1.Discuss four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates. How does: (a) negative-feedback regulation; (b) neuroendocrine reflexes; and (C) diurnal rhythms, modulate these factors.
2. Compare and contrast all relevant factors contributing to: (a) activation; (b) synthesis; (c) secretion; and (d) regulation of the adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis.

Answers

Answer 1
The four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates Rate of hormone synthesis and secretion, rate of hormone metabolism and excretion, binding the of the hormone to plasma proteins, and receptor sensitivity.Adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis are two parts of the pituitary gland that have different functions and are regulated by different factors activation, synthesis, secretion, and regulation.


The four general factors that control the effective plasma concentration of a hormone in higher vertebrates are:

(a) Rate of hormone synthesis and secretion: The rate at which a hormone is synthesized and secreted affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(b) Rate of hormone metabolism and excretion: The rate at which a hormone is metabolized and excreted affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(c) Binding of the hormone to plasma proteins: The binding of a hormone to plasma proteins affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.(d) Receptor sensitivity: The sensitivity of receptors to a hormone affects the effective plasma concentration of that hormone.

Negative-feedback regulation, neuroendocrine reflexes, and diurnal rhythms all modulate these factors. Negative-feedback regulation works to maintain homeostasis by decreasing hormone synthesis and secretion when hormone levels are too high, and increasing hormone synthesis and secretion when hormone levels are too low. Neuroendocrine reflexes involve the release of hormones in response to neural stimuli, such as stress or changes in the environment. Diurnal rhythms involve the release of hormones in response to changes in the time of day or season.
Adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis are two parts of the pituitary gland that have different functions and are regulated by different factors.

(a) Activation: The adenohypophysis is activated by releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, while the neurohypophysis is activated by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus.(b) Synthesis: The adenohypophysis synthesizes hormones, while the neurohypophysis does not synthesize hormones, but stores and releases hormones synthesized in the hypothalamus.(c) Secretion: The adenohypophysis secretes hormones into the bloodstream, while the neurohypophysis releases hormones into the bloodstream.(d) Regulation: The adenohypophysis is regulated by releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, while the neurohypophysis is regulated by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus.

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Related Questions

A type of agglutination test in which you are looking for antibody to a bacterial cell and the actual bacteria is used as the antigen would be considered: A. Direct B. Indirect (passive) C. Reverse passive D. Not an agglutination assay

Answers

A type of agglutination test in which you are looking for antibody to a bacterial cell and the actual bacteria is used as the antigen would be considered is Direct agglutination. Option A.

In a direct agglutination test, the antigen is directly coated on the surface of a carrier particle, such as a bacterial cell, and the antibody is added to the mixture. If the antibody binds to the antigen, it will cause the particles to clump together, or agglutinate, indicating a positive result. This type of test is commonly used to detect the presence of antibodies to bacteria, such as Streptococcus or Salmonella, in a patient's serum.

In contrast, an indirect (passive) agglutination test uses an antigen that is not directly coated on the carrier particle, but is instead attached to a different molecule, such as a protein, that is then coated on the carrier particle. A reverse passive agglutination test is similar, but uses an antibody that is coated on the carrier particle instead of an antigen. Both of these tests are used to detect the presence of specific antigens, rather than antibodies, in a patient's serum.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Direct, as this type of agglutination test uses the actual bacteria as the antigen and is used to detect the presence of antibodies to the bacterial cell.

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Which two environmental changes would be likely to make an ecosystem less stable?

A. A keystone species is removed from the area.

B. An invasive species of plant is introduced to the area.

C. A predator population increases one year and then decreases the next year.

D. A beaver dam temporarily reroutes a river.​

Answers

The two environmental changes that would likely make an ecosystem less stable are:

B. An invasive species of plant is introduced to the area: An invasive species can outcompete native species, disrupt food webs, and alter the physical environment of the ecosystem, leading to instability.

D. A beaver dam temporarily reroutes a river: Changing the flow of a river can alter the physical characteristics of an ecosystem, including water availability and sediment deposition, which can have cascading effects on the ecosystem's structure and function.

While the removal of a keystone species and fluctuations in predator populations can also affect the stability of an ecosystem, they are not necessarily always destabilizing. The removal of a keystone species could lead to a trophic cascade, but this could also have a stabilizing effect on the ecosystem. Similarly, fluctuations in predator populations can have both stabilizing and destabilizing effects, depending on their timing and magnitude.

What part of the PNS carries information to the CNS?

Answers

The part of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) that carries information to the Central Nervous System (CNS) is known as the Sensory or Afferent division.

The peripheral nervous system (PNS), together with the central nervous system (CNS), is one of two parts that make up an animal's nervous system (CNS). Outside of the brain and spinal cord, the PNS is made up of nerves and ganglia. The primary job of the PNS is to convey information between the brain and spinal cord and the rest of the body via connecting the CNS to the limbs and organs. The PNS, unlike the CNS, is not shielded from toxins by the blood-brain barrier, the spinal column, or the skull, unlike the CNS.

The sensory (afferent) division transports sensory impulses from central nervous system receptors via afferent nerve fibres (CNS). It can be separated into somatic and visceral divisions for further subdivision. Signals coming from receptors in the skin, muscles, bones, and joints are carried by the somatic sensory division. This division is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body's receptors (such as those in the skin, muscles, and joints) to the CNS for processing and interpretation. The Sensory division is made up of sensory neurons, which are specialized nerve cells that are capable of detecting changes in the external or internal environment and converting these changes into electrical signals that can be transmitted to the CNS.

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We know that constitutive compounds are always available in a plant to provide protection against an attack while inducible compounds are only triggered when the attack occurs.
Why not just have ALL compounds as constitutive so they are always available if an attack occurs?

Answers

We know that constitutive compounds are always available in a plant to provide protection against an attack while inducible compounds are only triggered when the attack occurs. Not just have ALL compounds as constitutive so they are always available if an attack occurs because it requires great energy to grow constitutive energy and interfering physiological processes.

Plants have developed a complex system of defense mechanisms, including both constitutive and inducible compounds, to protect themselves against attacks from pests and pathogens. Constitutive compounds are always present in the plant, while inducible compounds are only produced in response to an attack. There are several reasons why plants do not rely solely on constitutive compounds for protection. Firstly, producing and maintaining constitutive compounds requires a significant amount of energy and resources. This can be a major drain on the plant's resources, especially if the compounds are not needed. Inducible compounds, on the other hand, are only produced when needed, which can help conserve resources.

Secondly, relying solely on constitutive compounds may not provide sufficient protection against all types of attacks. Inducible compounds can provide a more targeted response to specific types of attacks, allowing the plant to better defend itself. Finally, some constitutive compounds may have negative effects on the plant, such as reducing growth or interfering with other physiological processes. By only producing these compounds when needed, plants can avoid these negative effects.

In conclusion, while constitutive compounds are an important part of a plant's defense system, they are not sufficient to provide complete protection against all types of attacks. Inducible compounds play a crucial role in helping plants defend themselves against pests and pathogens, and are an essential part of a plant's overall defense strategy.

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What enzyme (or chemical method) was used on Protein Example #2 to make the D fragments?
a. trypsin
b. chymotrypsin
c. V8 protease
d. asp-N-protease
e. pepsin
f. cyanogen bromide
"D" Fragments – Protein #2
D-1) E A
D-2) V K
D-3) M L E G K
D-4) W F N S E K
D-5) G P Q A A N V T K
D-6) T L E E G Q A V S F E I V E G N R
D-7) G F G F I E V E G Q D D V F V H F S A I Q G E G F K

Answers

The enzyme used on Protein Example #2 to make the D fragments is trypsin.

Trypsin is a protease, meaning it breaks down proteins, and it specifically cleaves proteins at the carboxyl side of lysine and arginine. This means that trypsin cleaves after the amino acids lysine (K) and arginine (R).

When trypsin is used, the resulting cleavage sites produce a series of peptides, which are referred to as the "D" fragments. The "D" fragments of Protein #2 are as follows: D-1) E A, D-2) V K, D-3) M L E G K, D-4) W F N S E K, D-5) G P Q A A N V T K, D-6) T L E E G Q A V S F E I V E G N R, D-7) G F G F I E V E G Q D D V F V H F S A I Q G E G F K.

Therefore, we can say that trypsin is used on Protein Example #2 to make D fragments.

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You are sitting calmly while you working. The amount of air that is regularly being exchanged through your lungs during this time is called the

residual volume

vital capacity

total lung capacity

tidal volume

Answers

Answer:

tidal volume

Explanation:

The amount of air that is regularly being exchanged through your lungs during calm sitting is called the tidal volume.

1a) The 3 carbon molecule generated during glycolysis is
called _____________________.
A. struvate
B. acetyl-CoA
C. oxaloacetate
D. pyruvate.

Answers

Option d) is the correct answer. Pyruvate is a 3-carbon molecule generated during glycolysis. It is the end-product of the preparatory reaction of glycolysis, which is the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. Pyruvate is then used in a variety of metabolic processes, such as energy production, biosynthesis, and the synthesis of other molecules.

In energy production, pyruvate is converted into ATP, the energy currency of the cell. This is done through a process called oxidative phosphorylation, in which pyruvate is oxidized to form acetyl-CoA, which is then further oxidized and combined with ADP to form ATP.

In biosynthesis, pyruvate is used to make other molecules, such as amino acids, lipids, and nucleic acids. It can be converted into various intermediates such as oxaloacetate, malate, and fumarate, which can then be used to make other molecules.

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Enzymes increase the reaction rate by:
allowing reactions to proceed at a higher temperatures
increasing the energy of collisions
increasing the concentration of substrate
lowering the activation ener

Answers

Enzymes increase the reaction rate by lowering the activation energy. Thus, Option D is correct.

This allows the reaction to proceed more quickly and efficiently, as less energy is required to initiate the reaction.

The other options listed, such as allowing reactions to proceed at a higher temperature, increasing the energy of collisions, and increasing the concentration of substrate, are not accurate descriptions of how enzymes increase reaction rates. Enzymes function by lowering the activation energy, which is the minimum amount of energy required for a reaction to occur.

By lowering this energy barrier, enzymes allow reactions to proceed more quickly and efficiently.

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What would be the outcome of Ames test if too much histidine
were added to the top agar?

Answers

The outcome of the Ames test if too much histidine were added to the top agar would be that there would be a higher number of revertant colonies appearing on the plate. This would make it difficult to determine if the test substance is mutagenic or not, as the excess histidine could be masking the effects of the test substance.

The Ames test is a bacterial reverse mutation assay that is used to determine if a test substance is mutagenic or not. It is performed by treating bacterial cells with the test substance and then plating them onto an agar medium that lacks histidine. The bacterial cells used in the test are histidine-dependent mutants that cannot grow without histidine in the medium. However, if the test substance is mutagenic, it can cause mutations in the bacterial cells that allow them to revert back to being able to grow without histidine. These revertant colonies are then counted to determine if the test substance is mutagenic or not.

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Explain molecularly and with genotypes what happened to cause Stern’s (1936) observation of twin spots in fruit flies (one patch with recessive bristle expression and one adjacent patch with recessive body color expression in a fly heterozygous for both linked traits):

Answers

Stern's 1936 observation of twin spots in fruit flies can be explained molecularly and with genotypes.


The genetic mechanism underlying the twin-spot phenotype is described below.

Molecularly: Stern observed a pair of phenotypically distinct spots on the wings of a heterozygous fly. It was hypothesized that this phenotype was caused by somatic loss of heterozygosity, in which the two genetically distinct cells that make up the wing were differentially affected by mitotic recombination, resulting in the two-color spots.Genotypes: This phenotype is caused by genetic recombination between the recessive bristle and body color genes, both of which are located on the X chromosome. The phenomenon of genetic recombination between linked loci is referred to as crossing over, and it is critical for producing genetic diversity. In a heterozygous fly, crossing over between the homologous chromosomes during meiosis results in the production of recombinant gametes, which have new combinations of alleles from both parents, thus causing twin spots on the wings of the fly.

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What 2 systems are involved in nutrient absorption?

Answers

The two systems involved in nutrient absorption in humans are the digestive system and the circulatory system.

Nutrient absorption

The two systems that are involved in nutrient absorption are the digestive system and the circulatory system.

The digestive system breaks down food into smaller molecules through mechanical and chemical digestion, and these molecules are then absorbed by the small intestine.

The circulatory system then transports the absorbed nutrients to the liver, where they are processed and distributed to the rest of the body's cells for energy and growth.

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How
would you draw a polyglutamine peptide and a polyalanine peptide?
please explain the approach. draw separate please.

Answers

To draw a polyglutamine peptide and a polyalanine peptide, you can follow these steps know the structure of the amino acids, draw a peptide bond, draw a polyglutamine peptide, draw a polyalanine peptide, and give label the amino and carboxyl ends of the peptides.

The following are the instruction to draw a polyglutamine peptide and a polyalanine peptide. First, you need to know the structure of the amino acids glutamine and alanine. Glutamine has the structure H2N-CH(CO2H)-CH2-CH2-CONH2 and alanine has the structure H2N-CH(CH3)-CO2H. Next, you need to know how to draw a peptide bond. A peptide bond is formed when the carboxyl group (-CO2H) of one amino acid reacts with the amino group (-NH2) of another amino acid, releasing a molecule of water (H2O) and forming a bond between the carbon and nitrogen atoms.

To draw a polyglutamine peptide, you need to draw multiple glutamine amino acids and connect them with peptide bonds. For example, to draw a tripeptide of glutamine, you would draw three glutamine amino acids and connect them with two peptide bonds. Similarly, to draw a polyalanine peptide, you need to draw multiple alanine amino acids and connect them with peptide bonds. Make sure to label the amino and carboxyl ends of the peptides, as well as any side chains.

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In your own words, describe what a reaction norm is and why it
might be useful when studying the evolution of continuous trait
values. (4 points)

Answers

A reaction norm is a concept in evolutionary biology that describes the relationship between an organism's genotype and the environment in which it develops.

It is a graphical representation of the different phenotypes that can be produced by a single genotype in different environments. Reaction norms are useful when studying the evolution of continuous trait values because they allow researchers to understand how genetic and environmental factors interact to produce variation in a trait.

By examining reaction norms, researchers can determine how much of the variation in a trait is due to genetic factors and how much is due to environmental factors. This information is important for understanding the evolutionary history of a trait and for predicting how it may change in the future.

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______________________ is the test characteristic defined as
the accuracy in correctly identifying a true positive.

Answers

Sensitivity is the test characteristic defined as the accuracy in correctly identifying a true positive.

Sensitivity is a statistical measure that quantifies the proportion of actual positives that are correctly identified by a test. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false negatives.

Sensitivity is an important measure in medical testing as it determines the ability of a diagnostic test to accurately detect a disease or condition when it is present.

A highly sensitive test will correctly identify most cases of the disease, while a test with low sensitivity may miss many cases, leading to false negative results and delayed or incorrect diagnosis.

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What are the serum markers at diagnosis in testicular tumors and
which are important in which tumors? Explain in details.

Answers

The main serum markers that are commonly used in the diagnosis of testicular tumors are alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).

Serum markers are substances that can be detected in the blood and can be used to help diagnose and monitor testicular tumors.

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is normally produced by the liver and yolk sac during fetal development. Elevated levels of AFP can be found in patients with non-seminomatous germ cell tumors, such as embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, and choriocarcinoma.

Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) is a hormone that is normally produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Elevated levels of beta-hCG can be found in patients with choriocarcinoma and some cases of embryonal carcinoma.

Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is an enzyme that is found in many tissues throughout the body. Elevated levels of LDH can be found in patients with both seminomatous and non-seminomatous germ cell tumors.

It is important to note that not all testicular tumors will produce elevated levels of these serum markers. Seminomas, for example, typically do not produce elevated levels of AFP or beta-hCG. Therefore, the presence or absence of these serum markers can help to differentiate between different types of testicular tumors and can be used to guide treatment decisions.

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1. We'll assume you've already got COMSOL Multiphysics installed from the previous COMSOL DC. :) 2. Use COMSOL Multiphysics to simulate a Bioengineering-relevant fluidic system of your choosing. You can't do exactly what I did in the video linked below (two blood vessels), but there's still tons of Bioengineering-relevant fluids that you can choose, in the body, or in a medical device, or even in the broader biosciences. If you're having trouble thinking of something to simulate, reach out to me or the TAs and we'll help you brainstorm! If you need a refresher of how to model fluid systems in COMSOL, here's a video showing a blood vessel simulation in COMSOL B. (Skip ahead to30:00for the COMSOL part, and ignore any mentions of the "ENGR VPN" as that was replaced with GlobalProtect). I recommend running COMSOL while watching the video and "playing along" to copy my model, then start over to make your own model. 3. When you've simulated your model and you're happy with it, click the little camera icon on the simulation results view (or use your computer's screenshot functionality) to save an image of the simulation results, and also save your model (the MPH file). Upload both of those files (the simulation result picture, and the MPH file) to this Assignment, and in the Comment text box write a sentence or two that describes what you simulated, so that we know what we're looking at! Submit all three things (the simulation result picture, the MPH file, and a description in the Comment) by

Answers

In order to answer this question, you should first use COMSOL Multiphysics to simulate a Bioengineering-relevant fluidic system of your choice.

Once you have simulated the model and are happy with the results, click the camera icon to save an image of the simulation results, and also save the MPH file.

Upload both the simulation result picture and the MPH file to the assignment and include a sentence or two in the comment text box that describes what you simulated.

This way, the TAs and professors will know what they are looking at.

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How antibiotics kill bacteria: from targets to networks

Answers

Antibiotics kill bacteria by targeting various cellular components such as cell walls, protein synthesis, DNA replication, and metabolic pathways, ultimately disrupting essential biological processes and leading to bacterial death.

Antibiotics have a diverse range of targets within bacterial cells, each with a different mechanism of action. For example, beta-lactams inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell walls, macrolides inhibit protein synthesis, fluoroquinolones interfere with DNA replication, and sulfonamides inhibit metabolic pathways.

By targeting these essential cellular components, antibiotics disrupt vital processes required for bacterial survival, leading to their death. Moreover, the mechanisms of action of antibiotics are often interrelated and can affect multiple cellular pathways, leading to complex networks of interactions.

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how
does tbe plasma membrane provide structure information for a
transmembrane protein

Answers

The plasma membrane provides structure information for a transmembrane protein by allowing it to be embedded within the lipid bilayer.

This is because the plasma membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer, with hydrophobic tails facing inward and hydrophilic heads facing outward. Transmembrane proteins are also composed of hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions, allowing them to be embedded within the membrane and interact with both the inside and outside of the cell.

This structure also allows for the proper orientation and function of the protein within the membrane. Additionally, the plasma membrane can provide structural support for the protein through interactions with the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix.

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In the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster, the alleles for sparkling eyes and shaven bristles are so tightly linked that essentially no crossovers occur between these two loci. A dihybrid with this genotype,
spa +
sv/spasv +
, is test crossed to the tester spa sv / spa sv. What percentage of progeny would you expect to have sparkling eyes and shaven bristles? a) 0%
b)5%
c)25%
d)35%
E)40%

Answers

If the alleles for sparkling eyes (spa) and shaven bristles (sv) are so tightly linked that essentially no recombination occur between these two loci i.e. there will be a) 0% recombination.

They will behave as if they are on the same chromosome, and will segregate together during meiosis. Therefore, the expected gametes produced by the dihybrid parent with genotype spa + sv/spa sv + are:

spa + sv

spa + sv +

spa sv

spa sv +

The tester parent spa sv / spa sv will only produce gametes with the spa sv genotype.

When genes were clustered on the same chromosome, Morgan and his team discovered that certain genes were extremely tightly coupled (exhibited very little recombination), while others were lossely linked (showed higher recombination).

The chance of recombination is 50% when the genes are far from one another or on different chromosomes. In this instance, the two loci's allele inheritance is independent. Recombination frequency less than 50% indicates a connection between the two loci. And tightly linked genes show 0 % recombination.

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Why do most laboratories use either spinach or pea for chloroplast isolation, even though many different plant species can be used for the isolation of intact chloroplasts?Why do most laboratories use either spinach or pea for chloroplast isolation, even though many different plant species can be used for the isolation of intact chloroplasts?

Answers

Chloroplasts are typically isolated from spinach or pea because they are a readily available source of intact chloroplasts and the procedures used to isolate them from these plants are well established. These two species are also abundant and easy to grow in laboratories, so they are the most cost-effective source of chloroplasts for most laboratories.

Additionally, spinach and pea chloroplasts have a high degree of structural and functional similarity, so the results obtained from their isolation can be reliably applied to other plant species.

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Explain the roles of mitosis cell division, meiosis, and
fertilization in the human life cycle?
Describe the role of centrioles during mitosis.

Answers

Mitosis cell division, meiosis, and fertilization are all necessary processes that play important roles in the life cycle of humans.

Mitosis cell division creates identical daughter cells. This mechanism helps tissues develop and heal. Centrioles organize the mitotic spindle, which divides chromosomes during mitosis.

Meiosis divides cells into four genetically distinct daughter cells. Gametes, or sex cells, are needed for fertilizations and birth.

Fertilization produces a zygote, which will grow into a new person. This process sustains human existence.


In conclusion, mitosis cell division, meiosis, and fertilization are all important processes that play essential roles in the human life cycle. Each of these processes is necessary for the growth, repair, and continuation of human life.

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State three important factors that control the penetration of the electron transport mediator (ETM) close to the enzyme active center inside the protein matrix in 2 nd generation amperometric biosensors.
Define ASSURED, for the rapid diagnostic device suggested by WHO

Answers

Three important factors that control the penetration of the electron transport mediator (ETM) close to the enzyme active center inside the protein matrix in 2 nd generation amperometric biosensors are the size of the ETM molecule, the charge of the ETM molecule, and the hydrophobicity of the ETM molecule

ASSURED, for the rapid diagnostic device suggested by WHO are affordable, sensitive, specific, user-friendly, rapid and robust, equipment-free, and deliverable to end-users

Three important factors that control the penetration of the electron transport mediator (ETM) close to the enzyme active center inside the protein matrix in 2nd generation amperometric biosensors are:
1. The size of the ETM molecule: Smaller ETM molecules can penetrate more easily into the protein matrix than larger ones.
2. The charge of the ETM molecule: The charge of the ETM molecule can affect its ability to penetrate into the protein matrix. For example, positively charged ETMs may be more easily attracted to negatively charged areas within the protein matrix.
3. The hydrophobicity of the ETM molecule: Hydrophobic ETMs may be more easily able to penetrate into the hydrophobic regions within the protein matrix.

ASSURED is an acronym used by the World Health Organization (WHO) to describe the ideal characteristics of a rapid diagnostic device. It stands for:
A - Affordable
S - Sensitive
S - Specific
U - User-friendly
R - Rapid and robust
E - Equipment-free
D - Deliverable to end-users

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List four anatomic areas of the human body that are used to produce language (i.e. lips), define them, and briefly explain how they are used (i.e. tongue placement, air flow etc…) in one to two sentences each.
**** This is a Anthropology Question

Answers

The four anatomic areas of the human body that are used to produce language are the lips, tongue, vocal cords, and lungs.

1. Lips: The lips are used to shape the sounds that are produced by the vocal cords. They can be used to create different sounds by changing their position and shape.
2. Tongue: The tongue is used to control the flow of air and to create different sounds by changing its position and shape.
3. Vocal cords: The vocal cords are used to produce the sound of the voice. They vibrate to create different pitches and tones.
4. Lungs: The lungs are used to control the flow of air, which is necessary for the production of sound. They provide the air that is used to create the sounds produced by the vocal cords.

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what are Types of molecular interactions ß-sitosterol exhibits for bioactivity.
please explain in details, you can explain half a page

Answers

ß-Sitosterol exhibits various types of molecular interactions for bioactivity, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, pi-pi interactions, and electrostatic interactions.

Hydrogen bonds are the strongest of the four types and involve hydrogen atoms from one molecule binding with an oxygen or nitrogen atom from another molecule. Hydrophobic interactions involve the non-polar hydrophobic parts of the molecule coming together. Pi-pi interactions involve the stacking of aromatic rings, while electrostatic interactions involve the attraction of oppositely charged molecules.

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Why do you think that most animals have some variant of either a nerve net or a central nervous system? Why is there not just a single type of nervous system? Why not more than 2 main types of nervous systems?

Answers

Most animals have some variant of either a nerve net or a central nervous system because these two systems have evolved to be the most effective and efficient ways of transmitting and processing information throughout the body.

A nerve net, which is found in simpler animals like jellyfish and anemones, is a diffuse network of neurons that allows for simple responses to stimuli. A central nervous system, which is found in more complex animals like mammals and birds, is a more centralized system that allows for more complex behaviors and responses to stimuli. There is not just a single type of nervous system because different animals have different needs and environments. A nerve net is sufficient for simple animals that do not need to process complex information, while a central nervous system is necessary for more complex animals that need to process more information and make more complex decisions.

There are not more than 2 main types of nervous systems because the nerve net and central nervous system have been shown to be the most effective and efficient systems for transmitting and processing information. Other types of nervous systems may have evolved in the past, but they were not as successful and therefore did not become the dominant systems.

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i need help w number 17

Answers

Answer:

photosynthesis

Explanation:

13. The brain signals the body of an arimal to move by transmittieg electrical impulses through the neurons. An crimal is then able to walk or run because

Answers

By sending electrical impulses through neurons, the brain signals the body to move, activating the muscles that are responsible for movement.

The electrical impulses that travel between brain neurons are referred to as brain signals. For the brain to regulate and synchronise the body's movements, thoughts, and emotions, these messages are necessary. There are billions of neurons in the brain, and they all communicate with one another via a sophisticated network of synapses. A neuron sends off an electrical impulse that travels down its axon and causes the release of neurotransmitters when it receives a signal from another neuron. A new electrical impulse is then started when these neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the surface of additional neurons. The brain is able to regulate all facets of the body's behaviour and function, from simple physical movements to intricate cognitive functions, by sending and receiving these signals.

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Genetic experiments often require constructing specific chromosomes with the desired genotype, which involves matings to produce specific recombinant progeny. The multiply-marked X chromosome we will use in lab 7 carries four markers: yellow (y). crossveinless (ev), vermillion (w and forked O. However, as vermillion is not used in the lab. Dr. Gilliland wants to build a tester stock that only carries mutants for y, ev and f.
1a) This goal is easier because these are X-linked genes. What feature of X-linked genes helps simplify finding the right recombinant chromosome? (2 pts)
1b) BRIEFLY Describe a hang seleme has could produce that desired chromosome. You have two homozygous parent stocks to start with: the current multiple-mutant stock, y- cv- y- f-, and the wildtype strain Oregon-R, which is y+ ev+ v+ f+. Indicate the males and females you would cross each generation, and state what outcome(s) would be needed to create the desired chromosome. (Hint: the shortest possible solution requires 2 generations, but other crosses work too.) (8 pts)
parents: y- cv- y- f- y+ ev+ v+ f+
goal: y- cv- v+ f-

Answers

The feature of X-linked genes that helps simplify finding the right recombinant chromosome is that they are passed directly from father to daughter. This means that any desired recombinant chromosome can be obtained in one generation of mating.

To create the desired chromosome, a two-generation cross could be used. In the first generation, the wild-type strain Oregon-R (y+ ev+ v+ f+) should be crossed with the current multiple-mutant stock (y- cv- y- f-).

The resulting F1 progeny should be crossed back to the multiple-mutant stock (y- cv- y- f-) in the second generation. In the F2 progeny, the desired chromosome (y- cv- v+ f-) should be present, as it is the combination of the y- cv- from the multiple-mutant stock, and the v+ f- from the wild-type strain Oregon-R.

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You are using SDS Page to confirm purification of an enzyme at each step. At each step you see your target. What is your hypothesis if following the last step you do not detect a band on the SDS gel.

Answers

The hypothesis is that the enzyme was not purified successfully during the last step. It is possible that the sample contained other proteins that were not removed and they are obscuring the target enzyme. It is also possible that the target enzyme was denatured during the last step. You could confirm this hypothesis by running a western blot with a specific antibody against the target enzyme.

Example of making hypothesis

My hypothesis would be that the enzyme was not successfully purified during the last step of the process. This could be due to a variety of factors, such as the enzyme not binding to the purification column or being lost during the elution process.

It is also possible that the enzyme was degraded or damaged during the purification process, leading to its absence from the SDS gel. Further investigation would be needed to determine the exact cause of the enzyme's absence from the gel.

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Trace a troponin molecule from the great cardiac vein of the
heart to an extensor muscle on the dorsum of the foot.

Answers

The troponin molecule begins its journey in the great cardiac vein of the heart. From here, it enters the systemic circulation and is transported through the aorta and down the femoral artery. It then enters the iliac artery and proceeds to the dorsalis pedis artery. From here, it is transported to the dorsum of the foot, where it enters the extensor muscle.


A troponin molecule is a protein that is involved in muscle contraction. It is found in both skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. Here is the step-by-step process of how a troponin molecule travels from the great cardiac vein of the heart to an extensor muscle on the dorsum of the foot:

1. The troponin molecule is first found in the cardiac muscle cells of the heart.
2. It then enters the bloodstream through the great cardiac vein.
3. The troponin molecule travels through the circulatory system until it reaches the lower extremities.
4. It then enters the skeletal muscle cells of the extensor muscles on the dorsum of the foot.
5. Once inside the muscle cell, the troponin molecule binds to actin and tropomyosin, which are other proteins involved in muscle contraction.
6. This binding causes the muscle to contract, allowing the extensor muscles on the dorsum of the foot to move.

In summary, a troponin molecule travels from the great cardiac vein of the heart, through the circulatory system, and into the extensor muscles on the dorsum of the foot, where it plays a role in muscle contraction.

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