After participating in an exercise program, individuals should expect their resting heart rate to decrease, reflecting a positive training adaptation.
This is because regular exercise leads to an increase in the efficiency of the cardiovascular system, allowing the heart to pump more blood with each beat. As a result, the heart doesn't have to work as hard at rest, and the resting heart rate decreases. This decrease in resting heart rate is a good thing, as it indicates that the heart is becoming stronger and more efficient.
It's important to note that the degree of decrease in resting heart rate will vary depending on the individual and their level of fitness prior to starting the exercise program. For example, someone who is very sedentary may experience a larger decrease in resting heart rate compared to someone who is already relatively fit. Additionally, other factors such as age and genetics can also impact the degree of decrease in resting heart rate.
Overall, a decrease in resting heart rate is a positive adaptation to exercise, and individuals should strive to maintain their exercise routine in order to continue to reap the benefits of a stronger, more efficient cardiovascular system.
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to keep a strong, healthy back, a best practice is to ______________________.
To keep a strong, healthy back, a best practice is to: exercise regularly and maintain good posture.
Exercise helps strengthen the muscles in the back, reducing the risk of injury and promoting overall health. It is recommended to perform exercises that target the back muscles, such as rows, pull-ups, and back extensions.
Additionally, maintaining good posture throughout the day, whether sitting or standing, can help alleviate back pain and prevent future injuries.
When sitting, it is important to sit up straight and avoid slouching or hunching over.
When standing, one should distribute their weight evenly on both feet and avoid standing in one position for an extended period of time.
Regular stretching and taking breaks to move and stretch can also be beneficial. Practicing good lifting techniques and avoiding heavy lifting can also help prevent back injuries.
Finally, maintaining a healthy weight and diet can reduce stress on the back and promote overall health.
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the acsm guidelines for minimal frequency of muscle fitness training are ________ days per week.
The ACSM guidelines for the minimal frequency of muscle fitness training are two to three days per week.
The ACSM (American College of Sports Medicine) guidelines for minimal frequency of muscle fitness training recommend engaging in strength training exercises at least 2-3 days per week. This frequency ensures that your muscles have adequate time to recover and grow while still providing sufficient stimulus for muscle strength and endurance improvements.
Each muscle group should be targeted with 8-10 different exercises, and it is advised to perform 2-4 sets of each exercise, with 8-15 repetitions per set. Rest periods between sets should be around 2-3 minutes, allowing your muscles to recover sufficiently before starting the next set.
The key to achieving optimal results is ensuring proper exercise technique, progression, and variety. By gradually increasing the intensity, volume, or frequency of your training, you will continue to challenge your muscles and promote further adaptations. Incorporating different exercises, equipment, or training modalities can also help prevent boredom and plateaus.
Additionally, it is important to prioritize rest and recovery, as well as maintain a well-balanced diet to support muscle growth and overall health. Remember to always listen to your body and adjust your training routine as needed to ensure a safe and effective workout experience.
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24. (p. 75) What is a potential drawback of using hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to reduce risk of osteoporosis?
A. HRT is costly and requires frequent doctor's visits.
B. HRT doesn't improve bone health in women.
C. HRT may increase risk of cancer.
D. HRT increases blood pressure and heart disease
One potential drawback of using hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to reduce the risk of osteoporosis is that it can increase the risk of certain health conditions.
Specifically, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of high blood pressure and heart disease. This is because the hormones used in HRT can cause the blood vessels to constrict, which can lead to higher blood pressure. Additionally, HRT can also cause an increase in certain types of cholesterol, which can contribute to the development of heart disease.
It is important to note that the risks associated with HRT depend on a number of factors, including the specific type of hormones used, the dosage and duration of treatment, and the individual's overall health status. In some cases, the benefits of HRT may outweigh the risks, especially for women who are at high risk of osteoporosis or experiencing severe menopausal symptoms.
However, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of HRT with a healthcare provider before beginning treatment, and to monitor blood pressure and cholesterol levels regularly while on HRT.
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greasy, frothy diarrhea with the smell of __________ may indicate giardiasis.
Frothy diarrhea with the smell of rotten eggs may indicate giardiasis, a parasitic infection caused by Giardia intestinalis.
Greasy, frothy diarrhea with the smell of sulfur or rotten eggs may indicate giardiasis. Giardiasis is an intestinal infection caused by a parasite called Giardia lamblia, which is often transmitted through contaminated water or food. Other symptoms of giardiasis may include abdominal cramps, bloating, nausea, and weight loss. If you suspect you have giardiasis, it is important to see a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.
, frothy diarrhea with the smell of rotten eggs may indicate giardiasis, a parasitic infection caused by Giardia intestinalis.
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the time to introduce solid foods to an infant's diet depends on his or her ________.
The time to introduce solid foods to an infant's diet depends on his or her developmental readiness.
Introducing solid foods to an infant typically occurs around the age of 6 months, but it's essential to consider the baby's individual abilities and signs of readiness. Key factors to observe include the infant's ability to hold their head up, control their tongue, and show interest in food.
It's crucial to watch for signs of readiness before introducing solid foods, as starting too early may lead to difficulties in digestion, increased risk of food allergies, and inadequate nutrient intake from breastmilk or formula. On the other hand, introducing solids too late can result in delayed development and inadequate nutrition as well.
Parents and caregivers should closely observe the infant and consult with their pediatrician to determine the appropriate time to introduce solid foods. This decision should be based on the infant's developmental milestones, nutritional needs, and overall health status. By introducing solid foods at the right time, caregivers can ensure that the infant's transition to a diverse diet is smooth and beneficial for their growth and development.
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Which driver would be considered driving under the influence?
Isaac is driving while smoking a cigarette.
Adelle is driving after trying illegal drugs at a party.
Sasha is driving after taking ibuprofen for her headache.
Mala is driving home after having a few sips of wine at dinner
The driver that would be considered driving under the influence is "Adelle is driving under the influence".
Driving under the influence (DUI) refers to operating a vehicle while impaired by alcohol or drugs. In this scenario, Adelle is driving after trying illegal drugs at a party, which means she is under the influence of drugs. Isaac smoking a cigarette while driving does not necessarily impair his driving ability, so he is not considered DUI.
Sasha taking ibuprofen for her headache is not illegal or impairing, so she is also not DUI. Mala having a few sips of wine at dinner may or may not impair her driving ability, depending on how much she consumed and her tolerance level, but it is still considered driving under the influence and illegal in many jurisdictions.
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people with schizophrenia experience ____________, a loss of contact with reality.
People with schizophrenia experience psychosis, a loss of contact with reality.
Schizophrenia is a severe mental disorder that affects how an individual thinks, feels, and behaves. Psychosis is a major symptom of schizophrenia and can manifest through delusions and hallucinations. Delusions are false beliefs, while hallucinations involve perceiving things that are not present, such as hearing voices or seeing things that do not exist.
Schizophrenia is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic, environmental, and psychological factors. The exact cause, however, is not yet fully understood. The disorder can significantly disrupt a person's daily functioning, relationships, and quality of life. Treatment for schizophrenia typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to help manage symptoms and improve overall well-being. Antipsychotic medications can be effective in reducing or eliminating psychotic symptoms, while therapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy, can help individuals develop coping strategies for dealing with everyday challenges.
Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for individuals with schizophrenia, as it can help prevent or reduce the severity of psychotic episodes and improve long-term outcomes. Support from family, friends, and mental health professionals can also play a vital role in the ongoing care and recovery of those affected by schizophrenia.
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new research on _____ has suggested many individuals with did have disruptions of the _____
New research on Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) has suggested that many individuals with DID have disruptions of the Default Mode Network (DMN).
Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), formerly known as multiple personality disorder, is a mental disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states within a person. These personality states, also known as alters, can take control of the individual's behavior and thoughts.
The DMN is a network of brain regions that are active when an individual is at rest or not focused on the outside world. It plays a significant role in self-referential thinking, memory consolidation, and daydreaming. Disruptions in the DMN have been linked to various mental disorders, including depression, anxiety, and schizophrenia.
Recent studies have found that individuals with DID show abnormal patterns of connectivity within the DMN, suggesting that these disruptions may contribute to the development and maintenance of the disorder. These findings have shed light on the underlying neurobiological mechanisms of DID, helping researchers better understand the disorder and paving the way for more targeted and effective treatment approaches.
In conclusion, the new research on DID has provided valuable insights into the disruptions of the DMN in affected individuals, enhancing our understanding of the disorder and its potential treatment strategies.
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Does laying a baby on their stomach affect their health?
Answer:
Yes it does.
Explanation:
It has a high risk factor for sudden death within the infant if they are sleeping. But, if the child is awake and active laying or even playing on the stomach is advised. It helps babies develop strength and motor skills for the things they will do in the future such as crawling, walking, etc. Also, time on the stomach helps prevents a child from developing flat spots on the soft places on their head. It is recommended by experts that babies get 30 minutes of tummy time per day.
Yes, laying a baby on their stomach can affect their health, increasing the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
Placing a baby on their stomach to sleep is known as the prone position. Studies have shown that this position increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), which is the sudden and unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant under one year of age. This is why the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants be placed on their backs to sleep. Sleeping on the back is associated with a lower risk of SIDS. Additionally, placing a baby on their stomach can also lead to delays in motor development, as the baby is not getting as much time to practice lifting their head and developing their neck muscles.
In summary, laying a baby on their stomach can increase the risk of SIDS and delay motor development. It is recommended that infants be placed on their backs to sleep to promote safe and healthy development.
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after accepting the certainty of death, a period of _____ or preparatory grief may appear.
After accepting the certainty of death, a period of anticipatory or preparatory grief may appear.
Anticipatory grief, also referred to as anticipatory loss or preparatory grief, is the distress a person may feel in the days, months or even years before the death of a loved one or other impending loss. “It’s the experience of knowing that a change is coming, and starting to experience bereavement in the face of that. Grief is a natural emotional response to loss. Anticipatory grief is feelings of grief or loss that are felt before the loss actually happens. People facing their own death or the death of a loved one may experience anticipatory grief.
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if you are sexually active, the only way to know for sure that you are free of stis is to ________.
If you are sexually active, the only way to know for sure that you are free of STIs is to get tested.
It is important to get tested regularly, especially if you are having unprotected sex, are in a new sexual relationship, or have multiple partners. Getting tested is the only way to know for sure if you have an STI or not.
At a minimum, it is recommended to get tested at least once a year, but consult with your doctor or healthcare provider to decide how often you should get tested. The types of tests and screenings you should get depend on your age, gender, and sexual activity. Your doctor or healthcare provider will be able to help you identify what tests you should get and when.
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which of the following is not true for a pregnant woman who was overweight prior to her pregnancy?A) She should restrict her energy intake and attempt to lose weight before her due date.
B) Her baby has an increased risk for being large for gestational age.
C) Her baby has an increased risk of childhood obesity and insulin resistance.
D) She should gain 0.5 lb/week during the second and third trimesters.
The statement that is not true for a pregnant woman who was overweight prior to her pregnancy is (A) She should restrict her energy intake and attempt to lose weight before her due date.
It is not recommended for a pregnant woman who was overweight prior to her pregnancy to attempt to lose weight during pregnancy. Instead, they should aim for a healthy weight gain and lifestyle modifications that support a healthy pregnancy. Therefore, option A is not true.
Option B, C, and D are true for a pregnant woman who was overweight prior to her pregnancy. Her baby has an increased risk for being large for gestational age, an increased risk of childhood obesity and insulin resistance, and she should gain 0.5 lb/week during the second and third trimesters.
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6. (p. 86, 87) Increasing weight for the bench press exercise by 10 pounds is an application of which fitness principle?
A. overload
B. specificity
C. adaptation
D. diminished returns
Increasing weight for the bench press exercise by 10 pounds is an application of the fitness principle of progressive overload.
This principle states that in order to continually see improvements in fitness, the body must be subjected to increasingly challenging levels of stress. In the case of weight lifting, this means gradually increasing the amount of weight lifted over time.
While progressive overload is an important principle for improving fitness, it is important to note that there is a limit to its effectiveness. The principle of diminished returns states that as the body becomes more adapted to a particular form of stress, the rate of improvement will begin to slow down. Eventually, it may become difficult to continue making progress without making significant changes to the exercise program.
To avoid hitting a plateau in fitness gains, it is important to continually challenge the body in new and different ways. This may involve changing up the exercises performed, the number of sets and reps, the amount of weight lifted, or the rest periods between sets. By incorporating variety into a fitness program and continually challenging the body, individuals can continue to see improvements in fitness over time.
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people with acute schizophrenia more often have the ________ symptoms that respond to drug therapy.
People with acute schizophrenia more often have positive symptoms that respond to drug therapy.
Positive symptoms are those that involve a distortion or exaggeration of normal mental functions, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disordered thinking or speech.
These symptoms are often more responsive to drug therapy than negative symptoms, which involve a decrease or loss of normal mental functions, such as reduced emotional expression, social withdrawal, and apathy.
While medication can be helpful in managing positive symptoms, a holistic treatment approach that includes therapy, social support, and lifestyle changes may also be necessary for long-term management of schizophrenia.
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when using the boiling-point method for calibration, what is the first step of the process?
The first step of the process when using the boiling-point method for calibration is to fill a container with a pure, stable substance with a known boiling point at a particular pressure.
Water is the most commonly used substance for this purpose since its boiling point is well-known and easily accessible. However, other substances like ethanol or n-pentane can also be used depending on the application.
Once the container is filled with the substance, it is then placed on a heat source and heated until the substance reaches its boiling point. The temperature of the boiling substance is measured using a calibrated thermometer, which is placed at the same level as the liquid surface, to ensure accuracy. The atmospheric pressure is also measured, and any necessary corrections are made to the boiling point temperature using a correction formula or a correction table.
The boiling-point method is commonly used to calibrate temperature-measuring devices like thermometers and temperature sensors. By determining the boiling point of a substance at a known pressure, the thermometer or temperature sensor can be calibrated to measure temperatures accurately.
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an echocardio_____ is the record of the structure and motion of the heart produced by using sound.
An echocardiogram is the record of the structure and motion of the heart produced by using sound.
A test called echocardiography uses ultrasound to image the heart's activity. It is an ultrasound procedure that uses either regular ultrasonography or Doppler ultrasound to image the heart. Your doctor can watch your heart beating and pumping blood with this regularly performed test.An echocardiogram is the record of the structure and motion of the heart produced by using sound.
An echocardiogram is the record of the structure and motion of the heart produced by using sound waves. This diagnostic test helps evaluate the heart's function and identify any potential issues.
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when a female patient develops cystitis, the most likely cause is from __________.
When a female patient develops cystitis, the most likely cause is from a bacterial infection in the urinary tract.
The urinary tract includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra, and is responsible for removing waste and excess fluids from the body.
Bacteria from the digestive system, particularly E. coli, can enter the urethra and infect the bladder, causing inflammation and irritation of the bladder lining.
Cystitis is more common in females than in males due to the shorter length of the female urethra, which makes it easier for bacteria to reach the bladder.
Symptoms of cystitis include painful urination, frequent urination, lower abdominal pain, and cloudy or strong-smelling urine.
Treatment typically involves antibiotics to clear the infection, drinking plenty of fluids, and avoiding irritating substances like caffeine and alcohol.
Other risk factors for cystitis include sexual activity, use of certain types of birth control (such as diaphragms), and medical conditions like diabetes or a weakened immune system.
Practicing good hygiene and urinating after sexual activity can also help prevent cystitis.
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28. (p. 66) The term "hypokinetic" literally refers to
A. low blood sugar.
B. low sugar.
C. low body temperature.
D. lack of movement.
The term "hypokinetic" is often used in the field of exercise science and refers to a lack of movement or physical activity. This can be due to a variety of reasons such as a sedentary lifestyle, injury, illness, or disability. Hypokinetic behavior has been linked to several negative health outcomes, including obesity, heart disease, and depression.
Individuals who engage in hypokinetic behavior are at higher risk for these health issues because they are not expending the energy needed to maintain a healthy weight and cardiovascular system. Additionally, hypokinetic behavior can lead to muscular weakness and loss of bone density, which can increase the risk of falls and fractures.
To combat hypokinetic behavior, it is important to incorporate regular physical activity into daily life. This can be achieved through a variety of activities, such as walking, cycling, swimming, or participating in sports. Exercise has been shown to improve overall health and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.
It is recommended that adults engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week, as well as muscle-strengthening activities at least two days per week.
In conclusion, the term "hypokinetic" literally refers to a lack of movement or physical activity. It is important to combat hypokinetic behavior through regular physical activity to maintain overall health and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.
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What is one reason a person should avoid texting while driving?
It is a quick way to communicate.
It uses too much data.
It is illegal to text and drive in most states.
It is a convenient way to relay information
Most people say the biggest challenge of ___is just getting dressed
A. The day
B. Exercise
C. Weight Loss
D. Healthy Eating
Answer:
The day
Explanation:
It is the hardest challege for me
on average, moderate exercise adds _____ year(s) to one's life.
On average, moderate exercise adds approximately three years to one's life.
Exercise is an essential component of a healthy lifestyle, as it helps to reduce the risk of developing a wide range of chronic diseases like heart disease, diabetes, and cancer. Exercise also boosts one's overall health, helping to reduce the risk of becoming overweight and improving cognitive functioning.
These benefits are especially pronounced in those who exercise regularly, as opposed to those who only exercise occasionally. Regular physical activity can also improve one's mental health, helping to reduce levels of stress, anxiety, and depression. Exercise helps to improve one's mood, self-esteem, and overall quality of life.
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a 154-pound male endurance athlete should consume _____ grams of protein per day.
A 154-pound male endurance athlete should consume approximately 83.81 to 97.77 grams of protein per day.
To calculate the recommended protein intake for a 154-pound male endurance athlete, you can follow these steps:
1. Convert the athlete's weight to kilograms: 154 pounds / 2.205 (1 kilogram = 2.205 pounds) = 69.84 kilograms
2. Determine the protein intake range for endurance athletes: The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a range of 1.2 to 1.4 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight for endurance athletes.
3. Calculate the protein intake based on the athlete's weight:
- Lower end of the range: 69.84 kilograms * 1.2 grams = 83.81 grams
- Higher end of the range: 69.84 kilograms * 1.4 grams = 97.77 grams
Therefore, a 154-pound male endurance athlete should consume approximately 83.81 to 97.77 grams of protein per day.
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foods that have had some amount of service added to them are called
Foods that have had some amount of service added to them are called "processed foods".
Processing refers to any method that changes the natural state of a food, which can include physical, chemical, or biological processes. Processing can be as simple as washing, cutting, or packaging, or it can involve more complex processes, such as cooking, fermentation, or fortification with vitamins and minerals. While some level of processing is necessary to make foods safe, nutritious, and convenient, excessive processing can lead to the addition of unhealthy ingredients, such as sugar, salt, and fat, and the loss of important nutrients and fiber. Therefore, it is recommended to choose minimally processed or whole foods as much as possible to maintain a healthy and balanced diet.
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exercising ________ days per week is sufficient to improve muscular endurance.
The number of days per week needed to improve muscular endurance through exercise varies depending on several factors. Generally speaking, engaging in resistance training exercises at least two to three days per week is sufficient to see improvements in muscular endurance.
This is because resistance training exercises involve working against resistance, which puts stress on the muscles and causes them to adapt and become stronger over time.
It is important to note that the type of exercise, intensity, and duration also play a role in improving muscular endurance. High-intensity resistance training exercises such as lifting weights or using resistance bands for 30 to 60 minutes per session, two to three times per week, have been shown to improve muscular endurance. However, if the exercises are performed at a lower intensity or for shorter durations, it may be necessary to exercise more frequently to see improvements in muscular endurance.
Additionally, incorporating other forms of exercise such as aerobic activities, stretching, and recovery exercises can also help to improve muscular endurance. Aerobic activities such as running, cycling, or swimming can improve cardiovascular health, which can support overall fitness and endurance. Stretching and recovery exercises such as yoga or foam rolling can help to reduce muscle soreness and improve flexibility, which can improve overall physical performance and prevent injury.
Ultimately, the frequency and type of exercise needed to improve muscular endurance depends on individual goals, fitness levels, and physical abilities. It is always best to consult with a qualified fitness professional to develop a personalized exercise program that meets your specific needs and goals.
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the right of a physician to admit patients and practice medical care at a hospital is known as a
The right of a physician to admit patients and practice medical care at a hospital is known as medical staff privileges or hospital privileges.
Admitting privileges are granted by hospitals to physicians who meet certain criteria, including training, experience, and board certification. The process of obtaining admitting privileges typically involves submitting an application, providing documentation of qualifications, and undergoing a review by the hospital's medical staff.
Having admitting privileges allows a physician to admit patients to a hospital and provide medical care there, including performing surgeries and ordering tests. It also enables a physician to consult with other specialists and use hospital facilities and equipment.
Admitting privileges are important for patient care because they ensure that physicians providing care at the hospital meet certain standards and have the necessary qualifications and training to provide high-quality medical care.
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Which of the following statements is supported by research on the stability of temperament?
A)Long-term prediction from early temperament is best achieved after age three.
B)Temperament does not develop as the child ages.
C)Most irritable infants become difficult children as they age.
D)Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood.
Research has shown that certain aspects of temperament, such as positive and negative emotionality, can be relatively stable across a person's lifetime and influence their personality development. The correct option is : D) Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood.
D) Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood. This statement is supported by research on the stability of temperament. Studies have shown that certain aspects of temperament, such as emotionality and activity level, remain relatively stable from infancy through adulthood.
However, it is important to note that temperament can be influenced by environmental factors and experiences throughout life.
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in general, for males it takes the liver up to ________ to process approximately one drink
In general, for males, it takes the liver up to one hour to process approximately one drink.
This time frame can vary depending on factors such as age, weight, metabolism, and individual health conditions. The liver is responsible for breaking down and removing alcohol from the bloodstream, it does this through a series of chemical reactions involving enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) and aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH). These enzymes convert alcohol into acetaldehyde, a toxic substance, which is then further broken down into harmless acetic acid.It is important to note that the liver can only process a certain amount of alcohol per hour.
Consuming alcohol at a rate faster than the liver can process it leads to an increase in blood alcohol concentration (BAC) and can result in intoxication. Excessive alcohol consumption can also cause long-term liver damage, such as fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. To maintain a healthy liver and avoid the negative effects of alcohol, it is crucial to consume alcohol in moderation and be aware of the one-drink-per-hour guideline, this can help prevent the liver from being overwhelmed and protect it from potential damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption. In general, for males, it takes the liver up to one hour to process approximately one drink.
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The hepatic portal vein brings approximately ______% of the blood volume to the liver.
a 90
b 25
c 50
d 75
The hepatic portal vein brings approximately 75% of the blood volume to the liver. The correct option is (d).
The hepatic portal vein is a blood vessel that carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive system to the liver for processing. It is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein.
The hepatic portal vein accounts for approximately 75% of the blood supply to the liver, with the remainder coming from the hepatic artery. This dual blood supply allows the liver to perform its many functions, including metabolism of nutrients, detoxification of harmful substances, and production of bile.
In addition to its role in nutrient processing and metabolism, the liver also plays a key role in regulating blood glucose levels. When the hepatic portal vein brings blood to the liver, the liver can remove excess glucose from the blood and store it as glycogen for later use. This helps to maintain stable blood glucose levels in the body.
Overall, the hepatic portal vein is a crucial component of the circulatory system and plays a vital role in maintaining overall health and well-being.
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diseases that suddenly become more prevalent are referred to as ________ diseases.
Diseases that suddenly become more prevalent are referred to as "emerging diseases".
What are diseases?Emerging diseases are ailments that have just appeared in a community or have been around for a while but are now rapidly spreading in frequency or geographic reach. Because of how readily they can spread and how many people they can hurt, these illnesses constitute a major risk to the general public's health.
Emerging diseases can be caused by a variety of factors, including changes in the environment, genetic anomalies, and the emergence of novel infections. To mention a few, emerging diseases include COVID-19, Ebola, the Zika virus, SARS, and MERS.
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Justify why electronic media would be more effective for fostering positive
change around Gender Based Violence in South African
Social media provides never-before-seen opportunity to spread the word about violence against women and girls, to keep users safe, and to motivate people to take part in social activism. In addition, it can make it difficult for journalists to distinguish between activism and journalism.
There has been a startling increase in gender-based violence (GBV) and other crimes during the continuing epidemic. In response to the threat of gender-based violence during the pandemic, a number of initiatives have been put out; the majority of these strain the already overburdened health care system and institutions. Furthermore, with minimal emphasis on preventive measures, more attention has been paid to managing and caring for women who have been the victims of violence.
Responsible media reporting may be one of these population-level strategies to reduce the incidence of GBV. Although various infractions in reporting have been noted, insensitive and unethical media coverage of GBV directly affects how society perceives the epidemic.
Complete question is:
Justify why electronic media would be more effective for fostering positive change around Gender Based Violence in South Africa?
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