have wings :)

Answer:

If I could put wings on any species of animal, I would choose a Unicorn because then the Unicorn can fly and look at all the enviroment.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let function p(x) be the price that is reduced by 15% if the bill is x dollars.

Since the price is not payed in full 100% is reduced by 15% we only pay

100 - 15 = 85 % of the original price.

p(x) = x· (100% - 15 %)  = x· 85% = 0.85 x

The function used to calculate any bill that is reduced by 15% is:

p(x) = 0.85x

x - is the bill before being reduced by the coupon

Answer:

Obliviousness: Being unaware of something.

Step-by-step explanation:

The way to find sidewalk area :")

Answer:

Exact - 40n m²

Approximate 125.6m²

Step-by-step explanation:

Exact area of the sidewalk - n * (11 m)² - n * (9 m)²

- n * 121 m²- n * 81 m²

Exact area of the sidewalk - 40n m²

To find the approximate area of side walk let us substitute pi equals 3.14.

40*3.14 m²

Approximate area of the side walk - 125.6 m²

Therefore the exact area is 40n m² , the approximate area is 125.6 m²

Answer:

(12, 6 )

Step-by-step explanation:

locate 12 cups of flour on the x- axis, then go vertically up to meet the line at (12, 6 )

that is 6 cups of sugar would be used with 12 cups of flour.

The true solution x for the logarithmic equation which is shown below will be 75.

[tex]2 \ln e^{\ln 2x} - \ln e ^{\ln 10} = \ln 30[/tex]

Logarithms are another way of writing exponent. A logarithm with a number base is equal to the other number. It is just the opposite of the exponent function.

The logarithmic equation is given below.

[tex]2 \ln e^{\ln 2x} - \ln e ^{\ln 10} = \ln 30[/tex]

We know that the properties of the logarithm

[tex]e ^{\ln x} = x\\\\a \ln b = \ln b^a\\\\\ln a - \ln b = \ln (\dfrac{a}{b})[/tex]

Then we have

[tex]\begin{aligned} 2 \ln 2x - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln (2x)^2 - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln 4x^2 - \ln 10x &= \ln 30\\\\\ln \dfrac{4x^2 }{10x} &= \ln 30\\\\\ln \dfrac{2x}{5} &= \ln 30 \end{aligned}[/tex]

Taking anti-log, then we have

[tex]\rm \dfrac{2x}{5} = 30\\\\2x \ = 150\\\\x \ \ = 75[/tex]

More about the logarithm link is given below.

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Answer:

x = 75 or b

Step-by-step explanation:

Trust me

Answer:The  median of the distribution is (first option)

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The values on the given table are presented as follows;

Value of spin: 0,1,2,5,10

Probability: 0.4,0.2,0.2,0.1,0.1

To find the median, we calculate the cumulative probabilities to find the value of the spin art which the cumulative probability is 0.5 as follows;

Cumulative probability, starting from the left, is therefore;

Probability for spin of 0, 0.4 + Probability for spin of 1, 0.2 = 0.6
Therefore, given that the probability of 0.5 occurs within the Value of Spin 1, the median of the probability distribution is 1

The solution is : The  median of the distribution is (first option) 1

In statistics and probability theory, the median is the value separating the higher half from the lower half of a data sample, a population, or a probability distribution. For a data set, it may be thought of as "the middle" value.

here, we have,

The values on the given table are presented as follows;

Value of spin: 0,1,2,5,10

Probability: 0.4,0.2,0.2,0.1,0.1

To find the median, we calculate the cumulative probabilities to find the value of the spin art which the cumulative probability is 0.5 as follows;

Cumulative probability, starting from the left, is therefore;

Probability for spin of 0, 0.4 + Probability for spin of 1, 0.2 = 0.6

Therefore, given that the probability of 0.5 occurs within the Value of Spin 1,

the median of the probability distribution is 1.

Hence, The solution is : The  median of the distribution is (first option) 1

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The factors of 36x^8 – 49 are  (6x^4-7)(6x^4+7).

We are given to factor the following polynomial completely:

36x^8 – 49.

We have to find the complete factor of the given polynomial.

Completely factor means to continuously factor terms until they are in simple terms, meaning you are no longer able to factor

The formula for (a^2-b^2)= (a+b) (a-b).

Therefore applying the given formula we have,

[tex]F=(6x^4)^2-7^2[/tex]

[tex]F=(6x^4)^2-7^2\\F=((6x^4)-7)(6x^4)+7)[/tex]

Thus, the required factors are

[tex]F=((6x^4)-7)(6x^4)+7)[/tex]

Therefore,option (C) is correct.

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The factors of 36x^8 – 49 are  (6x^4-7)(6x^4+7).

We are given to factor the following polynomial completely:

36x^8 – 49.

We have to find the complete factor of the given polynomial.

Completely factor means to continuously factor terms until they are in simple terms, meaning you are no longer able to factor

What is the formula for (a^2-b^2)?

The formula for (a^2-b^2)= (a+b) (a-b).

Therefore applying the given formula we have,

b

Thus, the required factors are

b

Area of semi circle = π r²/2

= π 20 × 20 / 2

= 200 π

= 628 cm² (approx)

Answer:

To the nearest whole number : 628

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the area of a circle is :

To work out the area you would first need to work out the radius. You can do this by dividing the diameter of 40 cm by 2, this gives you 20 cm. This is because the radius is half of the diameter.

Now that we have worked out the radius, the next step would be to work out the area. You can do this by multiplying pi by the radius of 20 squared, this gives you 1256.64.

The final step is to work out the area of this semi-circle. You can do this by dividing the area of 1256.64 by 2, this gives you 628.32 . This is because a semi-circle is half of a circle.

1) Divide 40 by 2.

2) Multiply pi by 20 squared.

3) Divide 1256.64 by 2.

Answer:

m∠WVZ=90°

m∠XVW=90°

Step-by-step explanation:

m∠WVY=m∠WVZ+m∠ZVY

180°=9x-15°+90°

180°=9x+75°

180-75=9x

105°=9x

⇒x =    [tex]\frac{35}{3}[/tex]

So. m∠WVZ is

[tex]=9(\frac{35}{3})-15=3\times35-15\\=105-15=90[/tex]

m∠WVZ=90°

and same will be the m∠XVW

m∠XVZ=m∠XVW+m∠WVZ

180°=m∠XVW+90°

m∠XVW=180°-90°

m∠XVW=90°

Answer:

Option c

(3,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving system of equations:

y = -x + 4  ----------(I)

y = x - 2 -----------(II)

Add equation (I) & (II). So, x will be eliminated and we can find the value of y.

      (I)       y = -x + 4

     (II)       y = x -  2   {Now add}

               2y = 2

Divide both sides by 2

                y = 2/2

y =1

Substitute y = 1 in any of the equations. Here, we are substituting in equation  (II)

1 = x - 2

1 + 2 = x

x = 3

Answer:

The area is 3 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 3 ft because if you do ¾×4 because of the four sides you will get 12/4 and that equals 3

Answer:

Answer

d) 2 – i

Explanation

f(x) = x³ – 2x²

When x = i, we proceed as follows.

Note: i =

         i² =(√-1)(√-1) =  -1

         i³ = (√-1)(√-1)(√-1) = -1(√-1) = -1i = -i

f(x) = x³ – 2x²

f(i) = i³ – 2i²

    = -i – 2(-1)

    = -i + 2

     = 2 – i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry i dont know the answer im just a children's

Answer:

138.82

Step-by-step explanation:

Line up the numbers on the right - do not line the decimal points.

Start on the right, multiply each digit in the top number by each digit in the bottom number, just as with whole numbers.

then you add the products.

Answer:

138.82

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the numbers using the normal multiplication process. Now, count the number of digits after the decimal point in both the numbers. Add these 2 values & put the decimal point in the product by counting the digits from the left side of the place value. The answer is 138.82.

=》 Check the attachment for the steps.

_____________

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

60% chance a girl is picked

Step-by-step explanation:

There is 10 students in total. 6 out of 10 are girls. We can represent this in a fraction 6/10. Now we convert the fraction into a percentage 60%.

Answer:

1

+t

3

+t

5

=39

t

2

+t

4

+t

6

=51

To find:

t

10

=?

Solution:

Let a be the first term and d be the common difference.

t

1

+t

3

+t

5

=39

or, a+a+2d+a+4d=39

or, 3a+6d=39

or, a+2d=13 .............(i)

t

2

+t

4

+t

6

=51

or, a+d+a+3d+a+5d=51

or, 3a+9d=51

or, a+3d=17

Subtracting eqn. from eqn. we get,

d=4

Putting value d=4 in eqn.(i) we get,

a+2×4=13

or, a=13−8

or, a=5

Now, t

10

=a+9d

t

10

=5+9×4

t

10

=5+36

t

10

=41

oliver bought 7 bags of candy each bags cost 1.50  

Answer-$10.50

Answer:

10.5

Step-by-step explanation:

you take 1.50 and times it by how many bags there are so 7

1.50×7=10.5

The quotient of the equation is 1.5.

The quotient is the number that is generated when we perform division operations on two numbers. Basically, it is the result of the division method.

The given equation is;

[tex]\rm \dfrac{2m+4}{8}\div \dfrac{m+2}{6}[/tex]

By fraction, a quotient is a number obtained by dividing the dividend by the divisor which is a simple division of numerator and denominator.

The solution of the equation is determined in the following steps given below.

[tex]=\rm \dfrac{2m+4}{8}\div \dfrac{m+2}{6}\\\\=\rm \dfrac{2m+4}{8}\times \dfrac{6}{m+2}\\\\=\rm \dfrac{2(m+2)}{8}\times \dfrac{6}{m+2}\\\\=\dfrac{2\times 6}{8}\\\\=\dfrac{12}{8}\\\\=1.5[/tex]

Hence, the quotient of the equation is 1.5.

Learn more about quotient here;

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Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

What is the quotient?

StartFraction 2 m + 4 Over 8 EndFraction divided by StartFraction m + 2 Over 6 EndFraction

StartFraction 24 Over (m + 2) squared EndFraction

StartFraction (m + 2) squared Over 24 EndFraction

Two-thirds

Three-halves

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

3(-2)^2+(-2)−2=8