3. According to Hund's rule, what's the expected magnetic behavior of vanadium (V)?
O A. Ferromagnetic
O B. Non-magnetic
C. Diamagnetic
O D. Paramagnetic​

Answer:

931.00ft-lb

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

The work done in moving the object from x = 1 ft to x = 18 ft is 935  ft-lb.

Work is the product of the displacement's magnitude and the component of force acting in that direction. It is a scalar quantity having only magnitude and Si unit of work is Joule.

Given that force = 6x - 2 pounds.

So, work done in moving the object from x = 1 ft to x = 18 ft is = [tex]\int\limits^{18}_1 {(6x-2)} \, dx[/tex]

= [ 3x² - 2x]¹⁸₁

= 3(18² - 1² ) - 2(18-1) ft-lb

= 935  ft-lb.

Hence, the work done is  935  ft-lb.

Learn more about work here:

https://brainly.com/question/18094932

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

The relation between activity and number of radioactive atom in the sample is as follows

dN / dt = λ N where λ is disintegration constant and N is number of radioactive atoms

For the beginning period

dN₀ / dt = λ N₀

58.2 = λ N₀

similarly

41 = λ N

dividing

58.2 / 41 = N₀ / N

N = N₀ x .70446

formula of radioactive decay

[tex]N=N_0e^{-\lambda t }[/tex]

[tex].70446 =e^{-\lambda t }[/tex]

- λ t = ln .70446 =   - .35

t = .35 / λ

λ = .693 / half life

= .693 / 5715

= .00012126

t = .35 / .00012126

= 2886.36

= 2900 years ( rounding it in two significant figures )

Answer:

υ = 9.375 x 10¹⁴ Hz to 10.34 x 10¹⁴ Hz

Explanation:

The frequency of an electromagnetic radiation can be given by the following formula:

υ = c/λ

where,

υ = frequency of electromagnetic wave = ?

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

λ = wavelength of electromagnetic wave = 290 nm to 320 nm

FOR LOWER LIMIT OF FREQUENCY:

λ = 320 nm = 3.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

υ = (3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(3.2 x 10⁻⁷ m)

υ = 9.375 x 10¹⁴ Hz

FOR UPPER LIMIT OF FREQUENCY:

λ = 290 nm = 3.2 x 10⁻⁷ m

Therefore,

υ = (3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(2.9 x 10⁻⁷ m)

υ = 10.34 x 10¹⁴ Hz

Therefore, the frequency range for UVB radiations is:

υ = 9.375 x 10¹⁴ Hz to 10.34 x 10¹⁴ Hz

Answer: A) [tex]P_{x}[/tex] = 564.4 N

              B) [tex]P_{y}[/tex] = 374 N

Explanation: The ladder forms with the wall a right triangle, with one unknown side. To find it, use Pythagorean Theorem:

[tex]hypotenuse^{2} = side^{2} + side^{2}[/tex]

[tex]side = \sqrt{hypotenuse^{2} - side^{2}}[/tex]

side = [tex]\sqrt{3^{2} - 2.5^{2}}[/tex]

side = 1.65

Tom's weight is a vector pointing downwards. Since he is at an angle to the floor, the gravitational force has two components: one that is parallel to the floor ([tex]P_{x}[/tex]) and othe that is perpendicular ([tex]P_{y}[/tex]). These two vectors and weight, which is gravitational force, forms a right triangle with the same angle the ladder creates with the floor.

The image in the attachment illustrates the described above.

A) [tex]P_{x}[/tex] = P sen θ

[tex]P_{x} = P.\frac{oppositeside}{hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]P_{x}[/tex] = 680.[tex]\frac{1.65}{3}[/tex]

[tex]P_{x}[/tex] = 564.4 N

B) [tex]P_{y}[/tex] = P cos θ

[tex]P_{y} = P.\frac{adjacentside}{hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]P_{y}[/tex] = 680. [tex]\frac{1.65}{3}[/tex]

[tex]P_{y}[/tex] = 374 N

Answer:

a)   x = 2.46 m

b)   318.2 N

c)    177.8 N

Explanation:

Need to resolve the tension of the string at end say B.

The vertical upward force at B due to tension is 450 sin 45°.  

Using Principle of Moments, with the pivot at A,

Anti clockwise moments = Clockwise moments

450 sin 45° X 3.2   = 220 X (3.2/2) + (270 X x)  

x = 2.46 m

(b) The horizontal force is only due to the wire's tension, so it is  

450 cos 45° = 318.2 N

(c) total downward forces = 270 + 220 = 496 N  

Total upward forces = 450 sin 45° (at B) + upForce (at A)

Equating, upForce = 496 - 318.2  

= 177.8 N

Answer:

t = 2.95 min

Explanation:

Given that,

The diameter of flywheeel, d = 1.5 m

Mass of flywheel, m = 250 kg

Initial angular velocity is 0

Final angular velocity, [tex]\omega_f=1200\ rpm = 126\ rad/s[/tex]

We need to find the time taken by the flywheel to each a speed of 1200 rpm if it starts from rest.

Firstly, we will find the angular acceleration of the flywheel.

The moment of inertia of the flywheel,

[tex]I=\dfrac{1}{2}mr^2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 250\times (0.75)^2\\\\I=70.31\ kg-m^2[/tex]

Now,

Let the torque is 50 N-m. So,

[tex]\alpha =\dfrac{\tau}{I}\\\\\alpha =\dfrac{50}{70.31}\\\\\alpha =0.711\ rad/s^2[/tex]

So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{\omega_f-\omega_i}{\alpha }\\\\t=\dfrac{126-0}{0.711}\\\\t=177.21\ s[/tex]

or

t = 2.95 min

Answer:

Explanation:

Range is defined as the distance covered in the horizontal direction. In projectile, range is expressed as x = vt where;

x is the range

v is the velocity of the runner

t is the time taken

Before we can get the range though, we need to find the time taken t using the relationship S = ut + 1/2gt²

if u = 0

S = 1/2gt²

2S = gt²

t² = 2S/g

t = √2S/g

t = √2(141)/9.8

t = √282/9.8

t = 5.36secs

The range x = 52.4*5.36

x =280.86 m

Hence, the coyort lies approximately 280.86 m from the base of the cliff

Answer:

The expected year is 2017.

Explanation:

Total years that the millionaire to live = 15 years

Travel away from the earth at  = 0.8 c

This is a time dilation problem so if she travels at 0.8 c then her time will pass at slower. Below is the following calculation:

[tex]T = \frac{T_o}{ \sqrt{1-\frac{V^2}{c^2}}} \\T = \frac{15}{ \sqrt{1-\frac{0.8^2}{c^2}}} \\T = 25 years[/tex]

Thus the doctors are expecting to celebrate in the year, 1992 + 25 = 2017

In this circuit the resistance R1 is 3Ω, R2 is 7Ω, and R3 is 7Ω. If this combination of resistors were to be replaced by a single resistor with an equivalent resistance, what should that resistance be?

Answer:

9.1Ω

Explanation:

The circuit diagram has been attached to this response.

(i) From the diagram, resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel to each other. The reciprocal of their equivalent resistance, say Rₓ, is the sum of the reciprocals of the resistances of each of them. i.e

[tex]\frac{1}{R_X} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}[/tex]

=> [tex]R_{X} = \frac{R_1 * R_2}{R_1 + R_2}[/tex]             ------------(i)

From the question;

R1 = 3Ω,

R2 = 7Ω

Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;

[tex]R_{X} = \frac{3 * 7}{3 + 7}[/tex]

[tex]R_{X} = \frac{21}{10}[/tex]

[tex]R_{X} = 2.1[/tex]Ω

(ii) Now, since we have found the equivalent resistance (Rₓ) of R1 and R2, this resistance (Rₓ) is in series with the third resistor. i.e Rₓ and R3 are connected in series. This is shown in the second image attached to this response.

Because these resistors are connected in series, they can be replaced by a single resistor with an equivalent resistance R. Where R is the sum of the resistances of the two resistors: Rₓ and R3. i.e

R = Rₓ + R3

Rₓ = 2.1Ω

R3 = 7Ω

=> R = 2.1Ω + 7Ω = 9.1Ω

Therefore, the combination of the resistors R1, R2 and R3 can be replaced with a single resistor with an equivalent resistance of 9.1Ω

Answer:

The only suitable candidate is steel.

Explanation:

We are given;

Initial length;L_o = 120 mm = 0.12 m

Diameter;d_o = 15 mm = 0.015 m

Radius;r = 0.015/2 m = 0.0075 m

Applied force;F = 35000 N

Allowable Diameter reduction;Δd = 1.2 x 10^(-2) mm = 0.012 mm

Formula for Poisson’s ratio is;

v = ε_x/ε_z

Where;

ε_x is lateral strain = = Δd/d_o

ε_z is axial strain = σ/E

Thus;

v = (Δd/d_o)/(σ/E)

Making Δd the subject, we have;

Δd = (vσd_o)/E

Where σ is force per unit area

σ = F/A = 35000/πr² = 35000/(π0.0075)² = 198 × 10^(6) Pa

Now, let's find Δd for each of the metals given;

For Titanium alloy, E = 70 GPa = 70 × 10^(9) Pa and Poisson’s ratio (v) = 0.33

Thus;

Δd_ti = (0.33 × 198 × 10^(6) × 0.015)/70 × 10^(9) = 0.000014m = 0.014 mm

Similarly, for steel;

Δd_st = (0.36 × 198 × 10^(6) × 0.015)/(105 × 10^(9)) = 0.0000102 m = 0.0102 mm

For magnesium;

Δd_mn = (0.27 × 198 × 10^(6) × 0.015)/(205 × 10^(9)) = 0.0000039 m = 0.0039 mm

For aluminum;

Δd_al = (0.2 × 198 × 10^(6) × 0.015)/(45 × 10^(9)) = 0.0000132 m = 0.0132 mm

Since they must not experience a diameter reduction of more than 0.012 mm, then the only alloy that has a reduction diameter less than 0.012 is steel which has 0.0102.

Thus,the only possible candidate is stee.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given the height reached by a balloon after t sec modeled by the equation

h=1/2t²+1/2t

a) To calculate the height of the balloon after 40 secs we will substitute t = 40 into the modeled equation and calculate the value of t

If h(t)=1/2t²+1/2t

h(40) = 1/2(40)²+1/2 (40)

h(40) = 1600/2 + 40/2

h(40) = 800 + 20

h(40) = 820 feet

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is 820 feet

b) Velocity is the change of displacement of a body with respect to time.

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

when v = 0sec

v(0) = 0 + 1/2

v(0) = 1/2 ft/sec

at v = 30secs

v(30) = 30 + 1/2

v(30) = 30 1/2 ft/sec

average velocity = v(30) - v(0)

average velocity = 30 1/2 - 1/2

average velocity of the balloon between t = 0 and t = 30 = 30 ft/sec

c) Velocity is the change of displacement of a body with respect to time.

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

The velocity of the balloon after 30secs will be;

v(30) = 30+1/2

v(30) = 30.5ft/sec

The velocity of the balloon after 30 secs is 30.5 feet/sec

A)  The height of the balloon at the end of 40 sec is 820 feet.

B) The average velocity of the balloon is 30 ft/sec.

C) The velocity of the balloon at the end of 30 sec is

Given :

Part A)

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is :

h(t)=1/2t²+1/2t

h(40) = 1/2(40)²+1/2 (40)

h(40) = 1600/2 + 40/2

h(40) = 800 + 20

h(40) = 820 feet

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is 820 feet

Part B)

The average velocity of the balloon is  :

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

when v = 0 sec

v(0) = 0 + 1/2

v(0) = 1/2 ft/sec

When at v = 30secs

v(30) = 30 + 1/2

v(30) = 30 1/2 ft/sec

average velocity = v(30) - v(0)

average velocity = 30 1/2 - 1/2

average velocity of the balloon = 30 ft/sec

The average velocity of the balloon  is  30 ft/sec.

Part C)

The velocity of the balloon at the end of 30 sec is :

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

The velocity of the balloon after 30secs will be;

v(30) = 30+1/2

v(30) = 30.5ft/sec

The velocity of the balloon after 30 secs is 30.5 feet/sec.

Learn more about "Velocity":

https://brainly.com/question/862972?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

The induced emf in the short coil during this time is 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

Explanation:

The magnetic field at the center of the solenoid is given by;

B = μ(N/L)I

Where;

μ is permeability of free space

N is the number of turn

L is the length of the solenoid

I is the current in the solenoid

The rate of change of the field is given by;

[tex]\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} = \frac{\mu N \frac{\delta i}{\delta t} }{L} \\\\\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} = \frac{4\pi *10^{-7} *600* \frac{5}{0.6} }{0.25}\\\\\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} =0.02514 \ T/s[/tex]

The induced emf in the shorter coil is calculated as;

[tex]E = NA\frac{\delta B}{\delta t}[/tex]

where;

N is the number of turns in the shorter coil

A is the area of the shorter coil

Area of the shorter coil = πr²

The radius of the coil = 2.5cm / 2 = 1.25 cm = 0.0125 m

Area of the shorter coil = πr² = π(0.0125)² = 0.000491 m²

[tex]E = NA\frac{\delta B}{\delta t}[/tex]

E = 14 x 0.000491 x 0.02514

E = 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

Therefore, the induced emf in the short coil during this time is 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

The induced emf in the coil at the center of the longer solenoid is [tex]1.725\times10^{-4}V[/tex]

The induced emf is produced in a coil when the magnetic flux through the coil is changing. It opposes the change of magnetic flux. Mathematically it is represented as the negative rate of change of magnetic flux at follows:

[tex]E=-\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}[/tex]

where E is the induced emf,

[tex]\phi[/tex] is the magnetic flux through the coil.

The changing current varies the magnetic flux through the coil at the center of the long solenoid, which is given by:

[tex]\phi = \frac{\mu_oNIA}{L}[/tex]

so;

[tex]\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=\frac{\mu_oNA}{L} \frac{\delta I}{\delta t}[/tex]

where N is the number of turns of longer solenoid, A is the cross sectional area, I is the current and L is the length of the coil.

[tex]\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=\frac{4\pi \times10^{-7} \times600 \times \pi \times(1.25\times10^{-2})^2}{25\times10^{-2}} \frac{5}{60}\\\\\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=1.23\times10^{-7}Wb/s[/tex]

The emf produced in the coil at the center of the solenoid which has 14 turns will be:

[tex]E=N\frac{\delta \phi}{\delta t}\\\\E=14\times1.23\times10^{-7}V\\\\E=1.725\times10^{-4}V[/tex]

Learn more about induced emf:

https://brainly.com/question/16765199?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

100 degrees Celsius

Explanation:

Water starts to boil at 100 degrees celcius or 212 degrees fahrenheit.

At 100 degrees Celsius water begin to boil and turns to steam.

The melting point for water is 0 degrees C (32 degrees F). The boiling point of water varies with atmospheric pressure. At lower pressure or higher altitudes, the boiling point is lower. At sea level, pure water boils at 212 °F (100°C).

If the temperature is much above 212°F, the water will boil. That means that it won't just evaporate from the surface but will form vapor bubbles, which then grow, inside the liquid itself. If the water has very few dust flecks etc.

Learn more about a boiling point here https://brainly.com/question/40140

#SPJ2

Answer:

U_f = (U_o)/2)

Explanation:

The capacitance of a given capacitor is given by the formula;

C = ε_o•A/d

While energy stored in plates capacitor is given as; U_o = Q²/2C

Now,we are told that that all the dimensions of the capacitor plate is doubled. Thus, we now have;

C' = ε_o•4A/2d

Hence, C' = 2C

so capacitance is now doubled

Thus, the final energy stored between the plates of capacitor is given as;

U_f = Q²/2C'

From earlier, we saw that C' = 2C.

Thus;

U_f = Q²/2(2C)

U_f = Q²/4C

Rearranging, we have;

U_f = (1/2)(Q²/2C)

From earlier, U_o = Q²/2C

Hence,

U_f = (1/2)(U_o)

Or

U_f = (U_o/2)

Answer:

Explanation:

A microscope is made up of a convex lens and the nature of the image formed by the object viewed from it is a virtual image. Since the image is virtual, the image distance will be negative and the focal length will be positive (for convex lenses).

Using the lens formula to first calculate the image distance from the lens;

1/f = 1/u + 1/v

f is the focal length = 0.150 cm,

u is the object distance = 0.155 cm

v is the image distance.

Since the image distance is negative,

1/f = 1/u - 1/v

1/0.150 = 1/0.155 - 1/v

1/v = 1/0.155 - 1/0.15

1/v = 6.542 - 6.667

1/v = -0.125

v = 1/-0.125

v = -8 cm

Magnification = image distance/object distance

Mag = 8/0.155

Mag = 51.6

Magnification produces is 51.6

Answer:

In order to stay hydrated during warm-up(s) drink 8oz of water 20-30 mintues before you start exercising or during your warm-up(s), make sure you drink 7 to 10 oz of water every 10 to 20 minutes during exercise, and drink 8oz of water no more than 30 minutes after you exercise.

In order to stay hydrated during scheduled activity(s) drink 17 to 20 oz of water 2 to 3 hours before you start to exercise, like said before drink 8 oz of water 20 to 30 minutes before you start exercising or during your warm-up(s), drink 7 to 10 oz of water every 10 to 20 minutes during exercise, also said before drink 8 ounces of water no more than 30 minutes after you exercise.

Answer: My scheduled activity was one hour of softball practice. I play catcher, so my thighs and knees take a lot of abuse from kneeling and standing. The lunges were excellent at preparing my thighs for softball. The high knees exercise and arm pumping didn’t feed into softball too well. I suppose that they might help me with base running.

Explanation: EDMENTUM

Answer:

The magnitude of an earthquake is 5.6.

Explanation:

The magnitude of an earthquake can be found as follows:

[tex] M = log(\frac{I}{S}) [/tex]

Where:

I: is the intensity of the earthquake = 37.25 cm

S: is the intensity of a standard earthquake = 10⁻⁴ cm

Hence, the magnitude is:

[tex]M = log(\frac{I}{S}) = log(\frac{37.25}{10^{-4}}) = 5.6[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of an earthquake is 5.6.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

53°

Explanation:

I/Io*2= 0.18

0.18= cos²theta

Cos^-1(0.36) = 53°

Answer:

D. Q/2

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

the new surface charge density = Q/4πr²( initial surface charge density divided by 4)

Explanation:

charge density(surface) = Q/A = charge/area

let r be the initial radius of the disk

therefore, area A = πr²

charge density = Q/πr²

Now that the radius is doubled, let it be represented as R

∴ R = 2r

Recall, charge density = Q/A

A = πR = π(2r)² = 4πr²

the new surface charge density = Q/4πr²

the initial surface charge density divided by 4

Answer:

Explanation:

volume is same

π r₁² L₁  =π r₂²L₂

L₁ / L₂ = r₂² / r₁²

For resistance the formula is

R = ρ L / S where ρ is specific resistance , L is length and S is cross sectional area

R₁ = ρ L₁ / S₁

R₂ = ρ L₂ / S₂

Dividing

R₁ / R₂ = L₁ / L₂ x S₂ / S₁

=  L₁ / L₂ x r₂² / r²₁

= L₁ / L₂ x L₁ / L₂

= L₁²/ L₂²

L₂ = 1.1 L₁ ( GIVEN )

= L₁²/ (1.1L₁)²

1 / 1.21

R₂ / R₁ = 1.21 .

= 1.2

Answer:

Torque = 8.38Nm

Explanation:

Time= 8.00s

angular speed (w) =400 rpm

Moment of inertia (I)= 1.60kg.m2 about its rotation axis

We need to convert the angular speed from rpm to rad/ sec for consistency

2PI/60*n = 0.1047*409 = 41.8876 rad/sec

What constant torque is required to bring it up to an angular speed of 40rev/min in a time of 8s , starting from rest?

Then we need to use the formula below for our torque calculation

from basic equation T = J*dω/dt ...we get

Where : t= time in seconds

W= angular velocity

T = J*Δω/Δt = 1.60*41.8876/8.0 = 8.38 Nm

Therefore, constant torque that is required is 8.38 Nm

Torque can be defined as the twisting or turning force that tends to cause rotation around an axis. The required constant torque is 8.38 N-m.

Given-

Inertia of the flywheel is 1.60 kg m squared.

Angular speed of the flywheel [tex]n[/tex] is 400 rpm. Convert it into the rad/sec, we get,

[tex]\omega =\dfrac{2\pi }{60} \times n[/tex]

[tex]\omega =\dfrac{2\pi }{60} \times 400[/tex]

[tex]\omega = 41.89[/tex]

Thus, the angular speed of the flywheel [tex]\omega[/tex] is 41.89 rad/sec.

When a torque [tex]\tau[/tex] is applied to an object it begins to rotate with an acceleration inversely proportional to its moment of inertia [tex]I[/tex]. Mathematically,

[tex]\tau=\dfrac{\Delta \omega }{\Delta t} \times I[/tex]

[tex]\tau=\dfrac{ 41.89 }{8} \times 1.6[/tex]

[tex]\tau=8.38[/tex]

Hence, the required constant torque is 8.38 N-m.

to know more about the torque, follow the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/6855614

Answer:

Power=50.17dioptre

Power=50.17D

Explanation:

P=1/f = 1/d₀ + 1/d₁

Where d₀ = the eye's lens and the object distance= 5.70m=

d₁= the eye's lens and the image distance= 0.02m

f= focal length of the lense of the eye

We know that the object can be viewed clearly by the person ,then image and lens of the eye's distance needs to be equal with the retinal and the eye lens distance and this distance is given as 0.02m

Therefore, we can calculate the power using above formula

P= 1/5.70 + 1/0.02

Power=50.17dioptre

Therefore, the power the eye's is using to see the object from distance is 5.70D

Answer

0.2067m or 0.2067m

Explanation;

Let lenght of spring= Lo= 11cm=0.110m

It is hang from a mass of

3.05-kg having a length of L1= 12.40cm= 0.124m

Force required to stretch the spring= Fkx

But weight of mass mg= kx then K= Mg/x

K= 3.05-kg× 9.8)/(0.124m-.110m)

K=2135N

But potential Energy U= 0.5Kx

X=√ 2U/k

√(2*10)/2135

X=0.0967m

The required new length= L2= L0 ±x

=

.110m ± 0.0967m

X= 0.2067m or 0.2067m hence the total lenghth

Answer:

    f= 4,186  10²  Hz

Explanation:

El sistema descrito es un pendulo de torsión que oscila con con velocidad angular, que esta dada por

             w = √ k/I

donde ka es constante de torsion de hilo e I es el momento de inercia del disco

El  momento de inercia de indican que giran un eje que pasa                 por enronqueces

           I= ½ M R2  

reduzcamos las cantidades al sistema SI

         R= 1,4 cm = 0,014  m

         M= 430 g = 0,430 kg

substituimos

           w= √ (2 k/M R2)

calculemos  

           w = RA ( 2 370 / (0,430  0,014 2)

           w = 2,963 103 rad/s

la velocidad angular esta relacionada con la frecuencia por

            w =2pi f

            f= w/2π

            f= 2,963 10³/ (2π)

            f= 4,186  10²  Hz

Answer:

A) 3 interactions

B)  2.78 m/s

C)  2.78 m/s

D) 0 m/s

Explanation:

Given Data :

plastic buttons ( 2 ) = 2.0 g each

charge on each plastic buttons = +65 nC

A) The interactions that have potential energy can be expressed as

V net = v1 + v2 + v3

V net = 0 + [tex]\frac{kq1q2}{r12} + \frac{kq1q3}{r13} + \frac{kq2q3}{r23}[/tex]

hence the total interactions is (3)

B) The final speed of the left 2.0 g plastic button

U = [tex]\frac{9*10^9* 10^-18}{0.02} [ 65*250 + 65*250 + (65*65)/2 ][/tex]

U = 0.0155 J  

also U = [tex]2( 1/2 mv^2 )[/tex]

      U = mv^2 = 0.0155 J

therefore ;  v = [tex]\sqrt{0.0155/(2*10^-3)}[/tex] = 2.78 m/s

C) final speed of the right 2.0 g plastic button = Final speed of the right 2.0 g plastic button

v = 2.78 m/s

D) The final speed of the 5.0 g plastic button

= 0 m/s

Answer:A7.50kg object is hung from the bottom end of a vertical spring fastened to an overhead beam. The object is set into vertical oscillations having a period of2.30s. Find the force constant of the spring.

N/m

Explanation:

Answer:

The magnetic field is [tex]B = 8.20 *10^{-3} \ T[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  mass of the metal rod is  [tex]m = 0.12 \ kg[/tex]

    The current on the rod is  [tex]I = 4.1 \ A[/tex]

    The distance of separation(equivalent to length of the rod ) is [tex]L = 6.3 \ m[/tex]

     The coefficient of kinetic friction is [tex]\mu_k = 0.18[/tex]

      The kinetic frictional force is  [tex]F_k = 0.212 \ N[/tex]

     The constant speed is [tex]v = 5.1 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the magnetic force on the rod is mathematically represented as  

      [tex]F = B * I * L[/tex]

For  the rod to move with a constant velocity the magnetic force must be equal to the kinetic frictional force so

        [tex]F_ k = B* I * L[/tex]

=>      [tex]B = \frac{F_k}{L * I }[/tex]

=>       [tex]B = \frac{0.212}{ 6.3 * 4.1 }[/tex]

=>       [tex]B = 8.20 *10^{-3} \ T[/tex]

Given that,

The electric field is given by,

[tex]\vec{E}=E_{0}\sin(kx-\omega t)\hat{j}[/tex]

Suppose, B is the amplitude of magnetic field vector.

We need to find the complete expression for the magnetic field vector of the wave

Using formula of magnetic field

Direction of [tex](\vec{E}\times\vec{B})[/tex] vector is the direction of propagation of the wave .

Direction of magnetic field = [tex]\hat{j}[/tex]

[tex]B=B_{0}\sin(kx-\omega t)\hat{k}[/tex]

We need to calculate the poynting vector

Using formula of poynting

[tex]\vec{S}=\dfrac{E\times B}{\mu_{0}}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]\vec{S}=\dfrac{E_{0}\sin(kx-\omega t)\hat{j}\timesB_{0}\sin(kx-\omega t)\hat{k}}{\mu_{0}}[/tex]

[tex]\vec{S}=\dfrac{E_{0}B_{0}}{\mu_{0}}(\sin^2(kx-\omega t))\hat{i}[/tex]

Hence, The poynting vector is [tex]\dfrac{E_{0}B_{0}}{\mu_{0}}(\sin^2(kx-\omega t))\hat{i}[/tex]

Answer:

On that line segment between the two charges, at approximately [tex]0.7\; \rm m[/tex] away from the smaller charge (the one with a magnitude of [tex]5 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex],) and approximately [tex]1.3\; \rm m[/tex] from the larger charge (the one with a magnitude of [tex]20 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex].)

Explanation:

Each of the two point charges generate an electric field. These two fields overlap at all points in the space around the two point charges. At each point in that region, the actual electric field will be the sum of the field vectors of these two electric fields.

Let [tex]k[/tex] denote the Coulomb constant, and let [tex]q[/tex] denote the size of a point charge. At a distance of [tex]r[/tex] away from the charge, the electric field due to this point charge will be:

[tex]\displaystyle E = \frac{k\, q}{r^2}[/tex].

At the point (or points) where the electric field is zero, the size of the net electrostatic force on any test charge should also be zero.

Consider a positive test charge placed on the line joining the two point charges in this question. Both of the two point charges here are positive. They will both repel the positive test charge regardless of the position of this test charge.

When the test charge is on the same side of both point charges, both point charges will push the test charge in the same direction. As a result, the two electric forces (due to the two point charges) will not balance each other, and the net electric force on the test charge will be non-zero.  

On the other hand, when the test charge is between the two point charges, the electric forces due to the two point charges will counteract each other. This force should be zero at some point in that region.

Keep in mind that the electric field at a point is zero only if the electric force on any test charge at that position is zero. Therefore, among the three sections, the line segment between the two point charges is the only place where the electric field could be zero.

Let [tex]q_1 = 5\times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] and [tex]q_2 = 20 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex]. Assume that the electric field is zero at [tex]r[/tex] meters to the right of the [tex]5\times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] point charge. That would be [tex](2 - r)[/tex] meters to the left of the [tex]20 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] point charge. (Since this point should be between the two point charges, [tex]0 < r < 2[/tex].)

The electric field due to [tex]q_1 = 5\times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] would have a magnitude of:

[tex]\displaystyle | E_1 | = \frac{k\cdot q_1}{r^2}[/tex].

The electric field due to [tex]q_2 = 20 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] would have a magnitude of:

[tex]\displaystyle | E_2 | = \frac{k\cdot q_2}{(2 - r)^2}[/tex].

Note that at all point in this section, the two electric fields [tex]E_1[/tex] and [tex]E_2[/tex] will be acting in opposite directions. At the point where the two electric fields balance each other precisely, [tex]| E_1 | = | E_2 |[/tex]. That's where the actual electric field is zero.

[tex]| E_1 | = | E_2 |[/tex] means that [tex]\displaystyle \frac{k\cdot q_1}{r^2} = \frac{k\cdot q_2}{(2 - r)^2}[/tex].

Simplify this expression and solve for [tex]r[/tex]:

[tex]\displaystyle q_1\, (2 - r)^2 - q_2 \, r^2 = 0[/tex].

[tex]\displaystyle 5\times (2 - r)^2 - 20\, r^2 = 0[/tex].

Either [tex]r = -2[/tex] or [tex]\displaystyle r = \frac{2}{3}\approx 0.67[/tex] will satisfy this equation. However, since this point (the point where the actual electric field is zero) should be between the two point charges, [tex]0 < r < 2[/tex]. Therefore, [tex](-2)[/tex] isn't a valid value for [tex]r[/tex] in this context.

As a result, the electric field is zero at the point approximately [tex]0.67\; \rm m[/tex] away the [tex]5\times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] charge, and approximately [tex]2 - 0.67 \approx 1.3\; \rm m[/tex] away from the [tex]20 \times 10^{-19}\; \rm C[/tex] charge.